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  • Am I using EJBs properly?

    - by kgrad
    I am using a JEE6 stack including JPA 2.0, JSF 2.0, EJB 3.1 etc. The way my architecture is setup is the following: I have JPA annotated DAOs using hibernate as my JPA provider. I have JSF Managed beans which correspond to my facelet/xhtml pages. I have EJBs that handle all of my database requests. My XHTML pages have JSF EL which make calls to my Managed beans. My managed beans contain references to my DAO entities which are managed by EJBs. For example, I have a user entity which is mapped to a db table. I have a user EJB which handles all CRUD operations that return Users. I have a page that edits a user. The highlevel workflow would be: navigate to user edit page - EL calls a method located in the managed bean that loads a user. The method calls userEJB.loadUser(user) from the EJB to get the user from the database. The user is edited and submit - a function is called in the managed bean which calls a function in the EJB to save the user. etc. I am running into issues accessing my data within my JSF pages using EJBs. I am having a lot of problems with lazy initialization errors, which I believe is due to how I have set things up. For example, I have a Client entity that has a List of users which are lazily loaded. In order to get a client I call a method in my EJB which goes to the database, finds a client and returns it. Later on i wish to access this clients list of users, in order to do so i have to go back to the EJB by calling some sort of method in order to load those users (since they are lazily loaded). This means that I have to create a method such as public List<User> getUserListByClient(Client c) { c = em.merge(c); return c.getUserList(); } The only purpose of this method is to load the users (and I'm not even positive this approach is good or works). If i was doing session management myself, I would like just leave the session open for the entire request and access the property directly, this would be fine as the session would be open anyway, there seems to be this one extra layer of indirection in EJBs which is making things difficult for me. I do like EJBs as I like the fact that they are controlled by the container, pooled, offer transaction management for free etc. However, I get the feeling that I am using them incorrectly, or I have set up my JSF app incorrectly. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated. thanks,

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  • CoffeeScript Class Properties Within Nested Anonymous Functions

    - by Aric
    I'm just taking a look at CoffeeScript for the first time so bare with me if this is a dumb question. I'm familiar with the hidden pattern methodology however I'm still wrapping my head around object prototypes. I'm trying to create a basic class for controlling a section on my site. The problem I'm running into is losing defined class variables within a different scope. For example, the code below works fine and creates the properties within the object perfectly. However when I jump into a jQuery callback I lose all knowledge of the class variables storing some of the jQuery objects for multiple uses. Is there a way to grab them from within the callback function? class Session initBinds: -> @loginForm.bind 'ajax:success', (data, status, xhr) -> console.log("processed") return @loginForm.bind 'ajax:before', (xhr, settings) -> console.log @loader // need access to Session.loader return return init: -> @loginForm = $("form#login-form") @loader = $("img#login-loader") this.initBinds() return

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  • Using the Facebook Graph APIs PHP library

    - by briggins5
    I am using the PHP library for the Graph API (http://github.com/facebook/php-sdk) but am a bit confused about how it is all working (or not). I just want to authenticate the user and get the user ID back. What I really want to know is what to do once the user has logged in to Facebook and returned to my site. There is data called 'session' in the URL. Does this need to be stored in order to continually get the user ID? It is really not apparent, to me, from the samples or (lack of) documentation. Also, would it be easier to just cut out the PHP library altogether and just handle the reponse myself, storing it in a session variable. If i were to do this, what is the best method of getting/extracting the current users ID?

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  • PHP application variable... maybe?

    - by James
    I went to a PHP job interview, I was asked to implement a piece of code to detect visitors are bots to crawl thru the website and steal content. So I implemented a few lines of code to detect if the site is being refreshed/visited too quickly/often by using a session variable to store last visit timestamp. I got told that session varaibles can be manupilated by cookies etc, so I am wondering if there is a application variable that I can use to store the timestamp information against visitor IPs eg $_SERVER[REMOTE_ADDR]? I know that I can write the data to a file but it's not very good for a high traffic website. Regards James

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  • MS SQL 2005/2008: Identify current user

    - by Torben H.
    Hello I have a web application, which is using a MS SQL 2005 database. My problem is, that the application has no rolemanagement. So the application always accesses the database with one default user. But now I have to save and access a value only for the current user. Is there any way to do this? Maybe something like a session on the webserver? The best way would be, if there is any possibility to access the current session id of the webserver from T-SQL. Do anyone understand my problem? :) Torben

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  • SQL Injection with Plain-Vanilla NHibernate

    - by James D
    Hello, Plain-vanilla NHibernate setup, eg, no fluent NHibernate, no HQL, nothing except domain objects and NHibernate mapping files. I load objects via: _lightSabers = session.CreateCriteria(typeof(LightSaber)).List<LightSaber>(); I apply raw user input directly to one property on the "LightSaber" class: myLightSaber.NameTag = "Raw malicious text from user"; I then save the LightSaber: session.SaveOrUpdate(myLightSaber); Everything I've seen says that yes, under this situation you are immune to SQL injection, because of the way NHibernate parameterizes and escapes the queries under the hood. However, I'm also a relative NHibernate beginner so I wanted to double-check. *waves hand* these aren't the droids you're looking for. Thanks!

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  • Result set mapping in Grails / GORM

    - by armandino
    I want to map the result of a native SQL query to a simple bean in grails, similar to what the @SqlResultSetMapping annotation does. For example, given a query select x.foo, y.bar, z.baz from //etc... map the result to class FooBarBaz { String foo String bar String baz } Can anyone provide an example of how to do this in grails? Thanks in advance.

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  • Adding an attachment to a .NET Email

    - by Velika
    How do I attach a file with a very unfriendly name (like a file with a session Id number in it) but have it attached as another name?The file has the session ID in it to avoid clashes name on the web server nut when I attach it to the file, a friendlier name is preferable. Is there a way to attach the file with teh unfriendly name as anotehr name so that when the user gets the email he can tell from the name what the content of the file is? I'd hate to have to create a unique folder just to put a common file name in it for the purpose of simply attaching it to an email. Dim mailMessage As System.Net.Mail.MailMessage = New System.Net.Mail.MailMessage() mailMessage.Attachments.Add("unfriendlyname.txt", ????)

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  • PHP Retrieve Cookie which was not set with setcookie

    - by Martin
    I have the following problem - a third party software is setting a cookie with the login credentials and then forward the user to my app. I now need to retrieve the cookie values: The problem is - I can do this easily in the Frontend/AS3 with var ticket : String = CookieUtil.getCookie( 'ticket' ).toString(); but in PHP, the cookie is not within the $_COOKIES array. The cookie values are: Name: ticket Domain: .www.myserver.com Path : / Send for: encrypted connections only Expires: at end of session The one I see, and set before in PHP is: Name: myCookie Host: www.myserver.com Path : / Send for: any type of connection Expires: at end of session Actually, since host/domain are both the same, it should be visible in the PHP script, since it is running on this domain. Any thoughts? Thankx Martin

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  • How to use browser options in selenium?

    - by Guru1985
    I have a browser which takes certain parameters as options as shown below. testbrowser.exe -id=test -url=http://www.google.com/. Below is my selenium code. selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, "*custom "+testBrowser+" -id=test -url=", "http://www.google.com/"); selenium.start(); selenium.open("http://www.yahoo.com"); When i execute this i am getting the below error. java.lang.RuntimeException: Could not start Selenium session: Failed to start new browser session: Error while launching browser at com.thoughtworks.selenium.DefaultSelenium.start(DefaultSelenium.java:103) I think the problem is with options that my browser requires as the same code works fine with firefox or IE. Please help me in solving this options issue. Thanks in Advance Gururaj R

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  • Spring AOP pointcut that matches annotation on interface

    - by seanizer
    Hello, this is my first post here, so I apologize in advance for any stupidity on my side. I have a service class implemented in Java 6 / Spring 3 that needs an annotation to restrict access by role. I have defined an annotation called RequiredPermission that has as its value attribute one or more values from an enum called OperationType: public @interface RequiredPermission { /** * One or more {@link OperationType}s that map to the permissions required * to execute this method. * * @return */ OperationType[] value();} public enum OperationType { TYPE1, TYPE2; } package com.mycompany.myservice; public interface MyService{ @RequiredPermission(OperationType.TYPE1) void myMethod( MyParameterObject obj ); } package com.mycompany.myserviceimpl; public class MyServiceImpl implements MyService{ public myMethod( MyParameterObject obj ){ // do stuff here } } I also have the following aspect definition: /** * Security advice around methods that are annotated with * {@link RequiredPermission}. * * @param pjp * @param param * @param requiredPermission * @return * @throws Throwable */ @Around(value = "execution(public *" + " com.mycompany.myserviceimpl.*(..))" + " && args(param)" + // parameter object " && @annotation( requiredPermission )" // permission annotation , argNames = "param,requiredPermission") public Object processRequest(final ProceedingJoinPoint pjp, final MyParameterObject param, final RequiredPermission requiredPermission) throws Throwable { if(userService.userHasRoles(param.getUsername(),requiredPermission.values()){ return pjp.proceed(); }else{ throw new SorryButYouAreNotAllowedToDoThatException( param.getUsername(),requiredPermission.value()); } } The parameter object contains a user name and I want to look up the required role for the user before allowing access to the method. When I put the annotation on the method in MyServiceImpl, everything works just fine, the pointcut is matched and the aspect kicks in. However, I believe the annotation is part of the service contract and should be published with the interface in a separate API package. And obviously, I would not like to put the annotation on both service definition and implementation (DRY). I know there are cases in Spring AOP where aspects are triggered by annotations one interface methods (e.g. Transactional). Is there a special syntax here or is it just plain impossible out of the box. PS: I have not posted my spring config, as it seems to be working just fine. And no, those are neither my original class nor method names. Thanks in advance, Sean PPS: Actually, here is the relevant part of my spring config: <aop:aspectj-autoproxy proxy-target-class="false" /> <bean class="com.mycompany.aspect.MyAspect"> <property name="userService" ref="userService" /> </bean>

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  • Using Connection Based State with Apache2

    I am writing an HTTPS based application using Apache2 as the web server, and python as the language (not sure which framework or Apache2 mod yet). After clients (which are not web browsers) first establish an HTTPS connection to the server, they are expected to send an authentication message. If authentication is successful, they are able to send more commands, until the connection is closed (HTTP 1.1 will be used, with a long keep alive time). My question is, is it possible to have state associated with the connection? I don't want the client to have to send cookies or session ids -- the HTTPS application should be able to figure out the session based on the connection that each request belongs to...the question is how?

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  • Problem passing ELMAH log id to Custom Error page in ASP.NET

    - by Ronnie Overby
    I am using ELMAH to log unhandled exceptions in an ASP.NET Webforms application. Logging is working fine. I want to pass the ELMAH error log id to a custom error page that will give the user the ability to email an administrator about the error. I have followed the advice from this answer. Here is my global.asax code: void ErrorLog_Logged(object sender, ErrorLoggedEventArgs args) { Session[StateKeys.ElmahLogId] = args.Entry.Id; // this doesn't work either: // HttpContext.Current.Items[StateKeys.ElmahLogId] = args.Entry.Id; } But, on the Custom error page, the session variable reference and HttpContext.Current.Items are giving me a NullReference exception. How can I pass the ID to my custom error page?

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  • Ending php sessions for debugging purposes

    - by Bill Zimmerman
    Hi, This might be very easy to do, but I haven't been able to figure it out. Basically, I have a loosely couple web-app written in python and php. The python code uses PHP sessions (generated from the PHP app when the user logs in) to check if the user is logged in/has permission to access the given python resource. My question is this: What is the easiest way to force all active sessions to timeout. I would like to do this for debugging purposes, to test out the python code. I tried changing the session.max_lifetime PHP variable, but that still doesn't guarantee that the session has ended and is removed. I tried just deleting the file, but this seems to cause problems (when i refresh the php page, errors show up in my apache logs and it won't reload quickly) Any ideas?

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  • RESTful issue with data access when using HTTP DELETE method ...

    - by Wilhelm Murdoch
    I'm having an issue accessing raw request information from PHP when accessing a script using the HTTP DELETE directive. I'm using a JS front end which is accessing a script using Ajax. This script is actually part of a RESTful API which I am developing. The endpoint in this example is: http://api.site.com/session This endpoint is used to generate an authentication token which can be used for subsequent API requests. Using the GET method on this URL along with a modified version of HTTP Basic Authentication will provide an access token for the client. This token must then be included in all other interactions with the service until it expires. Once a token is generated, it is passed back to the client in a format specified by an 'Accept' header which the client sends the service; in this case 'application/json'. Upon success it responds with an HTTP 200 Ok status code. Upon failure, it throws an exception using the HTTP 401 Authorization Required code. Now, when you want to delete a session, or 'log out', you hit the same URL, but with the HTTP DELETE directive. To verify access to this endpoint, the client must prove they were previously authenticated by providing the token they want to terminate. If they are 'logged in', the token and session are terminated and the service should respond with the HTTP 204 No Content status code, otherwise, they are greeted with the 401 exception again. Now, the problem I'm having is with removing sessions. With the DELETE directive, using Ajax, I can't seem to access any parameters I've set once the request hits the service. In this case, I'm looking for the parameter entitled 'token'. I look at the raw request headers using Firebug and I notice the 'Content-Length' header changes with the size of the token being sent. This is telling me that this data is indeed being sent to the server. The question is, using PHP, how the hell to I access parameter information? It's not a POST or GET request, so I can't access it as you normally would in PHP. The parameters are within the content portion of the request. I've tried looking in $_SERVER, but that shows me limited amount of headers. I tried 'apache_request_headers()', which gives me more detailed information, but still, only for headers. I even tried 'file_get_contents('php://stdin');' and I get nothing. How can I access the content portion of a raw HTTP request? Sorry for the lengthy post, but I figured too much information is better than too little. :)

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  • Eclipse takes ages to display breakpoint when running tomcat

    - by Ryan
    Hi, When tomcat hits a breakpoint in Eclipse, the execution thread stops, but the breakpoint takes absolutely ages to appear in Eclipse. The same is true if I try to inspect a variable; the first time takes about 2 minutes. After that, the debug session is fine. What with that and the CONSTANT need to keep re-publishing to tomcat every time I change something, it's driving me nuts. Does anybody have any ideas why it's so slow? Also, how can I stop tomcat restarting the webapp every time I try to change something during a debug session? I am sure it never used to do that... Eclipse is 3.3.1.1 with J2EE Standard Tools and Web Standard Tools. Tomcat is 5.5 Thanks a lot for any advice! Ryan

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  • problem while rerendering the form in jsf1.1?

    - by Hari
    In my application I have to show a panel on same page after click of a button. For that I am passing my form id on rerender attribute of the button. the funtionalty is working fine but the problem is the whole form get resized and all component come close to each other. the same page i refresh the same page, then it look's fine, or if i redirect the same page again from my bean it stays fine. but i should not follow this appoach.

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  • Dropdown menus not showing when i use my wpf application via Remote connections

    - by Bijoy Das Yesudas
    When i connect to my machine using remote desktop the dropdown menus and comboboxes i used in my wpf application is not showing up. And after closing the session when i comes back to my development machine where actually my application runs there also the same issue happens after the remote desktop session. Tried by changing resolution and all sometimes it works but most of the time result is negative. The only temporary solution i found for this is just rebooting the system which is not applicable. Could anyone please help me to fix this issue. Thanks in advance.

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  • [Rais] OAuth with Digg API

    - by Karl
    I'm attempting to get Rails to play nice with the Digg API's OAuth. I'm using the oauth gem (ruby one, not the rails one). My code looks approximately like this: @consumer = OAuth::Consumer.new(API_KEY, API_SECRET, :scheme => :header, :http_method => :post, :oauth_callback => "http://locahost:3000", :request_token_url => 'http://services.digg.com/1.0/endpoint?method=oauth.getRequestToken', :access_token_url => 'http://services.digg.com/1.0/endpoint?method=oauth.getAccessToken', :authorize_url => 'http://digg.com/oauth/authorize') @request_token = @consumer.get_request_token session[:request_token] = @request_token.token session[:request_token_secret] = @request_token.secret redirect_to @request_token.authorize_url Which is by-the-book in terms of what the gem documentation gave me. However, Digg spits a "400 Bad Request" error back at me when @consumer.get_request_token is called. I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong. Any ideas?

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  • Ruby socket server thread question: how to send to all clients?

    - by Paul
    I'm making a TCP socket server(ruby). A thread is created for each connected client. At some point I try to send data to all connected clients. The thread aborts on exception while trying.(ruby 1.8.7) require 'socket' # I test it home right now server = TCPServer.new('localhost', 12345); while(session = server.accept) #Here is the thread being created Thread.new(session) do |s| while(msg = s.gets) #Here is the part that causes the error Thread.list.each { |aThread| if aThread != Thread.current #So what I want it to do is to echo the message from one client to all others #But for some reason it doesn't, and aborts on the following string aThread.print "#{msg}\0" end } end end Thread.abort_on_exception = true end What am I doing wrong?

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  • How to create Custom action project with WIX 2.0

    - by Venkat
    Hi, I have installed WIX 2.0 (and Votive). I need to create user defined custom actions using the Custom action project. I found the custom action project template in VS2008 when WIX 3.0 is installed. Now, i couldnt find any template in VS2005 with WIX 2.0. Can anyone plz let me know how can i create a custom action project( class with some custom action)..like this [CustomAction] public static ActionResult InstallItem1(Session session) I think Microsoft.WindowsInstaller and Microsoft.Deployment.WindowsInstaller are the references required (not sure) to create such methods but i couldnt find them in my machine.

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  • Flash, parameters, security

    - by Quandary
    Hi, I have a question: In Flash, I have the ability to save certain info onto the server. Now the problem is the user needs to be authenticated as admin in order to do so. I can't use sessions, since if you work longer than 20 minutes in the Flash application, the session is gone. The way I see it, I have 2 possibilities: 1. passing a parameter (bIsAdmin) to Flash from the Website. 2. Launch a http-get request, to get this value (bIsAdmin) from an ashx handler on application startup, when the session has not yet exired. In my opinion, both possibilities are not really secure... So, Which one is safer, 1 or 2? Or does anybody have a better idea ? In my opinion, 1 is safer, because with 2, you can just switch a packet tamperer in between, and bang, you're admin, with permission to save (or overwrite, =delete) anything.

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  • Google bot .net and AspxAutoDetectCookieSupport dilemma

    - by nLL
    Hi, i have a .net mobile web site where i use sesion state and due to nature of mobile networks/phones (not all supports session cookies) i had to use <sessionState cookieless="AutoDetect"/> It works fine but because each new session redirected with "AspxAutoDetectCookieSupport=1" i have a feeling that google won't like this. Here is a small sample from my server logs supportForumReadTopic.aspx id=38 80 - 66.249.71.80 Mozilla/5.0+(compatible;+Googlebot/2.1;++http://www.google.com/bot.html) 302 supportForumReadTopic.aspx id=38&AspxAutoDetectCookieSupport=1 Mozilla/5.0+(compatible;+Googlebot/2.1;++http://www.google.com/bot.html) 200 As you see each new hit from google will get 302 to itself. I have a genericmozilla5.browser file where i define google bot as cookie supporting browser in order to get .net not to use cookieless urls but not sure how this 302 would effect me. Any one had smilar exprience? Any ideas? Suggestions? Thanks

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