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  • Best practices for deploying an MVC application on IIS7

    - by gsiler
    I'm not a web admin, and I'm new to IIS. So, I'm looking for advice. My MVC application (e.g. fooapp) is the default application for my site (e.g. foo.bar). I used IIS Manager to add the site to IIS7. When I import the application, IIS Manager wants to put it in it's own directory (/foo), and tells me I shouldn't put it in the base (site) directory. This means that to get to my default MVC view, I have to enter the URL http://foo.bar/fooapp/. Needless to say, I want to get there via http://foo.bar/ I see 2 possible solutions: Add a default page to the site directory that redirects to the MVC app. Ignore the IIS admonition and load the app into the site directory. My IIS7 knowledge is limited. I have played around with some options (such as HTTP Redirect). Since nothing changed, I obviously don't understand what I'm doing. Anyway, if there are some considered "best practices" and/or other suggestions, please let me know.

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  • SQL UNION ALL with a INNER JOIN

    - by kOhm
    I'm looking for the best way to display all rows from two tables while joining first by one field (dwg) then where applicable a 2nd join on part. Table1 data consists of schematics(dwg) along with a list of parts required to build the item depicted in the drawing. Table2 consists of data about the actual parts ordered to build the schematic. Some parts in table2 are a combination of parts in table1 (ex: foo and bar in table1 were ordered as foobar in table2). I can display all rows in both tables with UNION ALL, but this doesn't join on both the dwg and part fields. I looked at FULL OUTER JOIN also, but I haven't figured out how to join first by dwg, then by part. Here is an example of the data. table1 table2 dwg part qty order dwg part qty ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- ----- 123 foo 1 ord1 123 foobar 1 123 bar 1 ord1 123 bracket 2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 screw 4 123 bracket 4 ord2 123 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord2 123 widget 2 ord2 123 bracket 2 ord3 456 foo 1 Desired output: The goal is to create a view that provides visibility to all parts in table1 and the associated orders in table2 (including those parts that appear in one but not the other table) so that I can see all the drawing parts in table1 and the associated records in table2 along with records in table2 where the part wasn't in table1. part_request_order_report dwg part qty order part qty ----- ----- ----- ------ ----- ----- 123 foo 1 123 bar 1 123 widget 2 ord2 widget 2 123 bracket 4 ord1 bracket 2 123 bracket 4 ord2 bracket 2 123 ord1 foobar 1 123 ord1 screw 4 123 ord1 nut 4 456 foo 1 ord3 foo 1 Is this possible? Or am I better off iterating through the data to build the report table? Thanks in advance.

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  • Removing HttpModule for specific path in ASP.NET / IIS 7 application?

    - by soccerdad
    Most succinctly, my question is whether an ASP.NET 4.0 app running under IIS 7 integrated mode should be able to honor this portion of my Web.config file: <location path="auth/windows"> <system.webServer> <modules> <remove name="FormsAuthentication"/> </modules> </system.webServer> </location> I'm experimenting with mixed mode authentication (Windows and Forms - I know there are other questions on S.O. about the topic). Using IIS Manager, I've disabled Anonymous authentication to auth/windows/winauth.aspx, which is within the location path above. I have Failed Request Tracing set up to trace various HTTP status codes, including 302s. When I request the winauth.aspx page, a 302 HTTP status code is returned. If I look at the request trace, I can see that a 401 (unauthorized) was originally generated by the AnonymousAuthenticationModule. However, the FormsAuthenticationModule converts that to a 302, which is what the browser sees. So it seems as though my attempt to remove that module from the pipeline for pages in that path isn't working. But I'm not seeing any complaints anywhere (event viewer, yellow pages of death, etc.) that would indicate it's an invalid configuration. I want the 401 returned to the browser, which presumably would include an appropriate WWW-Authenticate header. A couple of other points: a) I do have <authentication mode="Forms"> in my Web.config, and that is what the 302 redirects to; b) I got the "name" of the module I'm trying to remove from the inetserv\config\applicationHost.config file. Anyone had any luck removing modules in this fashion? Thanks much, Donnie

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  • cancelPreviousPerformRequestWithTarget is not canceling my previously delayed thread started with pe

    - by jmurphy
    Hello, I've launched a delayed thread using performSelector but the user still has the ability to hit the back button on the current view causing dealloc to be called. When this happens my thread still seems to be called which causes my app to crash because the properties that thread is trying to write to have been released. To solve this I am trying to call cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget to cancel the previous request but it doesn't seem to be working. Below are some code snippets. - (void) viewDidLoad { [self performSelector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) withObject:nil afterDelay:6]; } (void)viewWillDisappear:(BOOL)animated { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self selector:@selector(myStopUpdatingLocation) object:nil]; } Am I doing something incorrect here? The method myStopUpdatingLocation is defined in the same class that I'm calling the perform requests. A little more background. The function that I'm trying to implement is to find a users location, search google for some locations around that location and display several annotations on the map. On viewDidLoad I start updating the location with CLLocationManager. I've build in a timeout after 6 seconds if I don't get my desired accuracy within the timeout and I'm using a performSelector to do this. What can happen is the user clicks the back button in the view and this thread will still execute even though all my properties have been released causing a crash. Thanks in advance! James

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  • Forcing Kernel::method_name to be called in Ruby

    - by Peter
    I want to add a foo method to Ruby's Kernel module, so I can write foo(obj) anywhere and have it do something to obj. Sometimes I want a class to override foo, so I do this: module Kernel private # important; this is what Ruby does for commands like 'puts', etc. def foo x if x.respond_to? :foo x.foo # use overwritten method. else # do something to x. end end end this is good, and works. but, what if I want to use the default Kernel::foo in some other object that overwrites foo? Since I've got an instance method foo, I've lost the original binding to Kernel::foo. class Bar def foo # override behaviour of Kernel::foo for Bar objects. foo(3) # calls Bar::foo, not the desired call of Kernel::foo. Kernel::foo(3) # can't call Kernel::foo because it's private. # question: how do I call Kernel::foo on 3? end end Is there any clean way to get around this? I'd rather not have two different names, and I definitely don't want to make Kernel::foo public.

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  • Give a reference to a python instance attribute at class definition

    - by Guenther Jehle
    I have a class with attributes which have a reference to another attribute of this class. See class Device, value1 and value2 holding a reference to interface: class Interface(object): def __init__(self): self.port=None class Value(object): def __init__(self, interface, name): self.interface=interface self.name=name def get(self): return "Getting Value \"%s\" with interface \"%s\""%(self.name, self.interface.port) class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface.port=port if __name__=="__main__": d1=Device("Foo") print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Foo" d2=Device("Bar") print d2.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" print d1.value1.get() # >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "Bar" The last print is wrong, cause d1 should have the interface "Foo". I know whats going wrong: The line interface=Interface() line is executed, when the class definition is parsed (once). So every Device class has the same instance of interface. I could change the Device class to: class Device(object): interface=Interface() value1=Value(interface, name="value1") value2=Value(interface, name="value2") def __init__(self, port): self.interface=Interface() self.interface.port=port So this is also not working: The values still have the reference to the original interface instance and the self.interface is just another instance... The output now is: >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" >>> Getting Value "value1" with interface "None" So how could I solve this the pythonic way? I could setup a function in the Device class to look for attributes with type Value and reassign them the new interface. Isn't this a common problem with a typical solution for it? Thanks!

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  • Setting up relations/mappings for a SQLAlchemy many-to-many database

    - by Brent Ramerth
    I'm new to SQLAlchemy and relational databases, and I'm trying to set up a model for an annotated lexicon. I want to support an arbitrary number of key-value annotations for the words which can be added or removed at runtime. Since there will be a lot of repetition in the names of the keys, I don't want to use this solution directly, although the code is similar. My design has word objects and property objects. The words and properties are stored in separate tables with a property_values table that links the two. Here's the code: from sqlalchemy import Column, Integer, String, Table, create_engine from sqlalchemy import MetaData, ForeignKey from sqlalchemy.orm import relation, mapper, sessionmaker from sqlalchemy.ext.declarative import declarative_base engine = create_engine('sqlite:///test.db', echo=True) meta = MetaData(bind=engine) property_values = Table('property_values', meta, Column('word_id', Integer, ForeignKey('words.id')), Column('property_id', Integer, ForeignKey('properties.id')), Column('value', String(20)) ) words = Table('words', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20)), Column('freq', Integer) ) properties = Table('properties', meta, Column('id', Integer, primary_key=True), Column('name', String(20), nullable=False, unique=True) ) meta.create_all() class Word(object): def __init__(self, name, freq=1): self.name = name self.freq = freq class Property(object): def __init__(self, name): self.name = name mapper(Property, properties) Now I'd like to be able to do the following: Session = sessionmaker(bind=engine) s = Session() word = Word('foo', 42) word['bar'] = 'yes' # or word.bar = 'yes' ? s.add(word) s.commit() Ideally this should add 1|foo|42 to the words table, add 1|bar to the properties table, and add 1|1|yes to the property_values table. However, I don't have the right mappings and relations in place to make this happen. I get the sense from reading the documentation at http://www.sqlalchemy.org/docs/05/mappers.html#association-pattern that I want to use an association proxy or something of that sort here, but the syntax is unclear to me. I experimented with this: mapper(Word, words, properties={ 'properties': relation(Property, secondary=property_values) }) but this mapper only fills in the foreign key values, and I need to fill in the other value as well. Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Need to exclude results in a MySQL query where two table fields are not of certain values (brain far

    - by DondeEstaMiCulo
    I don't know if I'm just burnt out and can't think, or what... But I can't seem to make this work right... (We're using MySQL 5.1...) I have two tables which have some transactional stuff stored in them. There will be many records per user_id in each table. Table1 and Table2 have a one-to-one relationship with each other. I want to pull records from both tables, but I want to exclude records which have certain values in both tables. I don't care if they both don't have these values, or if just one does, but both tables should not have both values. (Does this make any sense? lol) For example: SELECT t1.id, t1.type, t2.name FROM table1 t1 INNER JOIN table2 t2 ON table.xid = table2.id WHERE t1.user_id = 100 AND (t1.type != 'FOO' AND t2.name != 'BAR') So t1.type is type ENUM with about 10 different options, and t2.name is also type ENUM with 2 options. My expected results would look a little like: 1, FOO, YUM 2, BOO, BAR 3, BOO, YUM But instead, all I'm getting is: 3, BOO, YUM Because it's filtering out all records which has 'FOO' as the type, and 'BAR' as the name. I keep waiting for that D'oh! moment where it hits me and I feel like an idiot for not realizing what I'm doing wrong. But it hasn't come. And I still feel like an idiot, lol. I appreciate any light any of you can shed on this! Many thanks in advance for the help!

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  • JavaEE: Question about design

    - by Harry Pham
    I have a JSF page that will create a new Comment. I have the managed bean of that page to be RequestScoped managed bean. @ManagedBean(name="PostComment") @RequestScoped public class PostComment { private Comment comment = null; @ManagedProperty(value="#{A}") private A a; //A is a ViewScoped Bean @ManagedProperty(value="#{B}") private B b; //B is a ViewScoped Bean @PostConstruct public void init(){ comment = new Comment(); } // setters and getters for comment and all the managed property variable public void postComment(String location){ //persist the new comment ... if(location.equals("A")){ //update the comment list on page A }else if(location.equals("B")){ //update the comment list on page B } } } As you can see from the code above, 2 ViewScoped bean A and B will both use method postComment(), and getter getComment() from bean PostComment. The problem I am having right now is that, if I am on A, constructor of A will load, but it will also load constructor of bean B. This make my page load twice as slow. What would be the best way to solve this problem?

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  • How to remove the MenuBar of an application using windows API ?

    - by karthik
    I am using the below code to remove the Title Bar of an application, which is working perfectly for notepad. Now i want to remove the Menu Bar also. How to achieve it ? //Finds a window by class name [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr FindWindow(string lpClassName, string lpWindowName); //Sets a window to be a child window of another window [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern IntPtr SetParent(IntPtr hWndChild, IntPtr hWndNewParent); //Sets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int SetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex, int dwNewLong); //Gets window attributes [DllImport("USER32.DLL")] public static extern int GetWindowLong(IntPtr hWnd, int nIndex); [DllImport("user32.dll", EntryPoint = "FindWindow", SetLastError = true)] static extern IntPtr FindWindowByCaption(IntPtr ZeroOnly, string lpWindowName); //assorted constants needed public static int GWL_STYLE = -16; public static int WS_BORDER = 0x00800000; //window with border public static int WS_DLGFRAME = 0x00400000; //window with double border but no title public static int WS_CAPTION = WS_BORDER | WS_DLGFRAME; //window with a title bar public void WindowsReStyle() { Process[] Procs = Process.GetProcesses(); foreach (Process proc in Procs) { if (proc.ProcessName.StartsWith("notepad")) { IntPtr pFoundWindow = proc.MainWindowHandle; int style = GetWindowLong(pFoundWindow, GWL_STYLE); SetWindowLong(pFoundWindow, GWL_STYLE, (style & ~WS_CAPTION)); } } }

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  • Account activation PHP

    - by Wayne
    I created this account registration activation script of my own, I have checked it over again and again to find errors, I don't see a particular error... The domain would be like this: http://domain.com/include/register.php?key=true&p=AfRWDCOWF0BO6KSb6UmNMf7d333gaBOB Which comes from an email, when a user clicks it, they get redirected to this script: if($_GET['key'] == true) { $key = $_GET['p']; $sql = "SELECT * FROM users WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query($sql) or die(mysql_error()); if(mysql_affected_rows($result) > 0) { $sql = "UPDATE users SET user_key = '', user_active = '1' WHERE user_key = '" . $key . "'"; $result = mysql_query(sql) or die(mysql_error()); if($result) { $_SESSION['PROCESS'] = $lang['Account_activated']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Key_error']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } else { $_SESSION['ERROR'] = $lang['Invalid_key']; header("Location: ../index.php"); } } It doesn't even work at all, I looked in the database with the user with that key, it matches but it keeps coming up as an error which is extremely annoying me. The database is right, the table and column is right, nothing wrong with the database, it's the script that isn't working. Help me out, guys. Thanks :)

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  • Storyboard Bug - iOS 5.1 - Xcode 4.3.3

    - by user1505431
    In my iOS project (using xcode only), I continue to run into a problem where layout presented to me in the storyboard editor becomes automatically modified after some change (which I have not been able to specifically determine). The problem is as follows: The TabBarController has for whatever reason started displaying in landscape orientation. Some of the NavigationControllers have also done the same thing. I can no longer see or edit the navigation bar on my nested views. I can no longer see of edit the tab bar on the views of the resp. tab bar items. Everything works properly when I run the app in my simulator. If I had set it up prior to this change in default display settings, it still works just fine. Here is a screen shot of the problem: My storyboard has consistently presented me with this bug throughout the course of my project. I have fixed it once by resetting via git and another time by rebuilding the entire storyboard. Both solutions worked for an extended period of time, but I would rather have a permanent solution. Any input would be helpful.

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  • Passing optional parameter by reference in c++

    - by Moomin
    I'm having a problem with optional function parameter in C++ What I'm trying to do is to write function with optional parameter which is passed by reference, so that I can use it in two ways (1) and (2), but on (2) I don't really care what is the value of mFoobar. I've tried such a code: void foo(double &bar, double &foobar = NULL) { bar = 100; foobar = 150; } int main() { double mBar(0),mFoobar(0); foo(mBar,mFoobar); // (1) cout << mBar << mFoobar; mBar = 0; mFoobar = 0; foo(mBar); // (2) cout << mBar << mFoobar; return 0; } but it crashes at void foo(double &bar, double &foobar = NULL) with message : error: default argument for 'double& foobar' has type 'int' Is it possible to solve it without function overloading? Thanks in advance for any suggestions. Pawel

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  • Global javascript variable not accessible in jquery change event

    - by Dan
    I have to be missing something simple, but I'm really not sure what. I'm not a JS veteran, so this may be an easy answer - sure hope so :). I have a button that, when clicked, gets JSON data. When a drop-down is changed, I check to see if there is data, if there is, I want to clear it out as the drop-down indicates what data to retrieve when the button is clicked The Code: var selected, $locDialog; var locations = []; $(function() { // Save the selected Name selected = $("#selected option:selected").val(); // Setup Dialog for Locations $locDialog = $('#location-dialog').dialog({ autoOpen: false }); // If user changes the selected // 1. Prompt for confirmation // 2. If users confirms, clear data $('#selected').change(function() { if (locations) { var confirmed = confirm("Oh Rly?"); if (confirmed) { // Clear data var locations; } } }); // When user clicks "Location" Button.. $('.loc-select button').click(function() { if (!locations) { $.getJSON("/Controller/JSONAction", { selectedId: selected, pageNum: 1, pageSize: 100 }, function(data) { locations = data; $.each(locations, function(index, loc) { var $tr = $('<tr/>') .append($('<td/>') .append('<input type="checkbox" name="TEST-'+index+'" value="'+loc.Id+'"/>')) .append('<td>' + loc.Name + '</td>'); $("#location-dialog table tbody").append($tr); }); }); } $locDialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); }); Here's the thing, Inside the .click(...) callback, I can see locations is []. Now, when I am in the .change(...) callback, I see locations is undefined. Any help/insight, as always, is appreciated!

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  • Should I thread this?

    - by Psytronic
    I've got a "Loading Progress" WPF form which I instantiate when I start loading some results into my Main Window, and every time a result is loaded I want the progress bar to fill up by x amount (Based on the amount of results I'm loading). However what happens is that the Progress bar in the window stays blank the entire time, until the results have finished loading, then it will just display the full progress bar. Does this need threading to work properly? Or is it just to do with the way I'm trying to get it to work? //code snippet LoadingProgress lp = new LoadingProgress(feedCount); lp.Show(); foreach (FeedConfigGroup feed in _Feeds) { feed.insertFeeds(lp); } //part of insertFeeds(LoadingProgress lbBox) foreach (Feeds fd in _FeedSource) { lpBox.setText(fd.getName); XmlDocument feedResults = new XmlDocument(); feedResults.PreserveWhitespace = false; try { feedResults.Load(wc.OpenRead(fd.getURL)); } catch (WebException) { lpBox.addError(fd.getName); } foreach (XmlNode item in feedResults.SelectNodes("/rss/channel/item")) { //code for processing the nodes... } lpBox.progressIncrease(); } If more code is needed let me know.

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  • How to catch an expected (and intended) 302 Ajax response?

    - by Anthony
    So, if you look back at my previous question about Exchange Autodiscover, you'll see that the easiet way to get the autodiscover URL is to send a non-secure, non-authenticated GET request to the server, ala: http://autodiscover.exchangeserver.org/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml The server will respond with a 302 redirect with the correct url in the Location header. I'm trying out something really simple at first with a Chrome extension, where I have: if (req.readyState==4 && req.status==302) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } With another ajax call set up with the full XML Post and the user credentials, But instead Chrome hangs at this point, and a look at the developer panel shows that it is not returning back the response but instead is acting like no response was given, meanwhile showing a Uncaught Error: NETWORK_ERR: XMLHttpRequest Exception 101 in the error log. The way I see it, refering to the exact response status is about the same as "catching" it, but I'm not sure if the problem is with Chrome/WebKit or if this is how XHR requests always handle redirects. I'm not sure how to catch this so that I can get still get the headers from the response. Or would it be possible to set up a secondary XHR such that when it gets the 302, it sends a totally different request? Quick Update I just changed it so that it doesn't check the response code: if (req.readyState==4) { return req.getResponseHeader("Location"); } and instead when I alert out the value it's null. and there is still the same error and no response in the dev console. SO it seems like it either doesn't track 302 responses as responses, or something happens after that wipes that response out?

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  • Strange issue with fixed form border styles in Vista

    - by Nazgulled
    My previous post about this issue didn't got too many answers and it was kinda specific and hard to understand. I think I've managed to understand the problem better and I now believe it to be a Vista issue... The problem lies on all types of fixed border styles like FixedDialog, Fixed3D, FixedSingle and FixedToolWindow. It does not happen on the sizable ones. This problem, like I said, it also happens only on Vista. Let's say you have a form with any of the fixed border styles and set the starting location to 0,0. What you want here is for the form to be snapped to the top left corner of the screen. This works just fine if the form border style is one of the sizable options, if it's fixed, well, the form will be a little bit outside of the screen working area both to the left and top. What's more strange about this is that the form location does not change, it sill is 0,0, but a few pixels of the form are still drawn outside of the working screen area. I tested this on XP and it didn't happen, the problem is Vista specific. On XP, the only difference was the border size that change a bit between any of the styles. But the form was always perfectly snapped to position 0,0. If possible, without finding how many pixels are being drawn outside of the working area and then add that to the form location, is there a possible way to fix or workaround this?

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  • Where does "new" fit in the flex creation cycle?

    - by deux11
    In the following code, the call to myChild.bar() results in an exception because myChild is null. myParent is a valid object. What I don't understand is why myChild has not been created yet. I have read the following document related to object creation sequence, but I am unsure how "new" is related: http://livedocs.adobe.com/flex/3/html/help.html?content=layoutperformance_03.html Any help is appreciated! // Main.mxml <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" creationComplete="created()"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public var myParent:Parent = new Parent(); public function created():void { myParent.foo(); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Application> // Parent.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" xmlns="*"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function foo():void { myChild.bar(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <Child id="myChild"/> </mx:Canvas> // Child.mxml <mx:Canvas xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ public function bar():void { trace("Hello World"); } ]]> </mx:Script> </mx:Canvas>

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  • Where should an application's default folder live?

    - by HotOil
    Hi: I'm creating a little app that configures a connected device and then saves the config information in a file. The filename cannot be chosen by the user, but its location can be chosen. Where is the best place for the app's default save-to folder? I have seen examples out there where it is the "MyDocuments" location (eg Visual Studio does this). I have seen a folder created right at the top of the C:\ drive. I find that to be a little obnoxious, personally. It could be in the Program Files[Manufacturer] or Program Files[Product Name], or wherever the app was installed. I have used this location in the past; I dislike it because Windows Explorer does not allow a user to browse to there very easily ('browsability'). Going with this last notion that 'browsability' is a factor, I suppose MyDocuments is the best choice. Is this the most common, most widely accepted practice? I think historically we have chosen the install folder because that co-locates the data with the device management utilities. But I would really like to get away from that. I don't want the user to have to go pawing through system files to find his/her data, esp if that person is not too Windows-savvy. Also, I am using the .NET WinForms FolderBrowserDialog, and the "Environment.SpecialFolders" enum isn't helpful in setting up the dialog to point into the Program Files folder. Thanks for your input! Suz.

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  • Drupal 6: getting particular fields from Node Reference types...

    - by artmania
    Hi friends, I'm a drupal newbie... <?php print $node->field_date[0]['view']; ?> I can get the custom created CCK fields' value and display in tpl.php files as above... that's fine. my question is how can I get the Node reference fields' in-fields? for example, I have an event content type, and I have defined Node Reference for Location (title, address, img, etc.). When I write the code below, it displays all location content; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['view']; ?> but I need to get only address field from this location content type. sth like below would be great :D but not working; <?php print $node->field_location[0]['field_address']['view']; ?> so how can get that? appreciate helps so much! thanks a lot!

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  • if a JAR is placed on app servers's classpath how do we reference it from JSP

    - by Omnipresent
    On our application we are getting an error saying: PWC6117: File "/struts-tags" not found code in the file thats giving error is: <%@ taglib prefix="s" uri="/struts-tags" %> This file is in struts2-core.jar which is placed on the classpath of the app server (Sun 9.1). The code will work fine and not complain when the jar is actually in WEB-INF/lib of the application, compared to being on classpath of the appserver. But we can not change that. it has to be on appservers classpath. But how should we change our code so that this error goes away? I can create mapping in my web.xml so that tag uri's are change. but what should taglib-location be changed to? so that it references to app servers classpath? <taglib> <taglib-uri>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-uri> <taglib-location>/WEB-INF/struts-tags.tld</taglib-location> </taglib>

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  • Why am I getting an error when return TRUE/FALSE to type Boolean?

    - by phill
    I wrote the following code: import java.lang.*; import DB.*; private Boolean validateInvoice(String i) { int count = 0; try { //check how many rowsets ResultSet c = connection.DBquery("select count(*) from Invce i,cust c where tranid like '"+i+"' and i.key = c.key "); while (c.next()) { System.out.println("rowcount : " + c.getInt(1)); count = c.getInt(1); } if (count > 0 ) { return TRUE; } else { return FALSE; } //end if } catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();return FALSE;} } The errors I'm getting are: i.java:195: cannot find symbol symbol : variable TRUE location: class changei.iTable return TRUE; i.java:197: cannot find symbol symbol : variable TRUE location: class changei.iTable return FALSE; i.java:201:: cannot find symbol symbol : variable FALSE location: class changei.iTable catch(Exception e){e.printStackTrace();return FALSE;} The Connection class comes from the DB package i created. Is the return TRUE/FALSE correct since the function is a Boolean return type?

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  • Google maps KM bounds box reapplying itself on map zoom

    - by creminsn
    I have a map in which I apply a custom overlay using KMbox overlay to signify where I think the users general point of interest lies. What I want is to display this map to the user and allow them to click on the map to give me an exact location match of their POI. This all works fine except for when the user clicks on the map and changes the zoom of the map. Here's my code to add the marker to the map. function addMarker(location) { if(KmOverlay) { KmOverlay.remove(); } if(last_marker) { last_marker.setMap(null); } marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: location, map: map }); // Keep track for future unsetting... last_marker = marker; } And to show the map I have this function. function show_map(lt, ln, zoom, controls, marker) { var ltln = new google.maps.LatLng(lt, ln); var vars = { zoom: zoom, center: ltln, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP, navigationControl: controls, navigationControlOptions: {style: google.maps.NavigationControlStyle.ZOOM_PAN} , mapTypeControl: false, scaleControl: false, scrollwheel: false }; map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), vars); KmOverlay = new KmBox(map, new google.maps.LatLng(lat, lon), KmOpts); var totalBounds = new google.maps.LatLngBounds(); totalBounds.union(KmOverlay.getBounds()); google.maps.event.addListener(map, 'click', function(event) { addMarker(event.latLng); }); } I have a working example at the following link here

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  • how to get the latitude or longitude in HTML 5

    - by steven spielberg
    few month ago i write something to get the latitude or longitude from google API. latter i get the database from drupal for latitude or longitude to most of city in worlds. but the problem is that the same city name can be found two or more times in a area. like Firozabad in India and bangladesh both. Agra in UP and agar in Rajasthan. means the confusion in name by user if they found two city by same name they are confused. i hear that HTML 5 support latitude or longitude of the visiter but i need latitude or longitude where they are born or city they want to use to fill a form. how i can get the latitude or longtiude from API like google and some other. the process is that: user put the location in textbox for getting their latitude or longitude. for right thing i want to show them all location [if same thing found more then one]. they can choose the right location and after click they can get the lati and langitude. how i can do this using any API.

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  • iPhone toolbar shared by multiple views

    - by codemonkey
    Another iPhone noob question. The app I'm building needs to show a shared custom UIToolbar for multiple views (and their subviews) within a UITabBarController framework. The contents of the custom toolbar are the same across all the views. I'd like to be able to design the custom toolbar as a xib and handle UI events from its own controller class (I'm assuming I can subclass UIToolbar to do so?). That way I could define IBOutlet & IBAction items, etc. Then I could associate this custom toolbar with eachs of the UITabBarController views (and their subviews). But I'm having trouble finding out whether that's possible - and if so, how to do it. In particular, I want to be able to push new views onto UINavigationControllers that are each associated with parent UITabBarController tabs. So, to summarize, I want a: custom toolbar shared by multiple views which are managed by multiple navigation controllers and the navigation controllers are associated with different tabs of a parent tab bar controller The tab bar controller itself is launched modally, though I don't believe that's relevant. Anyway, the tab bar controller is working, as are its child navigation controllers. I'm just having a little trouble figuring out how to persist the shared toolbar to the various subviews. I'd settle for a good clean way of implementing programmatically... though I'd prefer the flexibility of keeping the toolbar's visual design in a xib. Anyone have any suggestions?

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