Search Results

Search found 15081 results on 604 pages for 'passing by reference'.

Page 196/604 | < Previous Page | 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203  | Next Page >

  • ADODB.Connection undefined

    - by Wes Groleau
    Reference http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1690622/excel-vba-to-sql-server-without-ssis After I got the above working, I copied all the global variables/constants from the routine, which included Const CS As String = "Driver={SQL Server};" _ & "Server=**;" _ & "Database=**;" _ & "UID=**;" _ & "PWD=**" Dim DB_Conn As ADODB.Connection Dim Command As ADODB.Command Dim DB_Status As Stringinto a similar module in another spreadsheet. I also copied Sub Connect_To_Lockbox() If DB_Status < "Open" Then Set DB_Conn = New Connection DB_Conn.ConnectionString = CS DB_Conn.Open ' problem! DB_Status = "Open" End If End SubI added the same reference (ADO 2.8) The first spreadsheet still works; the seccond at DB_Conn.Open pops up "Run-time error '-214767259 (80004005)': [Microsoft][ODBC Driver Manager] Data source name not found and no default driver specified" Removing the references on both, saving files, re-opening, re-adding the references doesn't help. The one still works and the other gets the error. ?!?

    Read the article

  • Delete ONE SPECIFIC table of a database - leave the rest intact

    - by Jayomat
    Hi, I have a database where I store two different kinds of data. One table is for favorite routes, the other stores the retrieved routes from a server. I can retrieve the routes etc just fine. But after retrieving the first Route, pressing back or HOME, and then retrieving another route, the routes table is filled with all the old routes plus the new ones. So my question: how do I delete ONLY the routes table and not the whole database because I don't want to delete the added favorites....?! I found the following function in the android docs: public int delete (String table, String whereClause, String[] whereArgs) and I tried to implement it, but I must pass a SQLiteDataBase as an argument. But how? I implemented: public void deleteTableRoutes(SQLiteDataBase db){ db.delete("routes", null, null); } But I want to call this function from a different class where I have no reference to the database.. so what do I have to pass as an argument? Or how do I get a reference to my database? I build my database upon the code example of the NotePadExample from the dev docs. How to solve this problem? thanks

    Read the article

  • When I include only the jQuery 1.4 Library, I get an exception, why?

    - by codeninja
    I keep getting this error all over the place where I only have jquery 1.3 or 1.4 included. "setting a property that has only a getter" and a long list of warnings in the Firefox Error Console. What's going on? I can't find any information on this issue =/ <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en-US"> <head> <title>Demo</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8"> <link rel="shortcut icon" href="images/favicon.ico"> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/common.css" type="text/css" /> <link rel="stylesheet" href="css/modules.css" type="text/css" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> </head> Just some Warning snippets: Warning: reference to undefined property a[++e] Source File: /js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js Line: 30 Warning: reference to undefined property a[0] Source File: /js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js Line: 30 Warning: function oa does not always return a value Source File: /js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js Line: 18, Column: 165 Source Code: th;n<r;n++){j=d[n];a.currentTarget=j.elem;a.data=j.handleObj.data;a.handleObj=j.handleObj;if(j.handleObj.origHandler.apply(j.elem,e)===false){b=false;break}}return b}}function pa(a,b){return"live."+(a&&a!=="*"?a+".":"")+b.replace(/\./g,"`").replace(/ /g,

    Read the article

  • Events and references pattern

    - by serhio
    In a project I have the following relation between BO and GUI By e.g. G could represent a graphic with time lines, C a TimeLine curve, P - points of that curve and T the time that represents each point. Each GUI object is associated with the BO corresponding object. When T changes GUI P captures the Changed event and changes its location. So, when G should be modified, it modifies internally its objects and as result T changes, P moves and the GuiG visually changes, everything is OK. But there is an inconvenient of this architecture... BO should not be recreated, because this will breack the link between BO and GUIO. In particular, GUI P should always have the same reference of T. If in a business logic I do by e.g. P1.T = new T(this.T + 10) GUI_P1 will not move anymore, because it wait an event from the reference of former P1.T object, that does not belongs to P1 anymore. So the solution was to always modify the existing objects, not to recreate it. But here is an other inconvenient: performance. Say I have a ready newC object that should replace the older one. Instead of doing G1.C = newC I should do foreach T in foreach P in C replace with T from P from newC. Is there an other more optimal way to do it?

    Read the article

  • PHP webservice for c# application

    - by user293995
    Hi, I want to create a php webservice server to be used from a C# application. I want to have a library who autogenerate wsdl file for easy management (That's the reason why I choosed NuSoap). I tried to use nusoap on PHP5. I have some problems with charset and Content-Type. Visual Studio gives this error : The HTML document does not contain Web service discovery information. Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'https://www.xxx.yy'. There is a problem with the XML that was received from the network. See inner exception for more details. The encoding in the declaration 'ISO-8859-1' does not match the encoding of the document 'utf-8'. If the service is defined in the current solution, try building the solution and adding the service reference again. $soap= new soap_server(); $soap-xml_encoding = 'utf-8'; $soap-configureWSDL('Bonjour', 'https://www.xxx.yy'); $soap-wsdl-schemaTargetNamespace = 'http://soapinterop.org/xsd/'; $soap-register('bonjour', array('prenom' = 'xsd:string')); $HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA = file_get_contents("php://input"); $soap-service($HTTP_RAW_POST_DATA); header('Content-Type: application/soap+xml; charset=utf-8'); function bonjour($prenom) { return "Bonjour ".$prenom; } ? Does someone knows how to change that to make it compliant and working ? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Help me with the simplest program for "Trusted" application

    - by idazuwaika
    Hi, I hope anyone from the large community here can help me write the simplest "Trusted" program that I can expand from. I'm using Ubuntu Linux 9.04, with TPM emulator 0.60 from Mario Strasser (http://tpm-emulator.berlios.de/). I have installed the emulator and Trousers, and can successfully run programs from tpm-tools after running tpmd and tcsd daemons. I hope to start developing my application, but I have problems compiling the code below. #include <trousers/tss.h> #include <trousers/trousers.h> #include <stdio.h> TSS_HCONTEXT hContext; int main() { Tspi_Context_Create(&hContext); Tspi_Context_Close(hContext); return 0; } After trying to compile with g++ tpm.cpp -o tpmexe I receive errors undefined reference to 'Tspi_Context_Create' undefined reference to 'Tspi_Context_Close' What do I have to #include to successfully compile this? Is there anything that I miss? I'm familiar with C, but not exactly so with Linux/Unix programming environment. ps: I am a part time student in Master in Information Security programme. My involvement with programming has been largely for academic purposes.

    Read the article

  • Are there pitfalls to using static class/event as an application message bus

    - by Doug Clutter
    I have a static generic class that helps me move events around with very little overhead: public static class MessageBus<T> where T : EventArgs { public static event EventHandler<T> MessageReceived; public static void SendMessage(object sender, T message) { if (MessageReceived != null) MessageReceived(sender, message); } } To create a system-wide message bus, I simply need to define an EventArgs class to pass around any arbitrary bits of information: class MyEventArgs : EventArgs { public string Message { get; set; } } Anywhere I'm interested in this event, I just wire up a handler: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoSomething(); Likewise, triggering the event is just as easy: MessageBus<MyEventArgs>.SendMessage(this, new MyEventArgs() {Message="hi mom"}); Using MessageBus and a custom EventArgs class lets me have an application wide message sink for a specific type of message. This comes in handy when you have several forms that, for example, display customer information and maybe a couple forms that update that information. None of the forms know about each other and none of them need to be wired to a static "super class". I have a couple questions: fxCop complains about using static methods with generics, but this is exactly what I'm after here. I want there to be exactly one MessageBus for each type of message handled. Using a static with a generic saves me from writing all the code that would maintain the list of MessageBus objects. Are the listening objects being kept "alive" via the MessageReceived event? For instance, perhaps I have this code in a Form.Load event: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived += (s,e) => DoReload(); When the Form is Closed, is the Form being retained in memory because MessageReceived has a reference to its DoReload method? Should I be removing the reference when the form closes: MessageBus<CustomerChangedEventArgs>.MessageReceived -= (s,e) => DoReload();

    Read the article

  • Join two tables with same # of row but sorted for NULL

    - by VISQL
    I need to join two tables with the same number of rows. Each table has 1 column. There is NO CONNECTING COLUMN to reference for a join. I need to join them side by side because each table was sorted separately so that numeric values are at the top in descinding order. The Table Earners has income values from say 200K down to 0. I cannot just select using 2 cases, because then I will have my first row with Incomes above 100K, but the first 20 or so entries in the second row are NULL. I want the second row to also be sorted descending. I looked up using ORDER BY within CASE but there is no such thing. I have tried to read about row_number() but none of the examples seem to match or make sense. drop table #20plus select case when Income >= 20000 AND Income < 100000 then Income end as 'mula' into #20plus from Earners order by mula desc drop table #100plus select case when Income >= 100000 then Income end as 'dinero' into #100plus from Earners order by dinero desc Select A.dinero, B.mula FROM #100plus as A JOIN #20plus as B ON A.????? = B.????? Since both A and B are sorted descending, moving all NULL to the bottom, what can I reference to join the two tables? Previous output using one SELECT statement with 2 CASE statements dinero mula 2.12688e+007 NULL 1.80031e+007 NULL 1.92415e+006 NULL … … NULL 93530.7 NULL 91000 NULL 84500 Desired output using one SELECT statement after creating two temp TABLES dinero mula 2.12688e+007 93530.7 1.80031e+007 91000 1.92415e+006 84500 … 82500 NULL 82000 NULL … NULL NULL This is Microsoft SQL Server 2008. I'm super new to this, so please give an answer as clear and simplified as possible. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Hiding/blocking tabs using windows forms in c#

    - by Audel
    The thing is that i have a 'log in window' and a 'mainwindow' that is called after pressing the log in button or the "VISITANT" button If pressing the log in button, the whole system will come out, and if i press the VISITANT button, one tab should disappear or be blocked or something. private void visitant(object sender, EventArgs e) { mainwindow menu = new mainwindow(); menu.Show(); //mainwindow.tabPage1.Enabled = false; //attempt1 //mainwindow.tabPage1.Visible = false; //attempt1 //System.Windows.Forms.tabPage1.Enabled = false;//attempt2 //System.Windows.Forms.tabPage1.Visible = false;//attempt2 this.Hide(); } the errors i get for using the attempt1 are Error 1 'System.mainwindow.tabPage1' is inaccessible due to its protection level' Error 2 An object reference is required for the non-static field, method, or property 'System.mainwindow.tabPage1' and the one i get for using the attempt2 is Error 1 The type or namespace name 'tabPage1' does not exist in the namespace 'System.Windows.Forms' (are you missing an assembly reference?) as you probably have guessed "tabPage1" is the tab i need to hide when pressing the visitant button. I can't think of any more details, I will be around to provide any extra information Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • C# - Referencing a type in a dynamically generated assembly

    - by Ashley
    I'm trying to figure out if it's possible when you are dynamically generating assemblies, to reference a type in a previously dynamically generated assembly. For example: using System; using System.CodeDom.Compiler; using System.Reflection; using Microsoft.CSharp; CodeDomProvider provider = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); parameters.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results = provider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, @" namespace Dynamic { public class A { } } "); Assembly assem = results.CompiledAssembly; CodeDomProvider provider2 = new CSharpCodeProvider(); CompilerParameters parameters2 = new CompilerParameters(); parameters2.ReferencedAssemblies.Add(assem.FullName); parameters2.GenerateInMemory = true; CompilerResults results2 = provider2.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, @" namespace Dynamic { public class B : A { } } "); if (results2.Errors.HasErrors) { foreach (CompilerError error in results2.Errors) { Console.WriteLine(error.ErrorText); } } else { Assembly assem2 = results2.CompiledAssembly; } This code prints the following on the console: The type or namespace name 'A' could not be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) I've tried it lots of different ways, but nothing seems to be working. Am I missing something? Is this even possible?

    Read the article

  • Access Flash Symbol Via Code from an .as Class

    - by David
    Hi, I've got a movie clip symbol in my .fla file that I need to reference in an .as file which is in a subfolder in the project. I select the symbol in the library and edit its properties. Its name is bubble; I Export for ActionScript and Export in frame 1. I give it a class name of Bubble. Now I need to go to my .as class, called SomeClass.as There, I need to reference the symbol, because I want to move it from within related code in that .as file. But if I try bubble.x I get an error. If I try var myBubble:Bubble = new Bubble(); I get 'Access of undefined property myBubble'. I was told that I might try 'importing the document class' but how do you import a class which is in the root directory of your app from within a class that's in a subfolder? (Don't know if this would provide the solution anyway)... Tanks.

    Read the article

  • Test Driven Development with C++: How to test a class which depends on other classes?

    - by Nikhil
    Suppose I have a class A which depends on 3 other classes X, Y and Z, either A uses these through a reference or a pointer or say A is templated to be instantiated with X, Y and Z doesn't matter, the key is that in order to test A, I need to have X, Y and Z. So I need to have fakes for A, B and C. Suppose I write them. Now, how do I swap real and fake objects easily? I can see that this works very easily in the case of templates. In order to make it work when A depends on X, Y and Z through a reference or a pointer, I would need to have a base class say X_Interface from which I can inherit X_Real and X_Fake. So basically, I would end up in having 3 times the number of classes for every class that would need to have a fake. I am most likely missing something. There has to be a simpler way to do this. Having a base class X_Interface is also quite expensive as I will be using more space and making virtual calls. I guess I could use CRTP as I know whether its a X_Real or X_Fake at compile time but still there must be a better way.

    Read the article

  • PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer vs Filters -- Spring Beans

    - by John
    Hi there. I've got a question regarding the difference between PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer (org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer) and normal filters defined in my pom.xml. I've been looking at examples, and it seems that even though filters are defined and marked to be active by default in the pom.xml they still make use of PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer in Spring's applicationContext.xml. This means that the pom.xml has a reference to a filter-LOCAL.properties while applicationContext.xml has a reference to application.properties and they both contain the same settings. Why is that? Is that how it is supposed to be done? I'm able to run the goal mvn jetty:run without the application.properties present, but if I add settings to the application.properties that differ from the filter-LOCAL.properties they don't seem to override. Here's an example of what I mean: pom.xml <profiles <profile <idLOCAL <activation <activeByDefaulttrue </activation <properties <envLOCAL </properties </profile </profiles applicationContext.xml <bean id="propertyConfigurer" class="org.springframework.beans.factory.config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer" <property name="locations" <list <valueclasspath:application.properties </list </property <property name="ignoreResourceNotFound" value="true"/ </bean <bean id="dataSource" class="org.apache.commons.dbcp.BasicDataSource" destroy-method="close" <property name="driverClassName" value="${jdbc.driver}"/ <property name="url" value="${jdbc.url}"/ <property name="username" value="${jdbc.username}"/ <property name="password" value="${jdbc.password}"/ </bean an example of the content of application.properties and filters-LOCAL.properties jdbc.driver=org.postgresql.Driver jdbc.url=jdbc:postgresql://localhost/shoutbox_dev jdbc.username=tester jdbc.password=tester Can I remove the propertyConfigurer from the applicationContext, create a PROD filter and disregard the application.properties file, or will that give me issues when deploying to the production server?

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio Unit Test failure to start

    - by swmi
    Hi, I am having an issue when starting the tests under debug mode in Visual Studio 2008 Team Test where it gives the following error: "Failed to queue test run '{user@machinename}': Object reference not set to an instance of an object." I googled for the error but no joy. Don't even understand what it means as it is too brief. Has anyone come across this? Note that I can run tests fine if I am not debugging and I get the same error irrespective of the test I run. Thank you, Swati ETA: Being new to Visual Studio Team Test, I didn't know there was a better exception log then what I was seeing. Anyhow, here it is: <Exception> System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. ShowToolWindow [T](T&amp; toolWindow, String errorMessage, Boolean show) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.QualityToolsPackage. OpenTestResultsToolWindow() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestCaseManagement.SolutionIntegrationManager. DebugTarget(DebugInfo debugInfo, Boolean prepareEnvironment) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DebugProcessLauncher.Launch( String exeFileName, String args, String workingDir, EventHandler processExitedHandler, Process&amp; process) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.StartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.RestartProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy.PrepareProcess( TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.LocalControllerProxy. InitializeController(TestRun run) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker( Object state) </Exception>

    Read the article

  • How can i get HWND of external application's listview? In Windows Api using c++

    - by Marko29
    So i am trying to make app to get content of my explorer listviews and get item text etc.. from it but here are the problems... If i inspect windows explorer folder(using spy++) with listview, just for testing purposes i will use random folder. It shows me that caption of the window is "FolderView" with class "SysListView32" and the top level window where this listview is nested is called "reference", this is also the title of windows explorer folder where all the files are. So what i do is.. HWND hWndLV = FindWindow(NULL, TEXT("reference")); // first i get hwnd of the main window, this is where listview window is also nested according to spy++, thats why i do this first. HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,NULL,TEXT("FolderView")); // trying to get hwnd of the listview here but it fails, same happens if i also put the class name along as HWND child = FindWindowEx(hWndLV, NULL,TEXT("SysListView32"),TEXT("FolderView")); I am using bool test = IsWindow(child); to test for fail, also VS debugger shows 0x0000000000 each time so i am sure i am reading results well. So i am stuck on this probably simple thing for most of people:( p.s. i am on vista64(if that matters anyhow) edit: It appears that this function works only if i search the first nested level of a parent window i am searching. So i assume what i need is a way to get handle with some sort of deep nested level search. I also tried to go step by step by defining hwnd of every parent then i use findwindowex on it but oh boy then i get to the point where there are 5 nested windows all with the same name and only one of them contains my listview, so nice uh?

    Read the article

  • What is the Proper approach for Constructing a PhysicalAddress object from Byte Array

    - by Paul Farry
    I'm trying to understand what the correct approach for a constructor that accepts a Byte Array with regard to how it stores it's data (specifically with PhysicalAddress) I have an array of 6 bytes (theAddress) that is constructed once. I have a source array of 18bytes (theAddresses) that is loaded from a TCP Connection. I then copy the 6bytes from theAddress+offset into theAddress and construct the PhysicalAddress from it. Problem is that the PhysicalAddress just stores the Reference to the array that was passed in. Therefore if you subsequently check the addresses they only ever point to the last address that was copied in. When I took a look inside the PhysicalAddress with reflector it's easy to see what's going on. public PhysicalAddress(byte[] address) { this.changed = true; this.address = address; } Now I know this can be solved by creating theAddress array on each pass, but I wanted to find out what really is the best practice for this. Should the constructor of an object that accepts a byte array create it's own private Variable for holding the data and copy it from the original Should it just hold the reference to what was passed in. Should I just created theAddress on each pass in the loop

    Read the article

  • relative url in wcf service binding

    - by Jeremy
    I have a silverlight control which has a reference to a silverlight enabled wcf service. When I add a reference to the service in my silverlight control, it adds the following to my clientconfig file: <configuration> <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <basicHttpBinding> <binding name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </basicHttpBinding> </bindings> <client> <endpoint address="http://localhost:3097/MyApp/DataAccess.svc" binding="basicHttpBinding" bindingConfiguration="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" contract="svcMyService.DataAccess" name="BasicHttpBinding_DataAccess" /> </client> </system.serviceModel> </configuration> How do I specify a relative url in the endpoint address instead of the absolute url? I want it to work no matter where I deploy the web app to without having to edit the clientconfig file, because the silverlight component and the web app will always be deployed together. I thought I'd be able to specify just "DataAccess.svc" but it doesn't seem to like that.

    Read the article

  • What does the windbg command "kd" do?

    - by Oskar
    I ran kd by mistake and got some output that inteerested me, a reference to a line of code in my module that I can't see on the call stack of any thread. The lines weren't the beginnning of the method so I don't think the reference is to a function pointer, but possibly the result of an exception being stored in memory??? Of course, that happens to be what I'm looking for... Update: The stack trace of the exception is: 0:000> kb *** Stack trace for last set context - .thread/.cxr resets it ChildEBP RetAddr Args to Child 0174f168 734ea84f 2cb9e950 00000000 2cb9e950 kernel32!LoadTimeZoneInformation+0x2b 0174f1c4 734ead92 00000022 00000001 000685d0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::ExecuteInitTerm+0x178 0174f1f8 734ea9ee 00000000 0000002f 2dbc2abc msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstanceWithParts+0x1e4 0174f278 7350414e 2cb9e96c 00000000 0174f2f0 msvbvm60! RUN_INSTMGR::CreateObjInstance+0x14d 0174f2e4 734fa071 00000000 2cb9e96c 0174f2fc msvbvm60!RcmConstructObjectInstance+0x75 0174f31c 00976ef1 2cb9e950 00591bc0 0174fddc msvbvm60!__vbaNew+0x21 and into our code (create a new Form derived class) the dds output: 0:000> dds esp-0x40 esp+0x100 0174f05c 00000000 0174f060 00000000 0174f064 00000000 0174f068 00000000 0174f06c 00000000 0174f070 00000000 0174f074 00000000 0174f078 00000000 0174f07c 00000000 0174f080 00000000 0174f084 00000000 0174f088 00000000 0174f08c 00000000 0174f090 00000000 0174f094 00000000 0174f098 00000000 0174f09c 007f4f9b ourDll!formDerivedClass::Form_Initialize+0x10b [C:\Buildbox\formDerivedClass.frm @ 1452] etc which seems to indicate that Initialize is being called even though it isn't on the stack trace of either this exception or any of the threads. As suggested, it might all be a mismatch between pdbs and dlls, but it seems a coincidence that we end up in the right classes and methods

    Read the article

  • Developing Job References

    - by Joe Smith
    How do you develop references for jobs? I have 6 years of programming experience spanning two jobs, but sadly I don't have a lot of people I can draw on as references. It's been several years since I left my last job, which was at a small company, and I've lost touch with the few people I knew there. I now work at another small company. I think I've gone as far as I can in my current position, and would like to look for greener pastures, but I can't exactly use my current boss as a reference, even though I have a very good repore with him. I'm sure he'd make a great reference down the road, but I'm afraid I'd insult him or jeopardize my current job by mentioning that I'm thinking of leaving and would like him to help me. I've applied to some jobs, and I have gotten several replies like, "Oh, you're exactly what we're looking for. Send us a couple references and we'll schedule an interview. Oh, no references? You must be a psychopath, nevermind." I've tried doing some small freelance work on the side, just so I can have a contact who can vouch for my work, but the competition for even small projects is pretty fierce and I can rarely devote adequate time to freelancing while holding a full time job. In addition, I often encounter a Catch-22 where a lot of freelancing jobs also require references. So how do programmers maintain existing references and develop new ones, especially while holding a full time job?

    Read the article

  • Bytecode and Objects

    - by HH
    Hey everyone, I am working on a bytecode instrumentation project. Currently when handling objects, the verifier throws an error most of the time. So I would like to get things clear concerning rules with objects (I read the JVMS but couldn't find the answer I was looking for): I am instrumenting the NEW instruction: original bytecode NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> after instrumentation NEW <MyClass> DUP INVOKESTATIC <Profiler.handleNEW> DUP INVOKESPECIAL <MyClass.<init>> Note that I added a call to Profiler.handleNEW() which takes as argument an object reference (the newly created object). The piece of code above throws a VerificationError. While if I don't add the INVOKESTATIC (leaving only the DUP), it doesn't. So what is the rule that I'm violating? I can duplicate an uninitialized reference but I can't pass it as parameter? I would appreciate any help. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Why do WCF clients depend on the app.config file?

    - by routeNpingme
    Like a lot of things, I'm sure there's a good reason for this, so please help me understand... Why, by default, do WCF services store settings in app.config? This has been so frustrating trying to work with multiple Silverlight class libraries. These class libraries are supposed to be completely independent from each other, and this dependency on the app.config seems to cause the following headaches: Single Responsibility Principle - I should be able to add a reference to a class library and go. If that class library uses a service reference, this idea is shot before I even start coding against it. Muddy Configuration - To get other libraries to work, I have to copy and paste the service configurations into the "main" application configs. If an endpoint changes in any way, I can't just worry about a new version of that class DLL - I have to worry about anything that uses it, too. Complex Alternatives - Programmatically creating the endpoint isn't pretty. Period. There has to be a better way. Why doesn't WCF at least separate the service configurations into a ServiceName.config or something that gets copied to an output directory. What am I missing? How do you deal with this?

    Read the article

  • wpf observableCollection

    - by Asha
    I have an ObservableCollection which is dataContext for my treeview when I try to remove an Item from ObservableCollection I will get an error that Object reference not set to an instance of an object . can you please tell me why this error is happening and what is the solution thanks EDIT 1: The code is something like : class MyClass : INotifyPropertyChanged { //my class code here } public partial class UC_myUserControl : UserControl { private ObservableCollection<MyClass> myCollection = new ObservableCollection<MyClass>(); private void UserControl_Loaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { myCollection.add(new myClass); myTreeView.DataContext = myCollection ; } private void deleteItem() { myCollection.RemoveAt(0); //after removing I get error Which I guess should be something related //to interface update but I don't know how can I solve it } } Exception Detail : System.NullReferenceException was unhandled Message="Object reference not set to an instance of an object." Source="PresentationFramework" EDIT 3: I have a style which is for my treeitem to keep the treeitems expanded <Style TargetType="TreeViewItem"> <Setter Property="IsExpanded" Value="True" /> </Style> and with commenting this part I wont get any error !!! Now I want to change my question to why having this style is causing error ?

    Read the article

  • Entity Framework 4 Self Many-To-Many with Properties

    - by csharpnoob
    UPDATE: Solved by myself. Tricky but works. If you know a better solution, feel free to correct me. DESIGNER: CODE: Product product1 = new Product{key = "Product 1"}; sd.AddToProducts(product1); Product product2 = new Product{key = "Product 2"}; sd.AddToProducts(product2); Product product3 = new Product{key = "Product 3"}; ProductRelated pr = new ProductRelated(); pr.Products.Add(product1); pr.Products.Add(product2); product3.ProductRelateds.Add(pr); sd.AddToProducts(product3); CODE VIEW: foreach(var x in (from b in sd.Products select b)) { %><%=x.key %><br /> <% foreach (var y in x.ProductRelateds) { foreach (var k in y.Products) { %>- <%=k.key%><br /><%} } } OUTPUT Product1 Product2 Product3 - Product2 - Product1 QUESTION: Hi, i want to have a Self Reference for Releated Products on a Product Entity, something like here: http://my.safaribooksonline.com/9781430227038/modeling_a_many-to-many_comma_self-refer But i also want on the Many-To-Many Reference addional Properties like deleted, created etc. I tried to do it by another Entity "Related", but somehow it won't work. Does anyone had this Problem before? Is there any other Example? Thanks

    Read the article

  • How is a referencing environment generally implemented for closures?

    - by Alexandr Kurilin
    Let's say I have a statically/lexically scoped language with deep binding and I create a closure. The closure will consist of the statements I want executed plus the so called referencing environment, or, to quote this post, the collection of variables which can be used. What does this referencing environment actually look like implementation-wise? I was recently reading about ObjectiveC's implementation of blocks, and the author suggests that behind the scenes you get a copy of all of the variables on the stack and also of all the references to heap objects. The explanation claims that you get a "snapshot" of the referencing environment at the point in time of the closure's creation. Is that more or less what happens, or did I misread that? Is anything done to "freeze" a separate copy of the heap objects, or is it safe to assume that if they get modified between closure creation and the closure executing, the closure will no longer be operating on the original version of the object? If indeed there's copying being made, are there memory usage considerations in situations where one might want to create plenty of closures and store them somewhere? I think that misunderstanding of some of these concepts might lead to tricky issues like the ones Eric Lippert mentions in this blog post. It's interesting because you'd think that it wouldn't make sense to keep a reference to a value type that might be gone by the time the closure is called, but I'm guessing that in C# the compiler will figure out that the variable is needed later and put it into the heap instead. It seems that in most memory-managed languages everything is a reference and thus ObjectiveC is a somewhat unique situation with having to deal with copying what's on the stack.

    Read the article

  • Instanced drawing with OpenGL ES 2.0

    - by Mårten Wikström
    In short: Is it possible to use the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in OpenGL ES 2.0? And, if so, how? Some more info: I want to draw multiple instances of an object using glDrawArraysInstanced and gl_InstanceID, and I want my application to run on multiple platforms, including iOS. The specification clearly says that these features require ES 3.0. According to the iOS Device Compatibility Reference ES 3.0 is only available on a few devices (those based on the A7 GPU; so iPhone 5s, but not on iPhone 5 or earlier). So my first assumption was that I needed to avoid using instanced drawing on older iOS devices. However, further down in the compatibility reference document it says that the EXT_draw_instanced extension is supported for all SGX Series 5 processors (that includes iPhone 5 and 4s). This makes me think that I could indeed use instanced drawing on older iOS devices too, by looking up and using the appropriate extension function (EXT or ARB) for glDrawArraysInstanced. I'm currently just running some test code using SDL and GLEW on Windows so I haven't tested anything on iOS yet. However, in my current setup I'm having trouble using the gl_InstanceID built-in variable in a vertex shader. I'm getting the following error message: 'gl_InstanceID' : variable is not available in current GLSL version Enabling the "draw_instanced" extension in GLSL has no effect: #extension GL_ARB_draw_instanced : enable #extension GL_EXT_draw_instanced : enable The error goes away when I specifically declare that I need ES 3.0 (GLSL 300 ES): #version 300 es Although that seem to work fine on my Windows desktop machine in an ES 2.0 context I doubt that this would work on an iPhone 5. So, shall I abandon the idea of being able to use instanced drawing on older iOS devices?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203  | Next Page >