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  • Sending variable data from one of two text boxes to javascript

    - by Enyalius
    Greetings, all! I am fairly new to JS (my background is in C++, enterprise languages like assembly and COBOL, and some light .NET), so I was wondering if I could get some advice regarding how to send variable information from one of two text boxes to some javascript and then have the JS do some basic checks and such. Here's the pseudocode for what I am trying to do: <form = webForm> <p> _____________ textboxPeople| searchIcon //a text box to search an online phonebook at my company. ------------- //It has a little "magnifying glass" icon to search //(onClick), but I would also like them to be able to //search by hitting the "enter" key on their keyboards. </p> <p> _____________ texboxIntranet| searchIcon //Same as above search textbox, but this one is used if ------------- //the user wishes to search my corporate intranet site. </form> So ends the front-facing basic form that I would like to use. Now, onClick or onEnter, I would like the form to pass the contents of the text box used as well as an identifier such as "People" or "Intranet," depending on which box is used, to some basic JS on the back end: begin JavaScript: if(identifier = 'People') fire peopleSearch(); else if(identifier = 'Intranet') fire intranetSearch(); function peopleSearch() { http://phonebook.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will take the person //that the user submitted in the form and //place it at the end of a URL, after which //it will open said complete URL in the //same window. } function intranetSearch() { http://intranet.corporate.com/query=submittedValue //This will function in the //same way as the people search function. } end JavaScript Any thoughts/suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thank you all in advance!

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  • Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

    - by misaxi
    Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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  • NHibernate not dropping foreign key constraints.

    - by Kendrick
    I'm new to NHibernate, so this is probably my mistake, but when I use: schema.Create(true, true); I get: SchemaExport [(null)]- There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: There is already an object named 'XXX' in the database. I grabbed the SQL code nHibernate was using, ran it directly from MSSMS, and recieved similar errors. Looking into it, the generated code is not properly dropping the foreign key constraints. The drop looks like this: if exists (select 1 from sysobjects where id = OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]') AND parent_obj = OBJECT_ID('YYY')) alter table dbo.YYY drop constraint FK22212EAFBFE4C58 Doing a "select OBJECT_ID(N'dbo[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')" I get null. If I take out the "dbo" (i.e. "select OBJECT_ID(N'[FK22212EAFBFE4C58]')") then the ID is returned. So, my question is, why is nHibernate adding the dbo, and why does that prevent the object from being returned (since the table owning the constraint is dbo.XXX) One of my mapping files: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <hibernate-mapping namespace="CanineApp.Model" assembly="CanineApp.Model" xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2"> <class name="MedicalLog" table="MedicalLog" schema="dbo"> <id name="MedicalLogID" type="Int64"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="InvoiceAmount" type="Decimal" not-null="true" /> ... <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" fetch="join" /> <many-to-one name="TreatmentCategory" class="TreatmentCategory" column="TreatmentCategoryID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> </hibernate-mapping>

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  • How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

    - by tronjohnson
    In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

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  • Plugin-like architecture in .NET

    - by devoured elysium
    I'm trying to implement a plug-in like application. I know there are already several solution out there but this is just going to be proof of the concept, nothing more. The idea would be to make the application main application almost featureless by default and then let the plugins know about each other, having them have implement all the needed features. A couple of issues arise: I want the plugins at runtime to know about each other through my application. That wouldn't mean that at code-time they couldn't reference other plugin's assemblies so they could use its interfaces, only that plugin-feature initialization should be always through my main app. For example: if I have both plugins X and Y loaded and Y wants to use X's features, it should "register" its interest though my application to use its features. I'd have to have a kind of "dictionary" in my application where I store all the loaded plugins. After registering for interest in my application, plugin Y would get a reference to X so it could use it. Is this a good approach? When coding plugin Y that uses X, I'd need to reference X's assembly, so I can program against its interface. That has the issue of versioning. What if I code my plugin Y against an outdated version of plugin X? Should I always use a "central" place where all assemblies are, having there always the up to date versions of the assemblies? Are there by chance any books out there that specifically deal with these kinds of designs for .NET? Thanks

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  • Tools for debugging when debugger can't get you there?

    - by brian1001
    I have a fairly complex (approx 200,000 lines of C++ code) application that has decided to crash, although it crashes a little differently on a couple of different systems. The trick is that it doesn't crash or trap out in debugger. It only crashes when the application .EXE is run independently (either the debug EXE or the release EXE - both behave the same way). When it crashes in the debug EXE, and I get it to start debugging, the call stack is buried down into the windows/MFC part of things, and isn't reflecting any of my code. Perhaps I'm seeing a stack corruption of some sort, but I'm just not sure at the moment. My question is more general - it's about tools and techniques. I'm an old programmer (C and assembly language days), and a relative newcomer (couple/few years) to C++ and Visual Studio (2003 for this projecT). Are there tricks or techniques anyone's had success with in tracking down crashing issues when you cannot make the software crash in a debugger session? Stuff like permission issues, for example? The only thing I've thought of is to start plugging in debug/status messages to a logfile, but that's a long, hard way to go. Been there, done that. Any better suggestions? Am I missing some tools that would help? Is VS 2008 better for this kind of thing? Thanks for any guidance. Some very smart people here (you know who you are!). cheers.

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  • Why is Attributes.IsDefined() missing overloads?

    - by Hans Passant
    Inspired by an SO question. The Attribute class has several overloads for the IsDefined() method. Covered are attributes applied to Assembly, Module, MemberInfo, ParameterInfo. The MemberInfo overload covers PropertyInfo, FieldInfo, EventInfo, MethodInfo, ConstructorInfo. That takes care of most of the AttributeTargets. Except for one biggy: there is no overload for Attribute.IsDefined(Type, Type) so that you could check if an attribute is defined on a class. Or a struct, delegate or enum for that matter. Not that this is a real problem, Type.GetCustomAttributes() can fix that. But all of the BlahInfo types have this too. I wonder at the lack of symmetry. I can't put a finger on why this would be problem for Type. Guessing at an inheritance problem doesn't explain it to me. Having ValueType in the mix might be a lead, still doesn't make sense. I don't buy "they forgot", they never do. Why is this overload missing?

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  • Need help with simple NHibernate mapping...

    - by mplarsen
    Need help with a simple NHibernate relationship... Tables/Classes Request ------- RequestId Title … Keywords ------- RequestID (key) Keyword (key) Request mapping file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" namespace="CR.Model" assembly="CR"> <class name="CR.Model.Request, CR table="[dbo].[Request]" lazy="true"> <id name="Id" column="[RequestID]"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="RequestorID" column="[RequestorID]" /> <property name="RequestorOther" column="[RequestorOther]" /> … Keyword?? </class> </hibernate-mapping> How do I simply map multiple keywords to a request? I don't need another mapping file for the keyword class, do I? It's be great if I could not only get the associated keywords, but add them too...

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  • Execute files included in Resource folder

    - by Sumeet Pujari
    In WPF application where I have included some files in resources, I want to execute them on a button click. How do I specify a path in Process.Start(). private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { Process.Start("test.txt"); } Or is there any other way? private void button1_Click_2(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { string path = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly().Location) + @"\test.txt"; if (File.Exists(path)) { Process.Start(new ProcessStartInfo(path)); } else { MessageBox.Show("No file found"+path); } I added a message box and it showed No files found. :( EDIT: I Tried to check the path after publishing and this what i got. No File Found With a Path - C:\Users\Administrator\AppData\Local\Apps\2.0... test.txt Before I published the Application I got a path which id No File Found at ..project..\bin\Debug\test.txt which is obvious since my Resource file not included there its Under a Resource Folder and not Debug when i add a test file in debug it open without any problem. Can someone Help throwing some light on this case. EDIT: I want to open a file from Resource directory @ C:\Users\Administrator\Documents\Visual Studio 2010\Projects\FastFix\FastFix\Resources Which would be included in my project when i am going to publish it is going to run as a standalone application without installation.

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  • C# Type comparison

    - by Sean.C
    This has me pooped, is there any reason the following: public abstract class aExtension { public abstract bool LoadExtension(Constants c); // method required in inherit public abstract string AppliesToModule // property required in inherit { get; } public abstract string ExtensionName // property required in inherit { get; } public abstract string ExtensionDescription // property required in inherit { get; } } public class UK : aExtension { public override bool LoadExtension(Constants c) { return true; } public override string AppliesToModule { get { return "string"; } } public override string ExtensionName { get { return "string"; } } public override string ExtensionDescription { get { return "string"; } } } would return false for the following expressions: bool a = t.IsAssignableFrom(aExtension)); bool b = t.BaseType.IsAssignableFrom(aExtension)); bool c = typeof(aExtension).IsAssignableFrom(t); bool d = typeof(aExtension).IsAssignableFrom(t.BaseType); bool e = typeof(aExtension).IsSubclassOf(t); bool f = typeof(aExtension).IsSubclassOf(t.BaseType); bool g = t.IsSubclassOf(typeof(aExtension)); bool h = t.BaseType.IsSubclassOf(typeof(LBT.AdMeter.aExtension)); bool i = t.BaseType.Equals(typeof(aExtension)); bool j = typeof(aExtension).Equals(t.BaseType); T is the reflected Type from the calss UK. Stange thing is i do the exact same thing just on an external assembly in the same application and it works as expected...

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  • Does RazorEngine require MVC3 to be installed?

    - by tkha007
    I am working on a web project that uses MVC2. I decided to try out RazorEngine to do some e-mail templating. This appeared to work fine when I was protyping using an MVC2 project so I assumed that RazorEngine will work fine for my e-mail templating solution. What I had forgotten at the time was that I actually had MVC3 installed on my local development machine. After deploying the project on a pre-test server I get the following error in the logs when the application attempts to do anything with RazorEngine: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' or one of its dependencies. The system cannot find the file specified. File name: 'System.Web.Razor, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=31bf3856ad364e35' at RazorEngine.Compilation.DefaultCompilerServiceFactory.CreateCompilerService(Language language) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplateType(String razorTemplate, Type modelType) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.CreateTemplate[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Templating.TemplateService.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at RazorEngine.Razor.Parse[T](String razorTemplate, T model) at System.Dynamic.UpdateDelegates.UpdateAndExecute3[T0,T1,T2,TRet](CallSite site, T0 arg0, T1 arg1, T2 arg2) at Persistence.Utility.RazorEngineHelper.Parse(String templateName, Object model) in The fact that it can't find 'System.Web.Razor' means that this DLL does not exist on the deployed server. The only difference I can think of between the deployment server and my local dev machine is that the deployment server does not have MVC3 installed but I may be mistaken because the deployment server is not something I normally control and as such I don't have a lot of information about it. It is meant to host this particular application so there have been previous deployments of this application to this server. This is the first time I'm making a deployment with RazorEngine as a dependency.

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  • SQL query doesn't get inserted

    - by Deejdd
    I've been trying to get my query to work for some time it runs but doesn't insert anything nor does it return any errors. The database connection is open and is successfuly connection. The Table is called errorlog and holds the following data - id (int autoincremental, Primary key, Unique) - exception (varchar) - time (DateTime) exception = String(error message) time = DateTime.Now Here's the code: public void insertError(string error, DateTime time) { SqlCeParameter[] sqlParams = new SqlCeParameter[] { new SqlCeParameter("@exception", error), new SqlCeParameter("@time", time) }; try { cmd = new SqlCeCommand(); cmd.Connection = connection; cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.CommandText = "INSERT INTO errorlog (exception, time) VALUES(@exception, @time)"; cmd.Parameters.AddRange(sqlParams); cmd.ExecuteNonQuery(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.Message); } } Any help would be appreciated, Thanks in advance. EDIT Removed quotes around @exception Heres the connection: protected DataController() { try { string appPath = System.IO.Path.GetDirectoryName(Assembly.GetAssembly(typeof(DataController)).CodeBase).Replace(@"file:\", "") + @"\"; string strCon = @"Data Source = " + appPath + @"Data\EasyShop.sdf"; connection = new SqlCeConnection(strCon); } catch (Exception e) { } connection.Open(); } Finally the way it gets called: public bool log(string msg, bool timestamp = true) { DataController dc = DataController.Instance(); dc.insertError(msg, DateTime.Today); return true; }

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  • Reading a text file, and performing actions based on strings read

    - by user1691766
    Let me start off by saying that I really am quite new to C. So basically I have a text file (contains around 30 assembly instructions, separated by new lines), and I am successfully reading them into my program. From here I need to perform certain actions based off each instruction. I would assume the best way to do this would be via a switch-case statement. However I am encountering a lot of problems due to me trying to compare strings that are 33 characters long. Can anyone please offer me advice on what I am doing wrong, or offer an alternative? Thanks in advance. Here is what I have so far: char instruction[29][ 33 ]; int i,run; i = 0; run = 1; FILE *instPtr; /* LOADING INSTRUCTIONS FROM FILE INTO "instruction" ARRAY*/ if ( ( instPtr = fopen("MIPSinstructions.txt", "r") ) == NULL ) { printf("File could not be opened\n"); } // end if else { fscanf( instPtr, "%s", instruction[0]); printf("%s\n", instruction[0]); while (!feof( instPtr ) ){ i++; fscanf( instPtr, "%s", instruction[i]); printf("%s\n", instruction[i]); } fclose( instPtr ); i = 0; // Reset the counter } //end else return 0; }

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  • Android - How do I load a contact Photo?

    - by PaulH
    I'm having trouble loading a photo for a contact in Android. I've googled for an answer, but so far have come up empty. Does anyone have an example of querying for a Contact, then loading the Photo? So, given a contactUri which comes from an Activity result called using startActivityForResult(new Intent(Intent.ACTION_PICK,ContactsContract.CommonDataKinds.Phone.CONTENT_URI),PICK_CONTACT_REQUEST) is: content://com.android.contacts/data/1557 The loadContact(..) works fine. However when I call the getPhoto(...) method, I get a null value for the photo InputStream. It is also confusing because the URI values are different. The contactPhotoUri evaluates to: content://com.android.contacts/contacts/1557 See the comments inline in the code below. class ContactAccessor { /** * Retrieves the contact information. */ public ContactInfo loadContact(ContentResolver contentResolver, Uri contactUri) { //contactUri --> content://com.android.contacts/data/1557 ContactInfo contactInfo = new ContactInfo(); // Load the display name for the specified person Cursor cursor = contentResolver.query(contactUri, new String[]{Contacts._ID, Contacts.DISPLAY_NAME, Phone.NUMBER, Contacts.PHOTO_ID}, null, null, null); try { if (cursor.moveToFirst()) { contactInfo.setId(cursor.getLong(0)); contactInfo.setDisplayName(cursor.getString(1)); contactInfo.setPhoneNumber(cursor.getString(2)); } } finally { cursor.close(); } return contactInfo; // <-- returns info for contact } public Bitmap getPhoto(ContentResolver contentResolver, Long contactId) { Uri contactPhotoUri = ContentUris.withAppendedId(Contacts.CONTENT_URI, contactId); // contactPhotoUri --> content://com.android.contacts/contacts/1557 InputStream photoDataStream = Contacts.openContactPhotoInputStream(contentResolver,contactPhotoUri); // <-- always null Bitmap photo = BitmapFactory.decodeStream(photoDataStream); return photo; } public class ContactInfo { private long id; private String displayName; private String phoneNumber; private Uri photoUri; public void setDisplayName(String displayName) { this.displayName = displayName; } public String getDisplayName() { return displayName; } public void setPhoneNumber(String phoneNumber) { this.phoneNumber = phoneNumber; } public String getPhoneNumber() { return phoneNumber; } public Uri getPhotoUri() { return this.photoUri; } public void setPhotoUri(Uri photoUri) { this.photoUri = photoUri; } public long getId() { return this.id; } public void setId(long id) { this.id = id; } } } Clearly, I'm doing something wrong here, but I can't seem to figure out what the problem is. Thanks.

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  • FileUpload and UpdatePanel: ScriptManager.RegisterPostBackControl works the second time.

    - by VansFannel
    Hello. I'm developing an ASP.NET application with C# and Visual Studio 2008 SP1. I'm using WebForms. I have an ASPX page with two UpdatePanels, one on the left that holds a TreeView and other on the right where I load dynamically user controls. One user control, that I used on right panel, has a FileUpload control and a button to save that file on server. The ascx code to save control is: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanelBotons" runat="server" RenderMode="Inline" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Button ID="Save" runat="server" Text="Guardar" onclick="Save_Click" CssClass="button" /> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:PostBackTrigger ControlID="Save" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> I make a full postback to upload the file to the server and save it to database. But I always getting False on FileUpload.HasFile. I problem is the right UpdatePanel. I need it to load dynamically the user controls. This panel has three UpdatePanels to load the three user controls that I use. Maybe I can use an Async File Uploader or delete the right Update Panel and do a full postback to load controls dynamically. Any advice? UPDATE: RegisterPostBackControl works... the second time I click on save button. First time FileUpload.HasFile is FALSE, and second time is TRUE. Second Update On first click I also check ScriptManager.IsInAsyncPostBack and is FALSE. I don't understand ANYTHING!! Why? The code to load user control first time, and on each postback is: DynamicControls.CreateDestination ud = this.LoadControl(ucUrl) as DynamicControls.CreateDestination; if (ud != null) { Button save = ud.FindControl("Save") as Button; if (save != null) ScriptManager1.RegisterPostBackControl(save); PanelDestination.Controls.Add(ud); } Thank you.

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  • getDate with Jquery Datepicker

    - by matt
    i am trying to get date from my implementation of jquery date picker, add it to a string and display the resulting image in my div. Something however is just not working. Can anyone check out the code and have a look at it? The code is supposed to take the date from date picker, combine it in a string which is to have the necessary code to display tag, images are located in /image and in the format aYY-MM-DD.png, new to this date picker and can't quite get it down yet. <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <link type="text/css" href="css/ui-lightness/jquery-ui-1.8.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-ui-1.8.custom.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function(){ // Datepicker $('#datepicker').datepicker({ dateFormat: 'yy-mm-dd', inline: true, minDate: new Date(2010, 1 - 1, 1), maxDate:new Date(2010, 12 - 1, 31), altField: '#datepicker_value', }); //hover states on the static widgets $('#dialog_link, ul#icons li').hover( function() { $(this).addClass('ui-state-hover'); }, function() { $(this).removeClass('ui-state-hover'); } ); }); //var img_date = .datepicker('getDate'); var day1 = $("#datepicker").datepicker('getDate').getDate(); var month1 = $("#datepicker").datepicker('getDate').getMonth() + 1; var year1 = $("#datepicker").datepicker('getDate').getFullYear(); var fullDate = year1 + "-" + month1 + "-" + day1; var str_output = "<h1><center><img src=\"/images/a" + fullDate + ".png\"></center></h1><br/><br>"; page_output.innerHTML = str_output; // writing the results to the div element (page_out) </script> </head> <body style="background-color:#000;color:#fff;margin: auto auto;"> <!-- Datepicker --> <div id="datepicker"></div> <!-- Highlight / Error --> <p>Date Value: <input type="text" id="datepicker_value" /></p> <div id="page_output" style="text-align:center; margin-top:80px; margin-bottom:20px; "></div> </body>

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  • No endpoint mapping found for..., using SpringWS, JaxB Marshaller

    - by Saky
    I get this error: No endpoint mapping found for [SaajSoapMessage {http://mycompany/coolservice/specs}ChangePerson] Following is my ws config file: <bean class="org.springframework.ws.server.endpoint.mapping.PayloadRootAnnotationMethodEndpointMapping"> <description>An endpoint mapping strategy that looks for @Endpoint and @PayloadRoot annotations.</description> </bean> <bean class="org.springframework.ws.server.endpoint.adapter.MarshallingMethodEndpointAdapter"> <description>Enables the MessageDispatchServlet to invoke methods requiring OXM marshalling.</description> <constructor-arg ref="marshaller"/> </bean> <bean id="marshaller" class="org.springframework.oxm.jaxb.Jaxb2Marshaller"> <property name="contextPaths"> <list> <value>org.company.xml.persons</value> <value>org.company.xml.person_allextensions</value> <value>generated</value> </list> </property> </bean> <bean id="persons" class="com.easy95.springws.wsdl.wsdl11.MultiPrefixWSDL11Definition"> <property name="schemaCollection" ref="schemaCollection"/> <property name="portTypeName" value="persons"/> <property name="locationUri" value="/ws/personnelService/"/> <property name="targetNamespace" value="http://mycompany/coolservice/specs/definitions"/> </bean> <bean id="schemaCollection" class="org.springframework.xml.xsd.commons.CommonsXsdSchemaCollection"> <property name="xsds"> <list> <value>/DataContract/Person-AllExtensions.xsd</value> <value>/DataContract/Person.xsd</value> </list> </property> <property name="inline" value="true"/> </bean> I have then the following files: public interface MarshallingPersonService { public final static String NAMESPACE = "http://mycompany/coolservice/specs"; public final static String CHANGE_PERSON = "ChangePerson"; public RespondPersonType changeEquipment(ChangePersonType request); } and @Endpoint public class PersonEndPoint implements MarshallingPersonService { @PayloadRoot(localPart=CHANGE_PERSON, namespace=NAMESPACE) public RespondPersonType changePerson(ChangePersonType request) { System.out.println("Received a request, is request null? " + (request == null ? "yes" : "no")); return null; } } I am pretty much new to WebServices, and not very comfortable with annotations. I am following a tutorial on setting up jaxb marshaller in springws. I would rather use xml mappings than annotations, although for now I am getting the error message.

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  • AbcPDF renders the same page multiple times

    - by Steven
    I need to retrieve several pages and output this in a PDF document. I have the following page structure: Page 1 Sub 1 Sub 2 Sub 3 On page one, I have a link which executes the below code. What it does, is to retrieve child pages (one level) and put them in a page collection. Then I loop trough the page collection and retrieve each sub pages URL. This works. I've tested and seen that it retrieves 3 different URL's. The problem is that my PDF gets three pages of Page 1. It does not render Sub 1 to 3. Why isn't docID = document.AddImageUrl(pageLink) retrieving the pages? Websupergoo refers to a caching problem which may occur. But their solution did not help me. Any good suggestions anyone? protected void linkBtnCreateMultipagePDF_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { string baseURL = Request.Url.ToString(); PageDataCollection pdc = GetChildren(CurrentPageLink); //Create PDF document Doc document = new Doc(); document.Rect.Inset(10, 20); int docID; string pageLink = string.Empty; foreach (PageData pd in pdc) { //This lops goes through the different pages and retrieves that pages URL pageLink = baseURL + pd.LinkURL; document.Page = document.AddPage(); // But for some reason, the same page is added here. docID = document.AddImageUrl(pageLink); //Chain pages together while (true) { if (!document.Chainable(docID)) break; document.Page = document.AddPage(); docID = document.AddImageToChain(docID); } } //Flatten file for (int i = 1; i <= document.PageCount; i++) { document.PageNumber = i; document.Flatten(); } byte[] theData = document.GetData(); Response.Clear(); Response.ContentType = "application/pdf"; Response.AddHeader("content-disposition", "inline; filename=MyPDF.PDF"); Response.AddHeader("content-length", theData.Length.ToString()); Response.BinaryWrite(theData); Response.End(); }

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  • Existing web-site CSS replacement (re-skinning) best-practices without changing the HTML

    - by Enigmativity
    I can see a number of other good answers to questions relating to CSS best-practices on stack overflow: How to Manage CSS Explosion CSS Conventions / Code Layout Models Are there any CSS standards that I should follow while writing my first stylesheet? What is the best method for tidying CSS? Best Practices - CSS Stylesheet Formatting But I think I have a different problem. I'm trying to "re-skin" an existing site that has been nicely built using div's and ul's, etc, and it has a good existing CSS file, but when I start making changes to the CSS I quickly find that I break the layout. My feeling is that it is very hard to get a feel for how all the CSS will work together and indeed what CSS is affecting parent and sibling elements in the HTML. So, my question is "what are the best-practices around re-skinning an existing web-site by replacing the CSS only and not modifying the existing HTML?" I can't change the classes, ids, node hierarchy, etc. An example of the particular site that I am trying to re-skin is http://demo.nopcommerce.com/. The existing CSS can be as complicated/detailed as this extract from the main CSS file: .header-selectors-wrapper { text-align: right; float: right; width: 500px; } .header-currencyselector { float: right; } .header-languageselector { float: left; } .header-taxDisplayTypeSelector { float: right; } .header-links-wrapper { float: right; text-align: right; width: 570px; } .header-links { border: solid 1px #9a9a9a; padding: 5px 5px 5px 5px; margin-bottom: 5px; display: inline-table; } .order-summary-content .cart .cart-item-row td, .wishlist-content .cart .cart-item-row td { border-bottom: 1px solid #c5c5c5; vertical-align: middle; line-height: 30px; } .order-summary-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product, .wishlist-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product { text-align: left; padding: 0px 10px 0px 10px; } .order-summary-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product a, .wishlist-content .cart .cart-item-row td.product a { font-weight: bold; } Any help would be appreciated.

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  • Div positioning problem related to Relative and Absolute positioning

    - by abszero
    Hello everyone. The problem I am running into is related to a footer I have absolutely positioned at the bottom of the page. Everything is fine until the copy on the page begins to extend further down the page which then causes my content wells to extend down, behind, the footer. Is there anyway I can force my content wells to 'push' the footer down the page? Here is the relevant html: <div id="page"> <div id="page_container"> <div id="header"></div> <div id="nav"></div> <div id="main_content"> <div id="left_column"></div> <div id="right_column"></div> </div> </div> </div> <div id="footer"> <div id="footer_container"> </div> </div> And the relevant CSS #page {width:100%;margin:0 0 10px 0; text-align:center;} #page_container {width:743px;height:auto !important;height:100%;margin:0 auto;min-height:100%;text-align:center;overflow:hidden;border:2px solid #000;} #header {width:100%;background:url('../images/header.jpg');height:87px;clear:both; margin-top: -2px;} #nav {width:100%;height:29px;float:left; text-align:left; border-bottom: solid 2px #000; border-top: solid 2px #000;} #main_content {width:100%;float:left; text-align:left; background-color:#fff; border-bottom: solid 2px #000; border-left: solid 2px #000; border-right: solid 2px #000;} #footer {width:100%; position:absolute;margin-top:10px; bottom: 0; background:url('../images/footer_bg.jpg');height:133px;text-align:center;} #footer_container{width:746px;height:133px; text-align:left; display:inline-block;} #left_column {width:230px; float:left; text-align:left; background-color:#fff; margin-top:5px;} #right_column {width:490px; float:right; text-align:left; background-color:#fff;margin-top:5px; padding:10px;} Thanks for any help you might be able to give!

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  • jQuery load Google Visualization API with AJAX

    - by Curro
    Hello. There is an issue that I cannot solve, I've been looking a lot in the internet but found nothing. I have this JavaScript that is used to do an Ajax request by PHP. When the request is done, it calls a function that uses the Google Visualization API to draw an annotatedtimeline to present the data. The script works great without AJAX, if I do everything inline it works great, but when I try to do it with AJAX it doesn't work!!! The error that I get is in the declaration of the "data" DataTable, in the Google Chrome Developer Tools I get a Uncaught TypeError: Cannot read property 'DataTable' of undefined. When the script gets to the error, everything on the page is cleared, it just shows a blank page. So I don't know how to make it work. Please help Thanks in advance $(document).ready(function(){ // Get TIER1Tickets $("#divTendency").addClass("loading"); $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "getTIER1Tickets.php", data: "", success: function(html){ // Succesful, load visualization API and send data google.load('visualization', '1', {'packages': ['annotatedtimeline']}); google.setOnLoadCallback(drawData(html)); } }); }); function drawData(response){ $("#divTendency").removeClass("loading"); // Data comes from PHP like: <CSV ticket count for each day>*<CSV dates for ticket counts>*<total number of days counted> // So it has to be split first by * then by , var dataArray = response.split("*"); var dataTickets = dataArray[0]; var dataDates = dataArray[1]; var dataCount = dataArray[2]; // The comma separation now splits the ticket counts and the dates var dataTicketArray = dataTickets.split(","); var dataDatesArray = dataDates.split(","); // Visualization data var data = new google.visualization.DataTable(); data.addColumn('date', 'Date'); data.addColumn('number', 'Tickets'); data.addRows(dataCount); var dateSplit = new Array(); for(var i = 0 ; i < dataCount ; i++){ // Separating the data because must be entered as "new Date(YYYY,M,D)" dateSplit = dataDatesArray[i].split("-"); data.setValue(i, 0, new Date(dateSplit[2],dateSplit[1],dateSplit[0])); data.setValue(i, 1, parseInt(dataTicketArray[i])); } var annotatedtimeline = new google.visualization.AnnotatedTimeLine(document.getElementById('divTendency')); annotatedtimeline.draw(data, {displayAnnotations: true}); }

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  • When constructing a Bitmap with Bitmap.FromHbitmap(), how soon can the original bitmap handle be del

    - by GBegen
    From the documentation of Image.FromHbitmap() at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/k061we7x%28VS.80%29.aspx : The FromHbitmap method makes a copy of the GDI bitmap; so you can release the incoming GDI bitmap using the GDIDeleteObject method immediately after creating the new Image. This pretty explicitly states that the bitmap handle can be immediately deleted with DeleteObject as soon as the Bitmap instance is created. Looking at the implementation of Image.FromHbitmap() with Reflector, however, shows that it is a pretty thin wrapper around the GDI+ function, GdipCreateBitmapFromHBITMAP(). There is pretty scant documentation on the GDI+ flat functions, but http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms533971%28VS.85%29.aspx says that GdipCreateBitmapFromHBITMAP() corresponds to the Bitmap::Bitmap() constructor that takes an HBITMAP and an HPALETTE as parameters. The documentation for this version of the Bitmap::Bitmap() constructor at http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms536314%28VS.85%29.aspx has this to say: You are responsible for deleting the GDI bitmap and the GDI palette. However, you should not delete the GDI bitmap or the GDI palette until after the GDI+ Bitmap::Bitmap object is deleted or goes out of scope. Do not pass to the GDI+ Bitmap::Bitmap constructor a GDI bitmap or a GDI palette that is currently (or was previously) selected into a device context. Furthermore, one can see the source code for the C++ portion of GDI+ in GdiPlusBitmap.h that the Bitmap::Bitmap() constructor in question is itself a wrapper for the GdipCreateBitmapFromHBITMAP() function from the flat API: inline Bitmap::Bitmap( IN HBITMAP hbm, IN HPALETTE hpal ) { GpBitmap *bitmap = NULL; lastResult = DllExports::GdipCreateBitmapFromHBITMAP(hbm, hpal, &bitmap); SetNativeImage(bitmap); } What I can't easily see is the implementation of GdipCreateBitmapFromHBITMAP() that is the core of this functionality, but the two remarks in the documentation seem to be contradictory. The .Net documentation says I can delete the bitmap handle immediately, and the GDI+ documentation says the bitmap handle must be kept until the wrapping object is deleted, but both are based on the same GDI+ function. Furthermore, the GDI+ documentation warns against using a source HBITMAP that is currently or previously selected into a device context. While I can understand why the bitmap should not be selected into a device context currently, I do not understand why there is a warning against using a bitmap that was previously selected into a device context. That would seem to prevent use of GDI+ bitmaps that had been created in memory using standard GDI. So, in summary: Does the original bitmap handle need to be kept around until the .Net Bitmap object is disposed? Does the GDI+ function, GdipCreateBitmapFromHBITMAP(), make a copy of the source bitmap or merely hold onto the handle to the original? Why should I not use an HBITMAP that was previously selected into a device context?

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  • Google Streetview under V3 Code having hiccups and delays

    - by jeffkee
    http://new.brocksmeaton.com/showlisting.php/196/-7210-Arbutus-Place-Whytecliff-West-Vancouver-west-vancouver-real-estate The really odd thing is I had this working yesterday and today it's not working. I'm using jQuery UI to switch the tabs on the location map/street view module. I've recently upgraded the Google Maps code as well as the Google Streetview code to version 3. So when I open it in Firefox, with Firebug on, as soon as I switch to the Streetview tab, the navigation and zoom in out controls show, but nothing shows.. and then when I try to drag the map around, it does not move around, but instead, causes errors in Firebug: "too much recursion". So it causes the whole browser to become buggy, slows down, and the errors happen, and nothing shows on the streetview pane. Most of the map loading code is located in inline Javascript on the page itself. Some of the code is under showlisting.js <script type="text/javascript" src="/js/showlisting.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> // Call this function when the page has been loaded function loadmap() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(49.374918567425475, -123.28996885871596); var myOptions = { zoom: 14, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById('listingmap'), myOptions); var listingicon = '/images/activehouse.png'; var infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow(); homemarker = new google.maps.Marker({position: latlng, map: map, icon: listingicon}); google.maps.event.addListener(homemarker, 'click', function() { infowindow.setContent('<div style="height:80px; width:250px; color:#333;"><p>7210 Arbutus Place<br />Whytecliff, West Vancouver</div>') infowindow.open(map,homemarker); }); } function loadpano() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(49.374918567425475, -123.28996885871596); $('#listingpanorama').slideDown(500, function() { var panoramaOptions = { addressControl:false, position: latlng, pov: { heading: 34, pitch: 30, zoom: 1 } }; var panorama = new google.maps.StreetViewPanorama(document.getElementById('listingpanorama'), panoramaOptions); }); return false; } </script> My old one under GOogle API Version 2 is here FYI if you want to take a look at it: http://demo.brixwork.com/master/showlisting.php/63/1701-388-Drake-Street-False-Creek-North-Vancouver-

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  • Uploadify Hanging at random on 100%

    - by Matty
    I am using Uploadify (http://www.uploadify.com/) to enable my users to upload images via my web application. The problem I am having is that every now and then (at what appears to be random) when the progress bar reaches 100% it 'hangs' and does nothing. I was wondering if any developers familiar with uploadify may have any idea how to solve this? I am in desperate need of some help. Here is my front-end code: jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("#uploadify").uploadify({ 'uploader' : 'javascripts/uploadify.swf', 'script' : 'upload-file2.php', 'cancelImg' : 'css/images/cancel.png', 'folder' : 'uploads/personal_images/' + profileOwner, 'queueID' : 'fileQueue', 'auto' : true, 'multi' : true, 'fileDesc' : 'Image files', 'fileExt' : '.jpg;.jpeg;.gif;.png', 'sizeLimit' : '2097152', 'onComplete': function(event, queueID, fileObj, response, data) { processPersonalImage(fileObj.name); arrImgNames.push(fileObj.name); showUploadedImages(true); document.getElementById("photos").style.backgroundImage = "url('css/images/minicam.png')"; }, 'onAllComplete' : function() { completionMessage(arrFailedNames); document.getElementById("displayImageButton").style.display = "inline"; document.getElementById("photos").style.backgroundImage = "url('css/images/minicam.png')"; }, 'onCancel' : function() { arrImgNames.push(fileObj.name); arrFailedNames.push(fileObj.name); showUploadedImages(false); }, 'onError' : function() { arrImgNames.push(fileObj.name); arrFailedNames.push(fileObj.name); showUploadedImages(false); } }); }); And server side: if (!empty($_FILES)) { //Get user ID from the file path for use later.. $userID = getIdFromFilePath($_REQUEST['folder'], 3); $row = mysql_fetch_assoc(getRecentAlbum($userID, "photo_album_personal")); $subFolderName = $row['pk']; //Prepare target path / file.. $tempFile = $_FILES['Filedata']['tmp_name']; $targetPath = $_SERVER['DOCUMENT_ROOT'] . $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'.$subFolderName.'/'; $targetFile = str_replace('//','/',$targetPath) . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; //Move uploaded file from temp directory to new folder move_uploaded_file($tempFile,$targetFile); //Now add a record to DB to reflect this personal image.. if(file_exists($targetFile)) { //add photo record to DB $directFilePath = $_REQUEST['folder'] . '/'.$subFolderName.'/' . $_FILES['Filedata']['name']; addPersonalPhotoRecordToDb($directFilePath, $row['pk']); } echo "1"; die(true); } thanks for any help!!

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  • C++ template-function -> passing a template-class as template-argument

    - by SeMa
    Hello, i try to make intensive use of templates to wrap a factory class: The wrapping class (i.e. classA) gets the wrapped class (i.e. classB) via an template-argument to provide 'pluggability'. Additionally i have to provide an inner-class (innerA) that inherits from the wrapped inner-class (innerB). The problem is the following error-message of the g++ "gcc version 4.4.3 (Ubuntu 4.4.3-4ubuntu5)": sebastian@tecuhtli:~/Development/cppExercises/functionTemplate$ g++ -o test test.cpp test.cpp: In static member function ‘static classA<A>::innerA<iB>* classA<A>::createInnerAs(iB&) [with iB = int, A = classB]’: test.cpp:39: instantiated from here test.cpp:32: error: dependent-name ‘classA::innerA<>’ is parsed as a non-type, but instantiation yields a type test.cpp:32: note: say ‘typename classA::innerA<>’ if a type is meant As you can see in the definition of method createInnerBs, i intend to pass a non-type argument. So the use of typename is wrong! The code of test.cpp is below: class classB{ public: template < class iB> class innerB{ iB& ib; innerB(iB& b) :ib(b){} }; template<template <class> class classShell, class iB> static classShell<iB>* createInnerBs(iB& b){ // this function creates instances of innerB and its subclasses, // because B holds a certain allocator return new classShell<iB>(b); } }; template<class A> class classA{ // intention of this class is meant to be a pluggable interface // using templates for compile-time checking public: template <class iB> class innerA: A::template innerB<iB>{ innerA(iB& b) :A::template innerB<iB>(b){} }; template<class iB> static inline innerA<iB>* createInnerAs(iB& b){ return A::createInnerBs<classA<A>::template innerA<> >(b); // line 32: error occurs here } }; typedef classA<classB> usable; int main (int argc, char* argv[]){ int a = 5; usable::innerA<int>* myVar = usable::createInnerAs(a); return 0; } Please help me, i have been faced to this problem for several days. Is it just impossible, what i'm trying to do? Or did i forgot something? Thanks, Sebastian

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