Search Results

Search found 5435 results on 218 pages for 'ones and zeroes'.

Page 197/218 | < Previous Page | 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204  | Next Page >

• HTTP request, strange socket behavoir

  - by hoodoos

  I expirience strange behavior when doing HTTP requests through sockets, here the request: POST https://test.com:443/service/XMLSelect HTTP/1.1 Content-Length: 10926 Host: test.com User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 1.0.3705) Authorization: Basic XXX SOAPAction: http://test.com/SubmitXml Later on there goes body of my request with given content length. After that I recive something like: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 Content-Type: text/xml;charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Tue, 30 Mar 2010 06:13:52 GMT So everything seem to be fine here. I read all contents from network stream and successfuly recieve response. But my socket which I'm doing polling on switches it's modes like that: write ( i write headers and request here ) read ( after headers sent i begin to recieve response ) write ( STRANGE BEHAVIOUR HERE. WHY? here i send nothing really ) read ( here it switches to read back again ) last two steps can repeat several times. So I want to ask what leads for socket's mode change? And in this case it's not a big problem, but when I use gzip compression in my request ( no idea how it's related ) and ask server to send gzipped response to me like this: POST https://test.com:443/service/XMLSelect HTTP/1.1 Content-Length: 1076 Accept-Encoding: gzip Content-Encoding: gzip Host: test.com User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; .NET CLR 1.1.4322; .NET CLR 1.0.3705) Authorization: Basic XXX SOAPAction: http://test.com/SubmitXml I recieve response like that: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: Apache-Coyote/1.1 Content-Encoding: gzip Content-Type: text/xml;charset=utf-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Date: Tue, 30 Mar 2010 07:26:33 GMT 2000 ? I recieve a chunk size and GZIP header, it's all okay. And here's what is happening with my poor little socket meanwhile: write ( i write headers and request here ) read ( after headers sent i begin to recieve response ) write ( STRANGE BEHAVIOUR HERE. And it finally sits here forever waiting for me to send something! But if i refer to HTTP I don't have to send anything more! ) What can it be related to? What it wants me to send? Is it remote web server's problem or do I miss something? PS All actual service references and login/passwords replaced with fake ones :)

  Read the article

• Creating an XML sitemap with PHP

  - by iMaster

  I'm trying to create a sitemap that will automatically update. I've done something similiar with my RSS feed, but this sitemap refuses to work. You can view it live at http://designdeluge.com/sitemap.xml I think the main problem is that its not recognizing the PHP code. Here's the full source: <?php header('Content-type: text/xml'); ?> <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" ?> <urlset xmlns="http://www.google.com/schemas/sitemap/0.84" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://www.google.com/schemas/sitemap/0.84 http://www.google.com/schemas/sitemap/0.84/sitemap.xsd"> <url> <loc>http://www.designdeluge.com/</loc> <lastmod>2010-04-29</lastmod> <changefreq>daily</changefreq> <priority>1.00</priority> </url> <url> <loc>http://www.designdeluge.com/archives</loc> <lastmod>2010-04-29</lastmod> <changefreq>daily</changefreq> <priority>0.5</priority> </url> <url> <loc>http://www.designdeluge.com/about.php</loc> <lastmod>2010-04-29</lastmod> <changefreq>daily</changefreq> <priority>0.5</priority> </url> <?php include 'connection.php'; $entries = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM Entries ORDER BY timestamp DESC"); while($row = mysql_fetch_array($entries)) { $title = stripslashes($row['title']); $date = date("Y-m-d", strtotime($row['timestamp'])); ?> <url> <loc>http://www.designdeluge.com/<?php echo $row['title']; ?></loc> <lastmod><?php echo $date; ?></lastmod> <changefreq>none</changefreq> <priority>0.5</priority> </url> <?php } ?> </urlset> The problem is that the dynamic URL's (e.g. the ones pulled from the DB) aren't being generated and the sitemap won't validate. Thanks!

  Read the article

• trouble with utf-8 chars & apache2 rewrite rules

  - by tixrus

  I see the post http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2565864/validating-utf-8-in-htaccess-rewrite-rule and I think that is great, but a more fundamental problem I am having first: I needed to expand to handle utf-8 chars for query string parameters, names of directories, files, and used in displays to users etc. I configured my Apache with DefaultCharset utf-8 and also my php if that matters. My original rewrite rule filtered everything except regular A-Za-z and underscore and hyphen. and it worked. Anything else would give you a 404 (which is what I want!) Now, however it seems that everything matches, including stuff I don't want, however, although it seems to match it doesn't go in the query string unless it is a regular A-Za-z_- character string. I find this confusing, because the rule says put whatever you matched into the query string: Here is the original rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/([A-Za-z_-]+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] and here is the revised rule: RewriteRule ^/puzzle/(\w+)$ /puzzle.php?g=$1 [NC] I made the change because somewhere I read that \w matches ALL the alpha chars where as A-Zetc. only matches the ones without accents and stuff. It doesn't seem to matter which of those rules I use: Here is what happens: In the application I have this: echo $_GET['g']; If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/USA it echoes out "USA" and works fine. If I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/México it echoes nothing for that and warns me that index g is not defined and of course doesn't get resources for Mexico. if I feed it a url like http://mydomain.com/puzzle/fuzzle/buzzle/j.qle it does the same thing. This last case should be a 404! And it does this no matter which of the above rules I use. I configured a rewrite log RewriteLogLevel 5 RewriteLog /opt/local/apache2/logs/puzzles.httpd.rewrite but it is empty. Here is from the regular access log (it gives a status of 200) [26/May/2010:11:21:42 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M%C3%A9xico HTTP/1.1" 200 342 [26/May/2010:11:21:54 -0700] "GET /puzzle/M/l.foo HTTP/1.1" 200 342 What can I do to get these $%#$@(*#@!!! characters but not slash, dot or other non-alpha into my program, and once there, will it decode them correctly??? Would posix char classes work any better? Is there anything else I need to configure?

  Read the article

• J: Self-reference in bubble sort tacit implementation

  - by Yasir Arsanukaev

  Hello people! Since I'm beginner in J I've decided to solve a simple task using this language, in particular implementing the bubblesort algorithm. I know it's not idiomatically to solve such kind of problem in functional languages, because it's naturally solved using array element transposition in imperative languages like C, rather than constructing modified list in declarative languages. However this is the code I've written: (((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # Let's apply it to an array: (((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 The thing that confuses me is $: referring to the statement within the outermost parentheses. Help says that: $: denotes the longest verb that contains it. The other book (~ 300 KiB) says: 3+4 7 5*20 100 Symbols like + and * for plus and times in the above phrases are called verbs and represent functions. You may have more than one verb in a J phrase, in which case it is constructed like a sentence in simple English by reading from left to right, that is 4+6%2 means 4 added to whatever follows, namely 6 divided by 2. Let's rewrite my code snippet omitting outermost ()s: ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) ^: # 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 Reuslts are the same. I couldn't explain myself why this works, why only ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) is treated as the longest verb for $: but not the whole expression ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) ^: # and not just (<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.), because if ((<./@(2&{.)), $:@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#) is a verb, it should also form another verb after conjunction with #, i. e. one might treat the whole sentence (first snippet) as a verb. Probably there's some limit for the verb length limited by one conjunction. Look at the following code (from here): factorial =: (* factorial@<:) ^: (1&<) factorial 4 24 factorial within expression refers to the whole function, i. e. (* factorial@<:) ^: (1&<). Following this example I've used a function name instead of $:: bubblesort =: (((<./@(2&{.)), bubblesort@((>./@(2&{.)),2&}.)) ^: (1<#)) ^: # bubblesort 5 3 8 7 2 2 3 5 7 8 I expected bubblesort to refer to the whole function, but it doesn't seem true for me since the result is correct. Also I'd like to see other implementations if you have ones, even slightly refactored. Thanks.

  Read the article

• How do I avoid the loader lock?

  - by Mark0978

  We have a managed app, that uses an assembly. That assembly uses some unmanaged C++ code. The Managed C++ code is in a dll, that depends on several other dlls. All of those Dlls are loaded by this code. (We load all the dll's that ImageCore.dll depends on first, so we can tell which ones are missing, otherwise it would just show up as ImageCore.dll failed to load, and the log file would give no clues as to why). class Interop { private const int DONT_RESOLVE_DLL_REFERENCES = 1; private static log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger("Imagecore.NET"); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern IntPtr LoadLibraryEx(string fileName, IntPtr dummy, int flags); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern IntPtr FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); static private String[] libs = { "log4cplus.dll", "yaz.dll", "zlib1.dll", "libxml2.dll" }; public static void PreloadAssemblies() { for (int i=0; i < libs.Length; ++i) { String libname = libs[i]; IntPtr hModule = LoadLibraryEx(libname, IntPtr.Zero, DONT_RESOLVE_DLL_REFERENCES); if(hModule == IntPtr.Zero) { log.Error("Unable to pre-load '" + libname + "'"); throw new DllNotFoundException("Unable to pre-load '" + libname + "'"); } else { FreeLibrary(hModule); } } IntPtr h = LoadLibraryEx("ImageCore.dll", IntPtr.Zero, 0); if (h == IntPtr.Zero) { throw new DllNotFoundException("Unable to pre-load ImageCore.dll"); } } } And this code is called by public class ImageDoc : IDisposable { static ImageDoc() { ImageHawk.ImageCore.Utility.Interop.PreloadAssemblies(); } ... } Which is static constructor. As near as I can understand it, as soon as we attempt to use an ImageDoc object, the dll that contains that assembly is loaded and as part of that load, the static constructor is called which in turn causes several other DLLs to be loaded as well. What I'm trying to figure out, is how do we defer loading of those DLLs so that we don't run smack dab into this loader lock that is being kicked out because of the static constructor. I've pieced this much together by looking at: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsto/thread/dd192d7e-ce92-49ce-beef-3816c88e5a86 http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa290048%28VS.71%29.aspx http://forums.devx.com/showthread.php?t=53529 http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/beforefieldinit.html But I just can't seem to find a way to get these external DLLs to load without it happening at the point the class is loading. I think I need to get these LoadLibrary calls out of the static constructor, but don't know how to get them called before they are needed (except for how it is done here). I would prefer to not have to put this kind of knowledge of the dlls into every app that uses this assembly. (And I'm not sure that would even fix the problem.... The strange thing is that the exception only appears to be happening while running within the debugger, not while running outside the debugger.

  Read the article

• CSS: Chrome and Safari seem to 'add' border to width, while IE, Firefox & Opera don't

  - by Michiel

  Hey guys, I'm trying to achieve cross-browser consistency for my website, but I have been trying all day now and its driving me nuts (0.38 am here in Europe now..). It's about this page: http://www[insert-dot-here]geld[insert-dash-here]surfen[insert-dot-here]nl/uitbetalingen.html (please note that I prefer this URL not to be made crawlable for seo-bots) If you view this page in IE, Firefox or Opera, everything is fine, but in Chrome and Safari the tables are a little out of line (as you'll probably clearly notice). What seems to be the problem?; it appears to me that in Chrome and Safari the left and right border (2px) in total are added to the set table width, while in the other browsers the border is considered part of the width. The (most) relevant CSS-lines are the following ones (from the tabel.css-file, also available through the page's source file): table.uitbetaling { margin: 11px 18px 10px 19px; border: 1px solid #8ccaee; width: 498px; padding: 0; } table.uitbetaling img, table.uitbetaling td { margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0; width: 496px; } table.uitbetaling tr { margin: 0; border: 0; padding: 0 1px 0 0; } So basically I have used a table-structure to organize images, like this; (the class of the table is 'uitbetaling') <table> <tr><td><img /></td></tr> <tr><td><img /></td></tr> ... <tr><td><img /></td></tr> </table> If, here, I set the width of 'table.uitbetaling' and 'table.uitbetaling img, table.uitbetaling td' to the same value (e.g. both 496 or 498), the 'problem' in Chrome and Safari is solved, however in Firefox the right side border is than blank. Because the right-side border can't 'fit' in anymore. 'img' and 'td' must be at least 2px more narrow than 'table.uitbetaling' for the right-border be visible in Firefox. Is there any way to solve this? Thanks so much in advance for your insights!!

  Read the article

• Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

  - by Kelly Ellis

  I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

  Read the article

• Render a view as a string

  - by Dan Atkinson

  Hi all! I'm wanting to output two different views (one as a string that will be sent as an email), and the other the page displayed to a user. Is this possible in ASP.NET MVC beta? I've tried multiple examples: RenderPartial to String in ASP.NET MVC Beta If I use this example, I receive the "Cannot redirect after HTTP headers have been sent.". MVC Framework: Capturing the output of a view If I use this, I seem to be unable to do a redirectToAction, as it tries to render a view that may not exist. If I do return the view, it is completely messed up and doesn't look right at all. Does anyone have any ideas/solutions to these issues i have, or have any suggestions for better ones? Many thanks! Below is an example. What I'm trying to do is create the GetViewForEmail method: public ActionResult OrderResult(string ref) { //Get the order Order order = OrderService.GetOrder(ref); //The email helper would do the meat and veg by getting the view as a string //Pass the control name (OrderResultEmail) and the model (order) string emailView = GetViewForEmail("OrderResultEmail", order); //Email the order out EmailHelper(order, emailView); return View("OrderResult", order); } Accepted answer from Tim Scott (changed and formatted a little by me): public virtual string RenderViewToString( ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath, ViewDataDictionary viewData, TempDataDictionary tempData) { Stream filter = null; ViewPage viewPage = new ViewPage(); //Right, create our view viewPage.ViewContext = new ViewContext(controllerContext, new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath), viewData, tempData); //Get the response context, flush it and get the response filter. var response = viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response; response.Flush(); var oldFilter = response.Filter; try { //Put a new filter into the response filter = new MemoryStream(); response.Filter = filter; //Now render the view into the memorystream and flush the response viewPage.ViewContext.View.Render(viewPage.ViewContext, viewPage.ViewContext.HttpContext.Response.Output); response.Flush(); //Now read the rendered view. filter.Position = 0; var reader = new StreamReader(filter, response.ContentEncoding); return reader.ReadToEnd(); } finally { //Clean up. if (filter != null) { filter.Dispose(); } //Now replace the response filter response.Filter = oldFilter; } } Example usage Assuming a call from the controller to get the order confirmation email, passing the Site.Master location. string myString = RenderViewToString(this.ControllerContext, "~/Views/Order/OrderResultEmail.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/Site.Master", this.ViewData, this.TempData);

  Read the article

• Which third party website thumbnailing services do you use?

  - by Ben Delarre

  I've got a requirement for showing thumbnails of arbitrary websites. I need to be able to show small thumbnails (120px by 90px), and larger thumbnails of around 480px wide. I'll need to specify the queue and invalid placeholder images and preferably have a pingback when the queued images are processed so I can respond appropriately. I'd also need a simple API I can use either directly embedded in my HTML, or from a simple web request to queue the images. I've been looking at various services ranging from low-fi services, to large scale ones - here's some examples: www.bitpixels.com Uses Google AppEngine, seems like a prototype or a toy. Free! www.websnapr.com Tried using this, made a free account and requested a thumbnail. Waited a few minutes and refreshed a couple of times, and ended up having the account banned. Free is tricky yes, but if I can't try it out successfully I'm disinclined to pay. www.shrinktheweb.com Free account seems to be very quick. Lots of documentation on the site, and even covers local caching of the images to your own server (documentation mostly in PHP). Quality of thumbnails look good, and there appear to be sufficient options for setting thumbnail placeholder images and parameters for altering how the thumbnailing is done. Also supports large 'screenshots' of URLs - very useful for me. Discovered the PRO pricing is an à la carte menu, allowing me to select just the features I want and keep the monthly cost low. Excellent stuff, have decided to use this service. www.thumbalizr.com Good coverage of thumbnail sizes and control options - even allowing specification for browser width when thumbnailing. No ping-back, but I can live without that. Supports local caching of images with PHP API, would prefer .NET, but can port it if necessary. Looks like a fairly professional service but seems fairly expensive for the number of thumbnails you get to generate. apologies for lack of proper linking - spam protection! I'm not entirely convinced by any of them, and since this will be a long term service I'd like some stability and support. I'm willing to pay for the service, but I'd want something that fulfills most if not all of my requirements for that. I should also mention that we're hosted on Windows under IIS, so local solutions involving Xvfb and the like sadly can't be used for this project. So my question is: what services do you use? How have they panned out, are you happy with them?

  Read the article

• Correlated SQL Join Query from multiple tables

  - by SooDesuNe

  I have two tables like the ones below. I need to find what exchangeRate was in effect at the dateOfPurchase. I've tried some correlated sub queries, but I'm having difficulty getting the correlated record to be used in the sub queries. I expect a solution will need to follow this basic outline: SELECT only the exchangeRates for the applicable countryCode From 1. SELECT the newest exchangeRate less than the dateOfPurchase Fill in the query table with all the fields from 2. and the purchasesTable. My Tables: purchasesTable: > dateOfPurchase | costOfPurchase | countryOfPurchase > 29-March-2010 | 20.00 | EUR > 29-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN > 30-March-2010 | 50.00 | EUR > 30-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN > 30-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN > 31-March-2010 | 100.00 | EUR > 31-March-2010 | 125.00 | EUR > 31-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN > 31-March-2010 | 2400 | JPN costOfPurchase is in whatever the local currency is for a given countryCode exchangeRateTable > effectiveDate | countryCode | exchangeRate > 29-March-2010 | JPN | 90 > 29-March-2010 | EUR | 1.75 > 30-March-2010 | JPN | 92 > 31-March-2010 | JPN | 91 The results of the query that I'm looking for: > dateOfPurchase | costOfPurchase | countryOfPurchase | exchangeRate > 29-March-2010 | 20.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 29-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN | 90 > 30-March-2010 | 50.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 30-March-2010 | 3000 | JPN | 92 > 30-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN | 92 > 31-March-2010 | 100.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 31-March-2010 | 125.00 | EUR | 1.75 > 31-March-2010 | 2000 | JPN | 91 > 31-March-2010 | 2400 | JPN | 91 So for example in the results, the exchange rate, in effect for EUR on 31-March was 1.75. I'm using Access, but a MySQL answer would be fine too. UPDATE: Modification to Allan's answer: SELECT dateOfPurchase, costOfPurchase, countryOfPurchase, exchangeRate FROM purchasesTable p LEFT OUTER JOIN (SELECT e1.exchangeRate, e1.countryCode, e1.effectiveDate, min(e2.effectiveDate) AS enddate FROM exchangeRateTable e1 LEFT OUTER JOIN exchangeRateTable e2 ON e1.effectiveDate < e2.effectiveDate AND e1.countryCode = e2.countryCode GROUP BY e1.exchangeRate, e1.countryCode, e1.effectiveDate) e ON p.dateOfPurchase >= e.effectiveDate AND (p.dateOfPurchase < e.enddate OR e.enddate is null) AND p.countryOfPurchase = e.countryCode I had to make a couple small changes.

  Read the article

• Htaccess rewrite rule .aspx to .php

  - by Markus Ossi

  Background: I have a website that has been built with ASP.NET 2.0 and is on Windows hosting. I now have to rewrite my site in PHP and move it into Linux hosting. I have a lot of incoming links to my site from around the web that point directly into the old .aspx-pages. The site itself is very simple, one dynamic page and five static ones. I saved the static .aspx pages as .php-pages and rewrote the dynamic page in PHP. The dynamic page is called City.aspx and I have written it in PHP and it is now called City.php. On my old Windows hosting, I used ASP.NET's URL mapping for friendly URL. For example, incoming URL request for Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx was mapped into City.aspx?CityID=981. My goal: To redirect all human visitors and search engines looking for the old .aspx pages into the new .php pages. I am thinking that the easiest way to redirect visitors into new pages will be by making a redirect, where all requests for .aspx-files will be redirected into .php filetypes. So, if someone asks for MYSITE/City.aspx?CityID=5, they will be taken into MYSITE/City.php?CityID=5 instead. However, I am having a lot of trouble getting this to work. So far this is what I have found: rewriterule ^([.]+)\.aspx$ http://www.example.com/$1.php [R=301,L] However, I think this can not handle the parameters after the filetype and I am also not quite sure what to put on front. To make things a bit more complicated, at my previous site I used friendly URL's so that I had a huge mapping file with mappings like this: <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ypaja.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=981" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aetsa.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=988" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Ahtari.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=989" /> <add url="~/Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx" mappedUrl="~/City.aspx?CityID=992" /> I tried to make a simple redirect like this: Redirect 301 Laajakaista/Aanekoski.aspx City.php?CityID=992 but was not able to get it to work. I ended up with an internal server error and a 50k .htaccess-file... Any help is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• SQL Server stored procedures - update column based on variable name..?

  - by ClarkeyBoy

  Hi, I have a data driven site with many stored procedures. What I want to eventually be able to do is to say something like: For Each @variable in sproc inputs UPDATE @TableName SET @variable.toString = @variable Next I would like it to be able to accept any number of arguments. It will basically loop through all of the inputs and update the column with the name of the variable with the value of the variable - for example column "Name" would be updated with the value of @Name. I would like to basically have one stored procedure for updating and one for creating. However to do this I will need to be able to convert the actual name of a variable, not the value, to a string. Question 1: Is it possible to do this in T-SQL, and if so how? Question 2: Are there any major drawbacks to using something like this (like performance or CPU usage)? I know if a value is not valid then it will only prevent the update involving that variable and any subsequent ones, but all the data is validated in the vb.net code anyway so will always be valid on submitting to the database, and I will ensure that only variables where the column exists are able to be submitted. Many thanks in advance, Regards, Richard Clarke Edit: I know about using SQL strings and the risk of SQL injection attacks - I studied this a bit in my dissertation a few weeks ago. Basically the website uses an object oriented architecture. There are many classes - for example Product - which have many "Attributes" (I created my own class called Attribute, which has properties such as DataField, Name and Value where DataField is used to get or update data, Name is displayed on the administration frontend when creating or updating a Product and the Value, which may be displayed on the customer frontend, is set by the administrator. DataField is the field I will be using in the "UPDATE Blah SET @Field = @Value". I know this is probably confusing but its really complicated to explain - I have a really good understanding of the entire system in my head but I cant put it into words easily. Basically the structure is set up such that no user will be able to change the value of DataField or Name, but they can change Value. I think if I were to use dynamic parameterised SQL strings there will therefore be no risk of SQL injection attacks. I mean basically loop through all the attributes so that it ends up like: UPDATE Products SET [Name] = '@Name', Description = '@Description', Display = @Display Then loop through all the attributes again and add the parameter values - this will have the same effect as using stored procedures, right?? I dont mind adding to the page load time since this is mainly going to affect the administration frontend, and will marginly affect the customer frontend.

  Read the article

• Animated Ellipse

  - by user287798

  Hi, i need someone to help me. I need a xaml with animated ellipses like the ones shown here:http://www.telerik.com/products/silverlight/chart.aspx They are to act as hotspot indicators on my map. What i have below is a xaml that i was trying to do but the circles don't center and have no fed-in/fade-out effect. May somebody help me please. Thanks Sam 1 <UserControl 2 xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" 3 xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" 4 x:Class="SilverlightApplication3.MainPage" 5 Width="640" Height="480"> 6 7 8 <Canvas> 9 10 <Canvas.Triggers> 11 <EventTrigger RoutedEvent="Canvas.Loaded"> 12 <EventTrigger.Actions> 13 <BeginStoryboard> 14 <Storyboard > 15 <DoubleAnimation RepeatBehavior="Forever" 16 Storyboard.TargetName="Pt1" 17 Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleX" 18 From="1" 19 To="0.3" 20 Duration="0:0:5" /> 21 </Storyboard> 22 </BeginStoryboard> 23 24 <BeginStoryboard> 25 <Storyboard> 26 <DoubleAnimation RepeatBehavior="Forever" 27 Storyboard.TargetName="Pt1" 28 Storyboard.TargetProperty="ScaleY" 29 From="1" 30 To="0.3" 31 Duration="0:0:5" /> 32 </Storyboard> 33 </BeginStoryboard> 34 <!--<BeginStoryboard> 35 <Storyboard > 36 <DoubleAnimation RepeatBehavior="Forever" 37 Storyboard.TargetName="rect_Copy" 38 Storyboard.TargetProperty="Width" 39 From="30" 40 To="100" 41 Duration="0:0:5" /> 42 </Storyboard> 43 </BeginStoryboard> 44 45 <BeginStoryboard> 46 <Storyboard> 47 <DoubleAnimation RepeatBehavior="Forever" 48 Storyboard.TargetName="rect_Copy" 49 Storyboard.TargetProperty="Height" 50 From="30" 51 To="100" 52 Duration="0:0:5" /> 53 </Storyboard> 54 </BeginStoryboard>--> 55 </EventTrigger.Actions> 56 </EventTrigger> 57 </Canvas.Triggers> 58 59 60 <Ellipse x:Name="rect" Stroke="Green" Width="100" Height="100" Canvas.Left="30" 61 Canvas.Top="29"> 62 <Ellipse.RenderTransform> 63 <ScaleTransform x:Name="Pt1" ScaleX="1" ScaleY="1"/> 64 </Ellipse.RenderTransform> 65 66 </Ellipse> 67 <Ellipse x:Name="rect_Copy" 68 Stroke="Green" 69 Width="30" 70 Height="30" 71 Canvas.Left="65" 72 Canvas.Top="64"/> 73 74 </Canvas> 75 </UserControl>

  Read the article

• WPF - Only want one expander open at a time

  - by Portsmouth

  I have a UserControl with a templated grouped listbox with expanders and only want one expander open at any time. I have browsed through the site but haven't found anything except binding the IsExpanded to IsSelected which isn't quite what I want. I am trying to put some code in the Expanded event that would loop through Expanders and close all the ones that aren't the expander passed in the Expanded event. I can't seem to figure out how to get at them. I've tried ListBox.Items.Groups but didn't see how to get at them and tried ListBox.ItemContainerGenerator.ContainerFromItem (or Index) but nothing came back. Thanks <ListBox Name="ListBox"> <ListBox.GroupStyle > <GroupStyle> <GroupStyle.ContainerStyle> <Style TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type GroupItem}"> <Border BorderBrush="CadetBlue" BorderThickness="1"> <Expander BorderThickness="0,0,0,1" Expanded="Expander_Expanded" Focusable="False" IsExpanded="{Binding IsSelected, RelativeSource={RelativeSource FindAncestor, AncestorType= {x:Type ListBoxItem}}}" > <Expander.Header> <Grid> <StackPanel Height="30" Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=Name}" Margin="5,0,0,0" MinWidth="200" Padding="3" VerticalAlignment="Center" /> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text=" Setups: " VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right"/> <TextBlock Foreground="Navy" FontWeight="Bold" Text="{Binding Path=ItemCount}" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Right" /> </StackPanel> </Grid> </Expander.Header> <Expander.Content> <Grid Background="white" > <ItemsPresenter /> </Grid> </Expander.Content> <Expander.Style > <Style TargetType="{x:Type Expander}"> <Style.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="true"> <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> <LinearGradientBrush StartPoint="0,0" EndPoint="0,1"> <GradientStop Color="WhiteSmoke" Offset="0.0" /> <GradientStop Color="Orange" Offset="1.0" /> </LinearGradientBrush> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Trigger> <Trigger Property="IsMouseOver" Value="false" <Setter Property="Background"> <Setter.Value> </code>

  Read the article

• How to use objetcs as modules/functors in Scala?

  - by Jeff

  Hi. I want to use object instances as modules/functors, more or less as shown below: abstract class Lattice[E] extends Set[E] { val minimum: E val maximum: E def meet(x: E, y: E): E def join(x: E, y: E): E def neg(x: E): E } class Calculus[E](val lat: Lattice[E]) { abstract class Expr case class Var(name: String) extends Expr {...} case class Val(value: E) extends Expr {...} case class Neg(e1: Expr) extends Expr {...} case class Cnj(e1: Expr, e2: Expr) extends Expr {...} case class Dsj(e1: Expr, e2: Expr) extends Expr {...} } So that I can create a different calculus instance for each lattice (the operations I will perform need the information of which are the maximum and minimum values of the lattice). I want to be able to mix expressions of the same calculus but not be allowed to mix expressions of different ones. So far, so good. I can create my calculus instances, but problem is that I can not write functions in other classes that manipulate them. For example, I am trying to create a parser to read expressions from a file and return them; I also was trying to write an random expression generator to use in my tests with ScalaCheck. Turns out that every time a function generates an Expr object I can't use it outside the function. Even if I create the Calculus instance and pass it as an argument to the function that will in turn generate the Expr objects, the return of the function is not recognized as being of the same type of the objects created outside the function. Maybe my english is not clear enough, let me try a toy example of what I would like to do (not the real ScalaCheck generator, but close enough). def genRndExpr[E](c: Calculus[E], level: Int): Calculus[E]#Expr = { if (level > MAX_LEVEL) { val select = util.Random.nextInt(2) select match { case 0 => genRndVar(c) case 1 => genRndVal(c) } } else { val select = util.Random.nextInt(3) select match { case 0 => new c.Neg(genRndExpr(c, level+1)) case 1 => new c.Dsj(genRndExpr(c, level+1), genRndExpr(c, level+1)) case 2 => new c.Cnj(genRndExpr(c, level+1), genRndExpr(c, level+1)) } } } Now, if I try to compile the above code I get lots of error: type mismatch; found : plg.mvfml.Calculus[E]#Expr required: c.Expr case 0 = new c.Neg(genRndExpr(c, level+1)) And the same happens if I try to do something like: val boolCalc = new Calculus(Bool) val e1: boolCalc.Expr = genRndExpr(boolCalc) Please note that the generator itself is not of concern, but I will need to do similar things (i.e. create and manipulate calculus instance expressions) a lot on the rest of the system. Am I doing something wrong? Is it possible to do what I want to do? Help on this matter is highly needed and appreciated. Thanks a lot in advance.

  Read the article

• IoC/DI in the face of winforms and other generated code

  - by Kaleb Pederson

  When using dependency injection (DI) and inversion of control (IoC) objects will typically have a constructor that accepts the set of dependencies required for the object to function properly. For example, if I have a form that requires a service to populate a combo box you might see something like this: // my files public interface IDataService { IList<MyData> GetData(); } public interface IComboDataService { IList<MyComboData> GetComboData(); } public partial class PopulatedForm : BaseForm { private IDataService service; public PopulatedForm(IDataService service) { //... InitializeComponent(); } } This works fine at the top level, I just use my IoC container to resolve the dependencies: var form = ioc.Resolve<PopulatedForm>(); But in the face of generated code, this gets harder. In winforms a second file composing the rest of the partial class is generated. This file references other components, such as custom controls, and uses no-args constructors to create such controls: // generated file: PopulatedForm.Designer.cs public partial class PopulatedForm { private void InitializeComponent() { this.customComboBox = new UserCreatedComboBox(); // customComboBox has an IComboDataService dependency } } Since this is generated code, I can't pass in the dependencies and there's no easy way to have my IoC container automatically inject all the dependencies. One solution is to pass in the dependencies of each child component to PopulatedForm even though it may not need them directly, such as with the IComboDataService required by the UserCreatedComboBox. I then have the responsibility to make sure that the dependencies are provided through various properties or setter methods. Then, my PopulatedForm constructor might look as follows: public PopulatedForm(IDataService service, IComboDataService comboDataService) { this.service = service; InitializeComponent(); this.customComboBox.ComboDataService = comboDataService; } Another possible solution is to have the no-args constructor to do the necessary resolution: public class UserCreatedComboBox { private IComboDataService comboDataService; public UserCreatedComboBox() { if (!DesignMode && IoC.Instance != null) { comboDataService = Ioc.Instance.Resolve<IComboDataService>(); } } } Neither solution is particularly good. What patterns and alternatives are available to more capably handle dependency-injection in the face of generated code? I'd love to see both general solutions, such as patterns, and ones specific to C#, Winforms, and Autofac.

  Read the article

• Implement Semi-Round-Robin file which can be expanded and saved on demand

  - by ircmaxell

  Ok, that title is going to be a little bit confusing. Let me try to explain it a little bit better. I am building a logging program. The program will have 3 main states: Write to a round-robin buffer file, keeping only the last 10 minutes of data. Write to a buffer file, ignoring the time (record all data). Rename entire buffer file, and start a new one with the past 10 minutes of data (and change state to 1). Now, the use case is this. I have been experiencing some network bottlenecks from time to time in our network. So I want to build a system to record TCP traffic when it detects the bottleneck (detection via Nagios). However by the time it detects the bottlenecking, most of the useful data has already been transmitted. So, what I'd like is to have a deamon that runs something like dumpcap all the time. In normal mode, it'll only keep the past 10 minutes of data (Since there's no point in keeping a boat load of data if it's not needed). But when Nagios alerts, I will send a signal in the deamon to store everything. Then, when Naigos recovers it will send another signal to stop storing and flush the buffer to a save file. Now, the problem is that I can't see how to cleanly store a rotating 10 minutes of data. I could store a new file every 10 minutes and delete the old ones if in mode 1. But that seems a bit dirty to me (especially when it comes to figuring out when the alert happened in the file). Ideally, the file that was saved should be such that the alert is always at the 10:00 mark in the file. While that is possible with new files every 10 minutes, it seems like a bit dirty to "repair" the files to that point. Any ideas? Should I just do a rotating file system and combine them into 1 at the end (doing quite a bit of post-processing)? Is there a way to implement the semi-round-robin file cleanly so that there is no need for any post-processing? Thanks Oh, and the language doesn't matter as much at this stage (I'm leaning towards Python, but have no objection to any other language. It's less of an issue than the overall design)...

  Read the article

• Java Hardware Acceleration

  - by Freezerburn

  I have been spending some time looking into the hardware acceleration features of Java, and I am still a bit confused as none of the sites that I found online directly and clearly answered some of the questions I have. So here are the questions I have for hardware acceleration in Java: 1) In Eclipse version 3.6.0, with the most recent Java update for Mac OS X (1.6u10 I think), is hardware acceleration enabled by default? I read somewhere that someCanvas.getGraphicsConfiguration().getBufferCapabilities().isPageFlipping() is supposed to give an indication of whether or not hardware acceleration is enabled, and my program reports back true when that is run on my main Canvas instance for drawing to. If my hardware acceleration is not enabled now, or by default, what would I have to do to enable it? 2) I have seen a couple articles here and there about the difference between a BufferedImage and VolatileImage, mainly saying that VolatileImage is the hardware accelerated image and is stored in VRAM for fast copy-from operations. However, I have also found some instances where BufferedImage is said to be hardware accelerated as well. Is BufferedImage hardware accelerated as well in my environment? What would be the advantage of using a VolatileImage if both types are hardware accelerated? My main assumption for the advantage of having a VolatileImage in the case of both having acceleration is that VolatileImage is able to detect when its VRAM has been dumped. But if BufferedImage also support acceleration now, would it not have the same kind of detection built into it as well, just hidden from the user, in case that the memory is dumped? 3) Is there any advantage to using someGraphicsConfiguration.getCompatibleImage/getCompatibleVolatileImage() as opposed to ImageIO.read() In a tutorial I have been reading for some general concepts about setting up the rendering window properly (tutorial) it uses the getCompatibleImage method, which I believe returns a BufferedImage, to get their "hardware accelerated" images for fast drawing, which ties into question 2 about if it is hardware accelerated. 4) This is less hardware acceleration, but it is something I have been curious about: do I need to order which graphics get drawn? I know that when using OpenGL via C/C++ it is best to make sure that the same graphic is drawn in all the locations it needs to be drawn at once to reduce the number of times the current texture needs to be switch. From what I have read, it seems as if Java will take care of this for me and make sure things are drawn in the most optimal fashion, but again, nothing has ever said anything like this clearly. 5) What AWT/Swing classes support hardware acceleration, and which ones should be used? I am currently using a class that extends JFrame to create a window, and adding a Canvas to it from which I create a BufferStrategy. Is this good practice, or is there some other type of way I should be implementing this? Thank you very much for your time, and I hope I provided clear questions and enough information for you to answer my several questions.

  Read the article

• Zend Framework - Ruby on Rails has a screencast showing how to code a blog in 15 minutes. Does ZF ha

  - by Sootah

  Ruby on Rails has a screencast presentation they use to promote their framework that shows how to code a basic weblog system in 15 minutes with RoR. Does the Zend PHP Framework have a similar screencast/presentation/whatever demonstrating something similar? It doesn't have to be a blog specifically, but I would definitely like to find a presentation that shows some rapid application development using ZF. Where I'm coming from: I have been programming on and off for years now. I started out with QBASIC waaaaay back in the day making little programs (text adventure games, screensavers, simple little things). I then moved to C++ but never really did anything too impressive with it. Since then (probably 5 years or so now) I have started to use C# for my desktop development and PHP for my web development. I've made some pretty cool tools here and there, but am certainly not a professional programmer by any stretch of the term as it has always simply been a hobby of mine. Right now I have two major web applications that I will start work on shortly. (Like tomorrow, or later tonight ideally.. :) ) Both will be database-driven apps that will require user registration, the ability to manipulate data that is specific to their account (their posts, listings, user account details, etc), amongst other things. Currently I am evaluating different frameworks to help me develop these web apps more quickly. I've been looking at, and have heard good things about Ruby on Rails. Hulu and YellowPages.com using it is an obvious endorsement - Of course, I have heard about the scalability issues that it potentially has; but that shouldn't be an issue with what I am working on. I don't expect millions of users per day for either project. I am also seriously looking at the Zend Framework for my needs because I already have some experience with PHP. Ideally I would like to find a ZF screencast that shows an app being written quickly so that I have a roughly equal comparison between the two options I am exploring and can see first-hand how things get done in both. That said - I am not opposed to considering frameworks other than RoR or ZF. The only research I've done on the subject has been over the past couple of days so I am quite certain that there are other excellent options out there that I've not even looked at - or heard of. Of course, it'd be awesome if there is a rapid app dev presentation that I can watch for whatever else is suggested. So - Suggestions? Links to good screencasts that show rapid application development in other frameworks? Are there other PHP frameworks that I should be considering? (Ones that are easy to deploy would be ideal, so I don't have to purchase a dedicated server that I have full control over. I'd like to keep my hosting costs down assuming that it's reasonable) Thanks in advance! -Sootah

  Read the article

• H.264 over RTP - Identify SPS and PPS Frames

  - by Toby

  I have a raw H.264 Stream from an IP Camera packed in RTP frames. I want to get raw H.264 data into a file so I can convert it with ffmpeg. So when I want to write the data into my raw H.264 file I found out it has to look like this: 00 00 01 [SPS] 00 00 01 [PPS] 00 00 01 [NALByte] [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 1] // Payload always without the first 2 Bytes -> NAL [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 2] [... until PAYLOAD Frame with Mark Bit received] // From here its a new Video Frame 00 00 01 [NAL BYTE] [PAYLOAD RTP Frame 1] .... So I get the SPS and the PPS from the Session Description Protocol out of my preceding RTSP communication. Additionally the camera sends the SPS and the PPSin two single messages before starting with the video stream itself. So I capture the messages in this order: 1. Preceding RTSP Communication here ( including SDP with SPS and PPS ) 2. RTP Frame with Payload: 67 42 80 28 DA 01 40 16 C4 // This is the SPS 3. RTP Frame with Payload: 68 CE 3C 80 // This is the PPS 4. RTP Frame with Payload: ... // Video Data Then there come some Frames with Payload and at some point a RTP Frame with the Marker Bit = 1. This means ( if I got it right) that I have a complete video frame. Afer this I write the Prefix Sequence ( 00 00 01 ) and the NALfrom the payload again and go on with the same procedure. Now my camera sends me after every 8 complete Video Frames the SPS and the PPS again. ( Again in two RTP Frames, as seen in the example above ). I know that especially the PPS can change in between streaming but that's not the problem. My questions are now: 1. Do I need to write the SPS/PPS every 8th Video Frame? If my SPS and my PPS don't change it should be enough to have them written at the very beginning of my file and nothing more? 2. How to distinguish between SPS/PPS and normal RTP Frames? In my C++ Code which parses the transmitted data I need make a difference between the RTP Frames with normal Payload an the ones carrying the SPS/PPS. How can I distinguish them? Okay the SPS/PPS frames are usually way smaller, but that's not a save call to rely on. Because if I ignore them I need to know which data I can throw away, or if I need to write them I need to put the 00 00 01 Prefix in front of them. ? Or is it a fixed rule that they occur every 8th Video Frame?

  Read the article

• Right edge border unpainted & theme drawing on non client area

  - by CodeVisio

  Basically, the problem concerns border flickering during window resizing on Windows. My first goal was to repositioning controls on a dialog during resizing of it. I think I got a good dynamic repositioning without almost any flickering during this operation, but here I'm talking about main window border flickering. However, I wasn't able to eliminate it at all. To simplify the example try to create a simple win32 app with default code VS provided. I'm testing it on Window 7(64bit) with the default theme (Windows 7 basic, no transparency) and VS2008. 1) Do not add code to the app. 2) run it in debug mode. 3) Drag the left edge of the window slowly toward the left of the screen and at the same time keep an eye on the right edge border of the window. You should see a redrawing taking in action. 4) Repeat step 3 moving rapidly the mouse, you should see the flickering on the right edge more clearly. If you invert the edge, that is moving the right edge of the window, then the left edge stay firmly there without unpainted regions. The same process happens for the top edge border vs. the bottom one. Now, enable he Classic Theme (that similar to Win2000) and repeat again the steps above. The right edge is perfectly there without flickering at all! If you keep an eye in the Output Window of Visual Studio when you run in debug mode you should see a list of dll loaded together with your exe. If you run in debug mode with the default theme you will see uxtheme.dll loaded. On the contrary, with classic theme enabled the uxtheme.dll is not loaded (dwmapi.dll is always loaded). Probably uxtheme.dll is loaded at runtime, based on desktop settings and it takes in action for redrawing your windows non-client area. Another trick you could use to see the effect of this flickering is to add a case for WM_NCPAINT and return 0 instead to call the DefWindowProc(). Repeating the steps above and moving fast you should see a big part of the right edge of the window completely erased by background windows. This doesn't happen for the top and bottom ones. Any idea to resolve this flickering? Thank you!

  Read the article

• How to merge a "branch" that isn't really a branch (wasn't created by an svn copy)

  - by MatrixFrog

  I'm working on a team with lots of people who are pretty unfamiliar with the concepts of version control systems, and are just kind of doing whatever seems to work, by trial and error. Someone created a "branch" from the trunk that is not ancestrally related to the trunk. My guess is it went something like this: They created a folder in branches. They checked out all the code from the trunk to somewhere on their desktop. They added all that code to the newly created folder as though it was a bunch of brand new files. So the repository isn't aware that all that code is actually just a copy of the trunk. When I look at the history of that branch in TortoiseSVN, and uncheck the "Stop on copy/rename" box, there is no revision that has the trunk (or any other path) under the "Copy from path" column. Then they made lots of changes on their "branch". Meanwhile, others were making lots of changes on the trunk. We tried to do a merge and of course it doesn't work. Because, the trunk and the fake branch are not ancestrally related. I can see only two ways to resolve this: Go through the logs on the "branch", look at every change that was made, and manually apply each change to the trunk. Go through the logs on the trunk, look at every change that was made between revision 540 (when the "branch" was created) and HEAD, and manually apply each change to the "branch". This involves 7 revisions one way or 11 revisions the other way, so neither one is really that terrible. But is there any way to cause the repository to "realize" that the branch really IS ancestrally related even though it was created incorrectly, so that we can take advantage of the built-in merging functionality in Eclipse/TortoiseSVN? (You may be wondering: Why did your company hire these people and allow them to access the SVN repository without making sure they knew how to use it properly first?! We didn't -- this is a school assignment, which is a collaboration between two different classes -- the ones in the lower class were given a very quick hand-wavey "overview" of SVN which didn't really teach them anything. I've asked everyone in the group to please PLEASE read the svn book, and I'll make sure we (the slightly more experienced half of the team) keep a close eye on the repository to ensure this doesn't happen again.)

  Read the article

• Evaluating points in time by months, but without referencing years in Rails

  - by MikeH

  FYI, There is some overlap in the initial description of this question with a question I asked yesterday, but the question is different. My app has users who have seasonal products. When a user selects a product, we allow him to also select the product's season. We accomplish this by letting him select a start date and an end date for each product. We're using date_select to generate two sets of drop-downs: one for the start date and one for the end date. Including years doesn't make sense for our model. So we're using the option: discard_year => true When you use discard_year => true, Rails sets a year in the database, it just doesn't appear in the views. Rails sets all the years to either 0001 or 0002 in our app. Yes, we could make it 2009 and 2010 or any other pair. But the point is that we want the months and days to function independent of a particular year. If we used 2009 and 2010, then those dates would be wrong next year because we don't expect these records to be updated every year. My problem is that we need to dynamically evaluate the availability of products based on their relationship to the current month. For example, assume it's March 15. Regardless of the year, I need a method that can tell me that a product available from October to January is not available right now. If we were using actual years, this would be pretty easy. For example, in the products model, I can do this: def is_available? (season_start.past? && season_end.future?) end I can also evaluate a start_date and an end_date against current_date However, in setup I've described above where we have arbitrary years that only make sense relative to each other, these methods don't work. For example, is_available? would return false for all my products because their end date is in the year 0001 or 0002. What I need is a method just like the ones I used as examples above, except that they evaluate against current_month instead of current_date, and past? and future months instead of years. I have no idea how to do this or whether Rails has any built in functionality that could help. I've gone through all the date and time methods/helpers in the API docs, but I'm not seeing anything equivalent to what I'm describing. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Can simple javascript inheritance be simplified even further?

  - by Will

  John Resig (of jQuery fame) provides a concise and elegant way to allow simple JavaScript inheritance. It was so short and sweet, in fact, that it inspired me to try and simplify it even further (see code below). I've modified his original function such that it still passes all his tests and has the potential advantage of: readability (50% less code) simplicity (you don't have to be a ninja to understand it) performance (no extra wrappers around super/base method calls) consistency with C#'s base keyword Because this seems almost too good to be true, I want to make sure my logic doesn't have any fundamental flaws/holes/bugs, or if anyone has additional suggestions to improve or refute the code (perhaps even John Resig could chime in here!). Does anyone see anything wrong with my approach (below) vs. John Resig's original approach? if (!window.Class) { window.Class = function() {}; window.Class.extend = function(members) { var prototype = new this(); for (var i in members) prototype[i] = members[i]; prototype.base = this.prototype; function object() { if (object.caller == null && this.initialize) this.initialize.apply(this, arguments); } object.constructor = object; object.prototype = prototype; object.extend = arguments.callee; return object; }; } And the tests (below) are nearly identical to the original ones except for the syntax around base/super method calls (for the reason enumerated above): var Person = Class.extend( { initialize: function(isDancing) { this.dancing = isDancing; }, dance: function() { return this.dancing; } }); var Ninja = Person.extend( { initialize: function() { this.base.initialize(false); }, dance: function() { return this.base.dance(); }, swingSword: function() { return true; } }); var p = new Person(true); alert("true? " + p.dance()); // => true var n = new Ninja(); alert("false? " + n.dance()); // => false alert("true? " + n.swingSword()); // => true alert("true? " + (p instanceof Person && p instanceof Class && n instanceof Ninja && n instanceof Person && n instanceof Class));

  Read the article

• Linux: How to find all serial devices (ttyS, ttyUSB, ..) without opening them?

  - by Thomas Tempelmann

  What is the proper way to get a list of all available serial ports/devices on a Linux system? In other words, when I iterate over all devices in /dev/, how do I tell which ones are serial ports in the classic way, i.e. those usually supporting baud rates and RTS/CTS flow control? The solution would be coded in C. I ask because I am using a 3rd party library that does this clearly wrong: It appears to only iterate over /dev/ttyS*. The problem is that there are, for instance, serial ports over USB (provided by USB-RS232 adapters), and those are listed under /dev/ttyUSB*. And reading the Serial-HOWTO at Linux.org, I get the idea that there'll be other name spaces as well, as time comes. So I need to find the official way to detect serial devices. Problem is that there appears none documented, or I can't find it. I imagine one way would be to open all files from /dev/tty* and call a specific ioctl() on them that is only available on serial devices. Would that be a good solution, though? Update hrickards suggested to look at the source for "setserial". Its code does exactly what I had in mind: First, it opens a device with: fd = open (path, O_RDWR | O_NONBLOCK) Then it invokes: ioctl (fd, TIOCGSERIAL, &serinfo) If that call returns no error, then it's a serial dev, apparently. I found similar code here, which suggested to also add the O_NOCTTY option. There is one problem with this approach, though: When I tested this code on BSD Unix (i.e. OSX), it worked as well, however serial devices that are provided thru Bluetooth cause the system (driver) to try to connect to the bluetooth device, which takes a while before it'll return with a timeout error. This is caused by just opening the device. And I can imagine that similar things can happen on Linux as well - ideally, I should not need to open the device to figure out its type. I wonder if there's also a way to invoke ioctl functions without an open, or open a device in a way that it does not cause connections to be made? Any ideas?

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204  | Next Page >