Search Results

Search found 22900 results on 916 pages for 'pascal case'.

Page 197/916 | < Previous Page | 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204  | Next Page >

• Doing without partial commits the "Mercurial way"

  - by David Moles

  Subversion shop considering switching to Mercurial, trying to figure out in advance what all the complaints from developers are going to be. There's one fairly common use case here that I can't see how to handle. I'm working on some largish feature, and I have a significant part of the code -- or possibly several significant parts of the code -- in pieces all over the garage floor, totally unsuitable for checkin, maybe not even compiling. An urgent bugfix request comes in. The fix is nice and local and doesn't touch any of the code I've been working on. I make the fix in my working copy. Now what? I've looked at "Mercurial cherry picking changes for commit" and "best practices in mercurial: branch vs. clone, and partial merges?" and all the suggestions seem to be extensions of varying complexity, from Record and Shelve to Queues. The fact that there apparently isn't any core functionality for this makes me suspect that in some sense this working style is Doing It Wrong. What would a Mercurial-like solution to this use case look like?

  Read the article

• Auto increment with a Unit Of Work

  - by Derick

  Context I'm building a persistence layer to abstract different types of databases that I'll be needing. On the relational part I have mySQL, Oracle and PostgreSQL. Let's take the following simplified MySQL tables: CREATE TABLE Contact ( ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(30) ); CREATE TABLE Address ( ID varchar(15), CONTACT_ID varchar(15), NAME varchar(50) ); I use code to generate system specific alpha numeric unique ID's fitting 15 chars in this case. Thus, if I insert a Contact record with it's Addresses I have my generated Contact.ID and Address.CONTACT_IDs before committing. I've created a Unit of Work (amongst others) as per Martin Fowler's patterns to add transaction support. I'm using a key based Identity Map in the UoW to track the changed records in memory. It works like a charm for the scenario above, all pretty standard stuff so far. The question scenario comes in when I have a database that is not under my control and the ID fields are auto-increment (or in Oracle sequences). In this case I do not have the db generated Contact.ID beforehand, so when I create my Address I do not have a value for Address.CONTACT_ID. The transaction has not been started on the DB session since all is kept in the Identity Map in memory. Question: What is a good approach to address this? (Avoiding unnecessary db round trips) Some ideas: Retrieve the last ID: I can do a call to the database to retrieve the last Id like: SELECT Auto_increment FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name='Contact'; But this is MySQL specific and probably something similar can be done for the other databases. If do this then would need to do the 1st insert, get the ID and then update the children (Address.CONTACT_IDs) – all in the current transaction context.

  Read the article

• Chrome extension sendRequest from async callback not working?

  - by Eugene

  Can't figure out what's wrong. onRequest not triggered on call from async callback method, the same request from content script works. The sample code below. background.js ============= ... makeAsyncRequest(); ... chrome.extension.onRequest.addListener(function(request, sender, sendResponse) { switch (request.id) { case "from_content_script": // This works console.log("from_content_script"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; case "from_async": // Not working! console.log("from_async"); sendResponse({}); // clean up break; } }); methods.js ========== makeAsyncRequest = function() { ... var xhr = new XMLHttpRequest(); xhr.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xhr.readyState == 4) { ... // It works console.log("makeAsyncRequest callback"); chrome.extension.sendRequest({id: "from_async"}, function(response) { }); } } ... }; UPDATE: manifest configuration file. Don't no what's wrong here. { "name": "TestExt", "version": "0.0.1", "icons": { "48": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "description": "write it later", "background_page": "background.html", "options_page": "options.html", "browser_action": { "default_title": "TestExt", "default_icon": "img/icon-48-green.gif" }, "permissions": [ "tabs", "http://*/*", "https://*/*", "file://*/*", "webNavigation" ] }

  Read the article

• Alternatives to static methods on interfaces for enforcing consistency

  - by jayshao

  In Java, I'd like to be able to define marker interfaces, that forced implementations to provide static methods. For example, for simple text-serialization/deserialization I'd like to be able to define an interface that looked something like this: public interface TextTransformable<T>{ public static T fromText(String text); public String toText(); Since interfaces in Java can't contain static methods though (as noted in a number of other posts/threads: here, here, and here this code doesn't work. What I'm looking for however is some reasonable paradigm to express the same intent, namely symmetric methods, one of which is static, and enforced by the compiler. Right now the best we can come up with is some kind of static factory object or generic factory, neither of which is really satisfactory. Note: in our case our primary use-case is we have many, many "value-object" types - enums, or other objects that have a limited number of values, typically carry no state beyond their value, and which we parse/de-parse thousands of time a second, so actually do care about reusing instances (like Float, Integer, etc.) and its impact on memory consumption/g.c. Any thoughts?

  Read the article

• php Warning: strtotime() Error

  - by Kavithanbabu

  I have changed my joomla and wordpress files from old server to new server. In the front end and admin side its working without any errors. But in the Database (phpmyadmin) Section it shows some warning messages like this.. Warning: strtotime() [function.strtotime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are *required* to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Calcutta' for 'IST/5.0/no DST' instead in /usr/share/phpmyadmin/libraries/db_info.inc.php on line 88 Warning: strftime() [function.strftime]: It is not safe to rely on the system's timezone settings. You are *required* to use the date.timezone setting or the date_default_timezone_set() function. In case you used any of those methods and you are still getting this warning, you most likely misspelled the timezone identifier. We selected 'Asia/Calcutta' for 'IST/5.0/no DST' instead in /usr/share/phpmyadmin/libraries/common.lib.php on line 1483 Can you please suggest, how to hide these warning messages?? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• Inorder tree traversal in binary tree in C

  - by srk

  In the below code, I'am creating a binary tree using insert function and trying to display the inserted elements using inorder function which follows the logic of In-order traversal.When I run it, numbers are getting inserted but when I try the inorder function( input 3), the program continues for next input without displaying anything. I guess there might be a logical error.Please help me clear it. Thanks in advance... #include<stdio.h> #include<stdlib.h> int i; typedef struct ll { int data; struct ll *left; struct ll *right; } node; node *root1=NULL; // the root node void insert(node *root,int n) { if(root==NULL) //for the first(root) node { root=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); root->data=n; root->right=NULL; root->left=NULL; } else { if(n<(root->data)) { root->left=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); insert(root->left,n); } else if(n>(root->data)) { root->right=(node *)malloc(sizeof(node)); insert(root->right,n); } else { root->data=n; } } } void inorder(node *root) { if(root!=NULL) { inorder(root->left); printf("%d ",root->data); inorder(root->right); } } main() { int n,choice=1; while(choice!=0) { printf("Enter choice--- 1 for insert, 3 for inorder and 0 for exit\n"); scanf("%d",&choice); switch(choice) { case 1: printf("Enter number to be inserted\n"); scanf("%d",&n); insert(root1,n); break; case 3: inorder(root1); break; default: break; } } }

  Read the article

• NSSegmentedControl -selectedSegment always returns 0

  - by SphereCat1

  I have an NSSegmentedControl with two segments set to "Select None" mode in Interface Builder. No matter what I try, I can't get -selectedSegment to return anything but 0, even though segment 0 is even disabled by default and can't possibly be selected. Here's the relevant function that gets called when you click any segment on the control: -(IBAction)changeStep:(id)sender { [stepContainer setHidden:TRUE]; [(NSView *)[[wizard stepArray] objectAtIndex:(NSInteger)[wizard step]] removeFromSuperview]; switch ([[navigationButton cell] selectedSegment]) { case 0: [wizard setStep:(NSInteger *)[wizard step]-1]; break; case 1: [wizard setStep:(NSInteger *)[wizard step]+1]; break; default: break; } //[[navigationButton cell] setSelected:FALSE forSegment:[navigationButton selectedSegment]]; if ([wizard step] > 0) { [wizard setStep:0]; [navigationButton setEnabled:FALSE forSegment:0]; } NSLog(@"%d", [wizard step]); [stepContainer addSubview:(NSView *)[[wizard stepArray] objectAtIndex:(NSInteger)[wizard step]]]; [stepContainer setHidden:FALSE withFade:TRUE]; } I've also tried using -isSelectedForSegment, but it has the same result. Any help you can provide would be awesome, I have no idea what I'm doing wrong. Thanks! SphereCat1

  Read the article

• Why does this work?

  - by jsoldi

  I was googling trying to find a way to call Control.DataBindings.Add without using a string literal but getting the property name from the property itself, which I think would be less error prone, at least for my particular case, since I normally let Visual Studio do the renaming when renaming a property. So my code would look something like DataBindings.Add(GetName(myInstance.myObject)... instead of DataBindings.Add("myObject".... So I found this: static string GetName<T>(T item) where T : class { var properties = typeof(T).GetProperties(); if (properties.Length != 1) throw new Exception("Length must be 1"); return properties[0].Name; } That would be called, assuming I have a property called One, this way: string name = GetName(new { this.One }); which would give me "One". I have no clue why does it work and whether is safe to use it or not. I don't even know what that new { this.One } means. And I don't know on which case could it happens that properties.Length is not 1. By the way, I just tested to rename my property One to Two and Visual Studio turned new { this.One } into new { One = this.Two }, which when used with the GetName function gave me "One", which make the whole thing useless since the name I would be passing to Control.DataBindings.Add would be still "One" after renaming the property.

  Read the article

• Generated sql from LINQ to SQL

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Following code ProductPricesDataContext db = new ProductPricesDataContext(); var products = from p in db.Products where p.ProductFields.Count > 3 select new { ProductIDD = p.ProductId, ProductName = p.ProductName.Contains("hotel"), NumbeOfProd = p.ProductFields.Count, totalFields = p.ProductFields.Sum(o => o.FieldId + o.FieldId) }; Generated follwing sql SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], (CASE WHEN [t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%' THEN 1 WHEN NOT ([t0].[ProductName] LIKE '%hotel%') THEN 0 ELSE NULL END) AS [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 Why is this CASE statement for ProductName and because of this instead of ProductName i am just getting 0 in my result set. It should generate sql like following, (where ProductName like '%hotel%' SELECT [t0].[ProductId] AS [ProductIDD], [ProductName], ( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t2] WHERE [t2].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] ) AS [NumbeOfProd], ( SELECT SUM([t3].[FieldId] + [t3].[FieldId]) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t3] WHERE [t3].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId]) AS [totalFields] FROM [dbo].[Product] AS [t0] WHERE (( SELECT COUNT(*) FROM [dbo].[ProductField] AS [t1] WHERE [t1].[ProductId] = [t0].[ProductId] )) > 3 AND t0.ProductName like '%hotel%' Thanks.

  Read the article

• How can I get type information at runtime from a DMP file in a Windbg extension?

  - by pj4533

  This is related to my previous question, regarding pulling objects from a dmp file. As I mentioned in the previous question, I can successfully pull object out of the dmp file by creating wrapper 'remote' objects. I have implemented several of these so far, and it seems to be working well. However I have run into a snag. In one case, a pointer is stored in a class, say of type 'SomeBaseClass', but that object is actually of the type 'SomeDerivedClass' which derives from 'SomeBaseClass'. For example it would be something like this: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : Ptr32 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : Ptr32 SomeOtherClass I need someway to find out what the ACTUAL type of 'field1' is. To be more specific, using example addresses: MyApplication!SomeObject +0x000 field1 : 0cae2e24 SomeBaseClass +0x004 field2 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass +0x008 field3 : 0x262c8d3c SomeOtherClass 0:000> dt SomeBaseClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeBaseClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 0:000> dt SomeDerivedClass 0cae2e24 MyApplication!SomeDerivedClass +0x000 __VFN_table : 0x02de89e4 +0x038 basefield1 : (null) +0x03c basefield2 : 3 +0x040 derivedfield1 : 357 +0x044 derivedfield2 : timecode_t When I am in WinDbg, I can do this: dt 0x02de89e4 And it will show the type: 0:000> dt 0x02de89e4 SomeDerivedClass::`vftable' Symbol not found. But how do get that inside an extension? Can I use SearchMemory() to look for 'SomeDerivedClass::`vftable'? If you follow my other question, I need this type information so I know what type of wrapper remote classes to create. I figure it might end up being some sort of case-statement, where I have to match a string to a type? I am ok with that, but I still don't know where I can get that string that represents the type of the object in question (ie SomeObject-field1 in the above example).

  Read the article

• Error in Ordinary Differential Equation representation

  - by Priya M

  UPDATE I am trying to find the Lyapunov Exponents given in link LE. I am trying to figure it out and understand it by taking the following eqs for my case. These are a set of ordinary differential equations (these are just for testing how to work with cos and sin as ODE) f(1)=ALPHA*(y-x); f(2)=x*(R-z)-y; f(3) = 10*cos(x); and x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(y)=X(3); f1 means dx/dt;f2 dy/dt and f3 in this case would be -10sinx. However,when expressing as x=X(1);y=X(2);i am unsure how to express for cos.This is just a trial example i was doing so as to know how to work with equations where we have a cos,sin etc terms as a function of another variable. When using ode45 to solve these Eqs [T,Res]=sol(3,@test_eq,@ode45,0,0.01,20,[7 2 100 ],10); it throws the following error ??? Attempted to access (2); index must be a positive integer or logical. Error in ==> Eq at 19 x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(x)=X(3); Is my representation x=X(1); y=X(2); cos(y)=X(3); alright? How to resolve the error? Thank you

  Read the article

• How to specify allowed exceptions in WCF's configuration file?

  - by tucaz

  Hello! I´m building a set of WCF services for internal use through all our applications. For exception handling I created a default fault class so I can return treated message to the caller if its the case or a generic one when I have no clue what happened. Fault contract: [DataContract(Name = "DefaultFault", Namespace = "http://fnac.com.br/api/2010/03")] public class DefaultFault { public DefaultFault(DefaultFaultItem[] items) { if (items == null || items.Length== 0) { throw new ArgumentNullException("items"); } StringBuilder sbItems = new StringBuilder(); for (int i = 0; i Specifying that my method can throw this exception so the consuming client will be aware of it: [OperationContract(Name = "PlaceOrder")] [FaultContract(typeof(DefaultFault))] [WebInvoke(UriTemplate = "/orders", BodyStyle = WebMessageBodyStyle.Bare, ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, RequestFormat = WebMessageFormat.Json, Method = "POST")] string PlaceOrder(Order newOrder); Most of time we will use just .NET to .NET communication with usual binds and everything works fine since we are talking the same language. However, as you can see in the service contract declaration I have a WebInvoke attribute (and a webHttp binding) in order to be able to also talk JSON since one of our apps will be built for iPhone and this guy will talk JSON. My problem is that whenever I throw a FaultException and have includeExceptionDetails="false" in the config file the calling client will get a generic HTTP error instead of my custom message. I understand that this is the correct behavior when includeExceptionDetails is turned off, but I think I saw some configuration a long time ago to allow some exceptions/faults to pass through the service boundaries. Is there such thing like this? If not, what do u suggest for my case? Thanks a LOT!

  Read the article

• NHibernate mapping with two special cases

  - by brainimus

  I am using NHibernate to map a class to a database table. The Part table has an ID column (primary key) and a ParentPart column (along with a few others). class Part { public virtual long ID{ get; set; } public virtual Part ParentPart { get; set; } } The ParentPart is normally another valid part in the part table but I have two special cases. I have a case where the ParentPart column can be 0 (zero) and another case where it can be -1. Neither of these cases currently represent another valid Part object. I was thinking I could make 2 subclasses of Part (ZeroPart and NegativeOnePart) that would never persist. I want the zero and -1 values to be entered in the column but not persist the entire ZeroPart or NegativeOnePart objects. I am unsure how to map this (I'm using hbm files) or if this even the correct approach. How can I map this so that normal valid parts are persisted but I can also handle the special cases? As an aside: My current hbm file has the Part.ID's unsaved value as zero but I think I can just change this in the mapping to something different and default it in the class.

  Read the article

• Packing an exe + dll into one executable (not .NET)

  - by Bluebird75

  Hi, Is anybody aware of a program that can pack several DLL and a .EXE into one executable. I am not talking about .NET case here, I am talking about general DLLs, some of which I generate in C++, some of others are external DLL I have no control over. My specific case is a python program packaged with py2exe, where I would like to "hide" the other DLL by packing them. The question is general enough though. The things that had a look at: ILMerge: specific to .NET NETZ: specific to .NET UPX: does DLL compression but not multiple DLL + EXE packing FileJoiner: Almost got it. It can pack executable + anything into one exe but when opened, it will launch the default opener for every file that was packed. So, if the user user dlldepend installed, it will launch it (becaues that's the default dll opener). Maybe that's not possible ? Summary of the answers: DLL opening is managed by the OS, so packing DLL into executable means that at some point, they need to be extracted to a place where the OS can find them. No magic bullet. So, what I want is not possible. Unless... We change something in the OS. Thanks Conrad for pointing me to ThinInstall, which virtualise the application and the OS loading mechanism. With ThinInstall, it is possible to pack everything in one exe (DLL, registry settings, ...).

  Read the article

• Can I force the auto-generated Linq-to-SQL classes to use an OUTER JOIN?

  - by Gary McGill

  Let's say I have an Order table which has a FirstSalesPersonId field and a SecondSalesPersonId field. Both of these are foreign keys that reference the SalesPerson table. For any given order, either one or two salespersons may be credited with the order. In other words, FirstSalesPersonId can never be NULL, but SecondSalesPersonId can be NULL. When I drop my Order and SalesPerson tables onto the "Linq to SQL Classes" design surface, the class builder spots the two FK relationships from the Order table to the SalesPerson table, and so the generated Order class has a SalesPerson field and a SalesPerson1 field (which I can rename to SalesPerson1 and SalesPerson2 to avoid confusion). Because I always want to have the salesperson data available whenever I process an order, I am using DataLoadOptions.LoadWith to specify that the two salesperson fields are populated when the order instance is populated, as follows: dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson1); dataLoadOptions.LoadWith<Order>(o => o.SalesPerson2); The problem I'm having is that Linq to SQL is using something like the following SQL to load an order: SELECT ... FROM Order O INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP1 ON SP1.salesPersonId = O.firstSalesPersonId INNER JOIN SalesPerson SP2 ON SP2.salesPersonId = O.secondSalesPersonId This would make sense if there were always two salesperson records, but because there is sometimes no second salesperson (secondSalesPersonId is NULL), the INNER JOIN causes the query to return no records in that case. What I effectively want here is to change the second INNER JOIN into a LEFT OUTER JOIN. Is there a way to do that through the UI for the class generator? If not, how else can I achieve this? (Note that because I'm using the generated classes almost exclusively, I'd rather not have something tacked on the side for this one case if I can avoid it).

  Read the article

• Is it possible to replace values in a queryset before sending it to your template?

  - by Issy

  Hi Guys, Wondering if it's possible to change a value returned from a queryset before sending it off to the template. Say for example you have a bunch of records Date | Time | Description 10/05/2010 | 13:30 | Testing... etc... However, based on the day of the week the time may change. However this is static. For example on a monday the time is ALWAYS 15:00. Now you could add another table to configure special cases but to me it seems overkill, as this is a rule. How would you replace that value before sending it to the template? I thought about using the new if tags (if day=1), but this is more of business logic rather then presentation. Tested this in a custom template tag def render(self, context): result = self.model._default_manager.filter(from_date__lte=self.now).filter(to_date__gte=self.now) if self.day == 4: result = result.exclude(type__exact=2).order_by('time') else: result = result.order_by('type') result[0].time = '23:23:23' context[self.varname] = result return '' However it still displays the results from the DB, is this some how related to 'lazy' evaluation of templates? Thanks! Update Responding to comments below: It's not stored wrong in the DB, its stored Correctly However there is a small side case where the value needs to change. So for example I have a From Date & To date, my query checks if todays date is between those. Now with this they could setup a from date - to date for an entire year, and the special cases (like mondays as an example) is taken care off. However if you want to store in the DB you would have to capture several more records to cater for the side case. I.e you would be capturing the same information just to cater for that 1 day when the time changes. (And the time always changes on the same day, and is always the same)

  Read the article

• Find all ways to insert zeroes into a bit pattern

  - by James

  I've been struggling to wrap my head around this for some reason. I have 15 bits that represent a number. The bits must match a pattern. The pattern is defined in the way the bits start out: they are in the most flush-right representation of that pattern. So say the pattern is 1 4 1. The bits will be: 000000010111101 So the general rule is, take each number in the pattern, create that many bits (1, 4 or 1 in this case) and then have at least one space separating them. So if it's 1 2 6 1 (it will be random): 001011011111101 Starting with the flush-right version, I want to generate every single possible number that meets that pattern. The # of bits will be stored in a variable. So for a simple case, assume it's 5 bits and the initial bit pattern is: 00101. I want to generate: 00101 01001 01010 10001 10010 10100 I'm trying to do this in Objective-C, but anything resembling C would be fine. I just can't seem to come up with a good recursive algorithm for this. It makes sense in the above example, but when I start getting into 12431 and having to keep track of everything it breaks down.

  Read the article

• Update table without using cursor and on date

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Please copy and run following script DECLARE @Customers TABLE (CustomerId INT) DECLARE @Orders TABLE ( OrderId INT, CustomerId INT, OrderDate DATETIME ) DECLARE @Calls TABLE (CallId INT, CallTime DATETIME, CallToId INT, OrderId INT) ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Customers SELECT 1 INSERT INTO @Customers SELECT 2 ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Orders SELECT 10, 1, DATEADD(d, -20, GETDATE()) INSERT INTO @Orders SELECT 11, 1, DATEADD(d, -10, GETDATE()) ----------------------------------------------------------------- INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 101, DATEADD(d, -19, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 102, DATEADD(d, -17, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 103, DATEADD(d, -9, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 104, DATEADD(d, -6, GETDATE()), 1, NULL INSERT INTO @Calls SELECT 105, DATEADD(d, -5, GETDATE()), 1, NULL ----------------------------------------------------------------- I want to update @Calls table and need following results. I am using the following query UPDATE @Calls SET OrderId = ( CASE WHEN (s.CallTime > e.OrderDate) THEN e.OrderId END ) FROM @Calls s INNER JOIN @Orders e ON s.CallToId = e.CustomerId and the result of my query is not what I need. Requirement: As you can see there are two orders. One is on 2010-12-12 and one is on 2010-12-22. I want to update @Calls table with relevant OrderId with respect to CallTime. In short If subsequent Orders are added, and there are further calls then we assume that a new call is associated with the most recent Order Note: This is sample data so this is not the case that I always have two Orders. There might be 10+ Orders and 100+ calls. Note2 I could not find good title for this question. Please change it if you think of any better. Thanks.

  Read the article

• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

  Read the article

• Query String to Object with strongly typed properties

  - by Kamar

  Let’s say we track 20 query string parameters in our site. Each request which comes will have only a subset of those 20 parameters. But we definitely look for all/most of the parameters which comes in each request. We do not want to loop through the collection each time we are looking for a particular parameter initially or somewhere down the pipeline in the code. So we loop once through the query string collection, convert string values to their respective types (enums, int, string etc.), populate to QueryString object which is added to the context. After that wherever its needed we will have a strongly typed properties in the QueryString object which is easy to use and we maintain a standard. public class QueryString { public int Key1{ get; private set; } public SomeType Key2{ get; private set; } private QueryString() { } public static QueryString GetQueryString() { QueryString l_QS = new QueryString(); foreach (string l_Key in HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString.AllKeys) { switch (l_Key) { case "key1": l_QS.Key1= DoSomething(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; case "key2": l_QS.Key2 = DoAnotherThing(l_Key, HttpContext.Current.Request.QueryString[l_Key]); break; } } return l_QS; } } Any other solution to achieve this?

  Read the article

• How to add a service to the type descriptor context of a property grid in .Net?

  - by Jules

  I have an app that allows the user to choose an image, at design time, either as a straight image, or from an image list. All cool so far, except that this is not happening from the visual studio property browser, its happening from a property grid that is a part of a type editor. My problem is, both the image picker (actually resource picker), and the imagelist type converter rely on some design-time services to get the job done. In the case of imagelist, its the IReferenceService and in the case of the resource picker its a service called _DTE. In the first instance of an edit from the visual studio property browser, I could get a reference to these services but (1) how can I add them to the type descriptor context of my property grid? It would be better, for future proofing, if I could just copy a reference to all of the services in the type descriptor context. (2) Where does the property browser get these services from in the first place? ETA: I still don't know how to do it, but I now know it is possible. (1) Sub-class control and add a property whose type is an array of buttons. (2) Add it to a form. (3) Select the new control on the design service and edit the new property in the property browser. (4) The collection editor dialog pops-up (5) Add a button (6) Edit image and image list - the type editor and type converter, respectively, behave as they should.

  Read the article

• A C# Refactoring Question...

  - by james lewis

  I came accross the following code today and I didn't like it. It's fairly obvious what it's doing but I'll add a little explanation here anyway: Basically it reads all the settings for an app from the DB and the iterates through all of them looking for the DB Version and the APP Version then sets some variables to the values in the DB (to be used later). I looked at it and thought it was a bit ugly - I don't like switch statements and I hate things that carry on iterating through a list once they're finished. So I decided to refactor it. My question to all of you is how would you refactor it? Or do you think it even needs refactoring at all? Here's the code: using (var sqlConnection = new SqlConnection(Lfepa.Itrs.Framework.Configuration.ConnectionString)) { sqlConnection.Open(); var dataTable = new DataTable("Settings"); var selectCommand = new SqlCommand(Lfepa.Itrs.Data.Database.Commands.dbo.SettingsSelAll, sqlConnection); var reader = selectCommand.ExecuteReader(); while (reader.Read()) { switch (reader[SettingKeyColumnName].ToString().ToUpper()) { case DatabaseVersionKey: DatabaseVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; case ApplicationVersionKey: ApplicationVersion = new Version(reader[SettingValueColumneName].ToString()); break; default: break; } } if (DatabaseVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Database Version Setting from the database."); if (ApplicationVersion == null) throw new ApplicationException("Colud not load Application Version Setting from the database."); }

  Read the article

• Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

  - by Ken Keenan

  I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

  Read the article

• How to get address of va_arg?

  - by lionbest

  I hack some old C API and i got a compile error with the following code: void OP_Exec( OP* op , ... ) { int i; va_list vl; va_start(vl,op); for( i = 0; i < op->param_count; ++i ) { switch( op->param_type[i] ) { case OP_PCHAR: op->param_buffer[i] = va_arg(vl,char*); // ok it works break; case OP_INT: op->param_buffer[i] = &va_arg(vl,int); // error here break; // ... more here } } op->pexec(op); va_end(vl); } The error with gcc version 4.4.1 (Ubuntu 4.4.1-4ubuntu9) was: main.c|55|error: lvalue required as unary ‘&’ operand So why exactly it's not possible here to get a pointer to argument? How to fix it? This code is executed very often with different OP*, so i prefer to not allocate extra memory. Is it possible to iterate over va_list knowing only the size of arguments?

  Read the article

• "variable tracking" is eating my compile time!

  - by wowus

  I have an auto-generated file which looks something like this... static void do_SomeFunc1(void* parameter) { // Do stuff. } // Continues on for another 4000 functions... void dispatch(int id, void* parameter) { switch(id) { case ::SomeClass1::id: return do_SomeFunc1(parameter); case ::SomeClass2::id: return do_SomeFunc2(parameter); // This continues for the next 4000 cases... } } When I build it like this, the build time is enormous. If I inline all the functions automagically into their respective cases using my script, the build time is cut in half. GCC 4.5.0 says ~50% of the build time is being taken up by "variable tracking" when I use -ftime-report. What does this mean and how can I speed compilation while still maintaining the superior cache locality of pulling out the functions from the switch? EDIT: Interestingly enough, the build time has exploded only on debug builds, as per the following profiling information of the whole project (which isn't just the file in question, but still a good metric; the file in question takes the most time to build): Debug: 8 minutes 50 seconds Release: 4 minutes, 25 seconds

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204  | Next Page >