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  • Javascript menu that hovers over initial element

    - by TenJack
    I'm trying to build a javascript menu using prototype that when you mouseover an element, that element is hidden and a bigger element is shown in its place that closes onmouseout. This is what I have so far to give you an idea, but it doesn't work and is buggy. I'm not sure what the best general approach is: EDIT: using the prototype refactor from remi bourgarel: function socialMenuInit(){ var social_menu = $('sociable_menu'); social_menu.hide(); var share_words = $('share_words'); Event.observe(share_words,"mouseover",function(){ share_words.hide(); social_menu.show(); }); Event.observe(social_menu,"mouseout",function(){ social_menu.hide(); share_words.show(); }); } EDIT: The main problem now is that the second bigger menu(social_menu) that is shown on top of the smaller mouseover triggering element(share_words) only closes when you mouseout the smaller trigger element even though this element is hidden. EDIT: This is the html and css I am using: <div id="share_words">share</div> <div id="sociable_menu"></div> #share_words{ display: none; border: 1px solid white; position: absolute; right: 320px; top:0px; padding: 4px; background-image: url('/images/icons/group.png'); background-repeat: no-repeat; background-position:7px 6px; text-indent:26px; color: white; z-index: 15; } #sociable_menu{ border: 1px solid black; padding: 5px; position: absolute; right: 275px; top: -10px; z-index: 20; } Thanks for any help.

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  • Flex: How to refresh/repaint a chart?

    - by Rob
    I have a chart for which the data is provided asynchronously via a CallResponder (used with a RemoteObject). However, it does not seem possible to update the chart with the data after it has been initially drawn. Here are the relevant snippets of (simplified) code: // code below is in the application MXML <mx:CallResponder id="result" result="resultHandler(event)" /> private function resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { // panel is an instance of ChartPanel this.panel.init(event.result); } // invoked when user clicks a button private function displayChart():void { this.currentState = "ShowChart"; result.token = remoteObject.getUrlStatistics(); } // code below is in ChartPanel <mx:BarChart id="chart" /> public function init(value:Object):void { var xml:XMLList = XMLList(value); var data:ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection(); for each (var element:XML in xml.children()) { // not shown: extract value out of XML, put in ArrayList data.addItem(...); } this.chart.dataProvider = data; } The result is that it draws an empty chart. the resultHandler function or init function in ChartPanel needs to trigger a repaint or something similar. I have tried: Firing a collection modified event after assigning it to chart.dataProvider calling invalidateDisplayList (tried with all components) binding the chart data provider to a variable, and doing the above. changing the view state on the last line of resultHandler. None of them worked. When I fetch the data and cache it locally, then use it to call init synchronously, the chart displays correctly. What am I missing here?

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  • Application Errors vs User Errors in PHP

    - by CogitoErgoSum
    So after much debate back and forth, I've come up with what I think may be a valid plan to handle Application/System errors vs User Errors (I.e. Validation Issues, Permission Issues etc). Application/System Errors will be handled using a custom error handler (via set_error_handler()). Depending on the severity of the error, the user may be redirected to a generic error page (I.e. Fatal Error), or the error may simply be silently logged (i.e E_WARNING). These errors are ones most likely caused by issues outside the users control (Missing file, Bad logic, etc). The second set of errors would be User Generated ones. These are the ones may not automatically trigger an error but would be considered one. In these cases i"ve decided to use the trigger_error() function and typically throw a waning or notice which would be logged silently by the error handler. After that it would be up to the developer to then redirect the user to another page or display some sort of more meaningful message to the user. This way an error of any type is always logged, but user errors still allow the developer freedom to handle it in their own ways. I.e. Redirect them back to their form with it fully repopulated and a message of what went wrong. Does anyone see anything wrong with this, or have a more intuitive way? My approach to error handling is typically everyone has their own ways but there must be a way instituted.

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  • WCF for a shared data access

    - by Audrius
    Hi all, I have a little experience with WCF and would like to get your opinion/suggestion on how the following problem can be solved: A web service needs to be accessible from multiple clients simultaneously and service needs to return a result from a shared data set. The concrete project I'm working on has to store a list of IP addresses/ranges. This list will be queried by a bunch of web servers for a validation purposes and we speak of a couple of thousand or more queries per minute. My initial draft approach was to use Windows service as a WCF host with service contract implementing class that is decorated with ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.Single, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple) that has a list object and a custom locking for accessing it. So basically I have a WCF service singleton with a list = shared data - multiple clients. What I do not like about it is that data and communication layers are merged into one and performance wise this doesn't feel "right". What I really really (- want is Windows service running an instance of IP list holding container class object, a second service running WCF service contract implementation and a way the latter querying the former in a nice way with a minimal blocking. Using another WCF channel would not really take me far away from the initial draft implementation or would it? What approach would you take? Project is still in a very early stage so complete design re-do is not out of question. All ideas are appreciated. Thanks! UPDATE: The data set will be changed dynamically. Web service will have a separate method to add IP or IP range and on top of that there will be a scheduled task that will trigger data cleanup every 10-15 minutes according to some rules. UPDATE 2: a separate benchmark project will be kicked up that should use MSSQL as a data backend (instead on in-memory list).

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  • When does a PHP <5.3.0 daemon script receive signals?

    - by MidnightLightning
    I've got a PHP script in the works that is a job worker; its main task is to check a database table for new jobs, and if there are any, to act on them. But jobs will be coming in in bursts, with long gaps in between, so I devised a sleep cycle like: while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now sleep(30); } } Good, but in some cases that means there might be a 30 second lag before a new job is acted upon. Since this is a daemon script, I figured I'd try the pcntl_signal hook to catch a SIGUSR1 signal to nudge the script to wake up, like: $_isAwake = true; function user_sig($signo) { global $_isAwake; daemon_log("Caught SIGUSR1"); $_isAwake = true; } pcntl_signal(SIGUSR1, 'user_sig'); while(true) { if ($jobs = get_new_jobs()) { // Act upon the jobs } else { // No new jobs now daemon_log("No new jobs, sleeping..."); $_isAwake = false; $ts = time(); while(time() < $ts+30) { sleep(1); if ($_isAwake) break; // Did a signal happen while we were sleeping? If so, stop sleeping } $_isAwake = true; } } I broke the sleep(30) up into smaller sleep bits, in case a signal doesn't interrupt a sleep() command, thinking that this would cause at most a one-second delay, but in the log file, I'm seeing that the SIGUSR1 isn't being caught until after the full 30 seconds has passed (and maybe the outer while loop resets). I found the pcntl_signal_dispatch command, but that's only for PHP 5.3 and higher. If I were using that version, I could stick a call to that command before the if ($_isAwake) call, but as it currently stands I'm on 5.2.13. On what sort of situations is the signals queue interpreted in PHP versions without the means to explicitly call the queue parsing? Could I put in some other useless command in that sleep loop that would trigger a signal queue parse within there?

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  • WPF: Animation Only Runs Once

    - by Phil Sandler
    Very basic (I think) animation question. My animation only runs the first time "MyProp" gets set to false. If it gets set a second time, the animation doesn't run. I know my data trigger is getting hit, as the sound DOES play. The effect I want is for the animation to run, then reset the target property back to what it was before the animation occurred (thus the FillBehavior=Stop). Do I need to reset the animation after it plays? <DataTrigger Binding="{Binding MyProp}" Value="False"> <DataTrigger.EnterActions> <SoundPlayerAction Source="/Resources/Sounds/Ding.wav"/> <BeginStoryboard> <Storyboard BeginTime="00:00:00" Duration="0:0:2" Storyboard.TargetProperty="(Background).(SolidColorBrush.Color)"> <ColorAnimation FillBehavior="Stop" From="Black" To="Red" Duration="0:0:0.5" AutoReverse="True"/> </Storyboard> </BeginStoryboard> </DataTrigger.EnterActions> </DataTrigger>

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  • Handling mach exceptions in 64bit OS X application

    - by Brad S
    I have been able to register my own mach port to capture mach exceptions in my applications and it works beautifully when I target 32 bit. However when I target 64 bit, my exception handler catch_exception_raise() gets called but the array of exception codes that is passed to the handler are 32 bits wide. This is expected in a 32 bit build but not in 64 bit. In the case where I catch EXC_BAD_ACCESS the first code is the error number and the second code should be the address of the fault. Since the second code is 32 bits wide the high 32 bits of the 64 bit fault address is truncated. I found a flag in <mach/exception_types.h> I can pass in task_set_exception_ports() called MACH_EXCEPTION_CODES which from looking at the Darwin sources appears to control the size of the codes passed to the handler. It looks like it is meant to be ored with the behavior passed in to task_set_exception_ports(). However when I do this and trigger an exception, my mach port gets notified, I call exc_server() but my handler never gets called, and when the reply message is sent back to the kernel I get the default exception behavior. I am targeting the 10.6 SDK. I really wish apple would document this stuff better. Any one have any ideas?

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  • ASP.NET page content doesn't change

    - by WtFudgE
    Hi, I created an application which has a menu where it's items are created dynamicly. The menu acts as a language menu. <body runat="server"> <form id="Form1" runat="server"> <table class="TableLayout"> <tr> <td class="TopNav" align="right"> <asp:Menu runat="server" ID="LanguageMenu" Orientation="Horizontal" OnMenuItemClick="LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick"> <LevelMenuItemStyles> <asp:MenuItemStyle CssClass="TopNavItem" /> </LevelMenuItemStyles> <StaticHoverStyle CssClass="TopNavItemHover" /> </asp:Menu> </td> </tr> ... I use session variables to set my current language. however if I click on the menu to change the session variable: public void LanguageMenu_MenuItemClick(Object sender, MenuEventArgs e) { Session["language"] = e.Item.Text; } The page reloads with the following code: sportsPath = String.Format(@"{0}{1}\Sports\", xmlPath, Session["language"]); //create LeftNavigation string[] sports = Directory.GetFiles(sportsPath); LeftNavigation.Items.Clear(); foreach (string sport in sports) { string text = sport.Replace(sportsPath, "").Replace(".xml", ""); MenuItem item = new MenuItem(); item.Text = text; LeftNavigation.Items.Add(item); } The thing is the content doesn't change, only after I click on something else. If I skip through my code after clicking on the menuItem I can see that it passes the code and it should change, however for some reason the page needs another extra trigger to modify it's content. I also see the page reloading so I don't understand why it's not changing immediatly. I guess I'm not understanding the asp.net logic just quite yet. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Uploading image with AsynFileUpload(ACT Control) and changing Image Url of an Image Control??

    - by mahdiahmadirad
    Hi! I Used AsyncFileUpload(one of Ajac Control Toolkit Controls) to Uploading User's Image. this works well. But i want to change the image url of an image contorl to uploaded image url. how can i perform that? I put Image control in a Update Panel: <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanelNew" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:Image ID="Image1" ImageUrl="~/Images/Categories/NoCategory.png" runat="server" /> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:AsyncFileUpload OnClientUploadError="uploadError" OnClientUploadComplete="uploadComplete" runat="server" ID="AsyncFileUpload1" UploadingBackColor="#CCFFFF" ThrobberID="myThrobber" /> &nbsp; <asp:Label ID="myThrobber" runat="server" Style="display: none;"> <img align="middle" alt="Working..." src="../../Images/App/uploading.gif" /> </asp:Label> in C# code I wrote these: protected void Page_Init() { AsyncFileUpload1.UploadedComplete += new EventHandler<AsyncFileUploadEventArgs>(AsyncFileUpload1_UploadedComplete); } void AsyncFileUpload1_UploadedComplete(object sender, AsyncFileUploadEventArgs e) { ScriptManager.RegisterStartupScript(this, this.GetType(), "size", "top.$get(\"" + uploadResult.ClientID + "\").innerHTML = 'Uploaded size: " + AsyncFileUpload1.FileBytes.Length.ToString() + "';", true); string savePath = MapPath("~/Images/Categories/" + Path.GetFileName(e.filename)); ImageOperations.ResizeFromStream(savePath, 128, AsyncFileUpload1.FileContent); Image1.ImageUrl = "~/Images/Categories/" + AsyncFileUpload1.FileName; //AsyncFileUpload1.SaveAs(savePath); } But it does not work. can you help me? Note that ImageOperations.ResizeFromStream() method resizes and saves the image to a specefic folder. actually I should trigger a Postback to Update the Update Panel but How to do that. I used UpdatePanelNew.Update(); but it does not work!

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  • simpletest - Why does setReturnValue() seem to change behaviour depending on if test is run in isola

    - by JW
    I am using SimpleTest version 1.0.1 for a unit test. I create a new mock object within a test method and on it i do: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValue('query',1); Now, when i run this in a standalone unit test my tested object is happy to see 1 returned when query() is called on the mock db adaptor. However, when this exact same test is run as part of my 'all_tests' TestSuite, the test is failing. This happens because a call to the mock's query() method does not appear to return any value - thus causing my test subject to complain and trigger an unexpected exception that fails the test. So, the behaviour of setReturnValue() seems to change depending on whether the test is run in isolation or not. I can get it to work in both a standalone and TestSuite contexts by using this instead: $MockDbAdaptor->setReturnValueAt(0,'query',1); So my immediate problem can be fixed ...but it feels like a hack. I thought if i create a new mock within a test method then why is the setReturnValue() behaviour getting affected by the context in which the test class instance is run? It feel like a bug.

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  • Using UpdatePanels inside of a ListView

    - by Jim B
    Hey everyone, I'm wondering if anybody has run across something similar to this before. Some quick pseudo-code to get started: <UpdatePanel> <ContentTemplate> <ListView> <LayoutTemplate> <UpdatePanel> <ContentTemplate> <ItemPlaceholder /> </ContentTemplate> </UpdatePanel> </LayoutTemplate> <ItemTemplate> Some stuff goes here </ItemTemplate> </ListView> </ContentTemplate> </UpdatePanel> The main thing to take away from the above is that I have an update panel which contains a listview; and then each of the listview items is contained in its own update panel. What I'm trying to do is when one of the ListView update panels triggers a postback, I'd want to also update one of the other ListView item update panels. A practical implementation would be a quick survey, that has 3 questions. We'd only ask Question #3 if the user answered "Yes" to Question #1. When the page loads; it hides Q3 because it doesn't see "Yes" for Q1. When the user clicks "Yes" to Q1, I want to refresh the Q3 update panel so it now displays. I've got it working now by refreshing the outer UpdatePanel on postback, but this seems inefficient because I don't need to re-evaluate every item; just the ones that would be affected by the prerequisite i detailed out above. I've been grappling with setting up triggers, but i keep coming up empty mainly because I can't figure out a way to set up a trigger for the updatepanel for Q3 based off of the postback triggered by Q1. Any suggestions out there? Am I barking up the wrong tree?

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  • How to resize a Flot graph when its containing div changes size

    - by Will Gorman
    I'm using the Flot graphing library jQuery plugin and I haven't found a good way to handle resizing the graph when it's containing <div> changes size (for example, due to window resizing). When handling the onresize event, I've made sure that the width and height of the containing <div>are updated to the correct size and then tried calling both setupGrid and draw on the plot object but with no effect. I've had some success with the approach of just removing and readding the containing <div> and replotting the graph in it. However, this seems to be prone to getting stuck in infinite resize event loops if I have to add other <div> elements to the document at the same time (like for tooltips for the graph) as I'm guessing those can trigger resize events as well? Is there a good way to handle it that I'm missing? (I'm also using ExplorerCanvas for IE in order to be able to use Flot, if that might have anything to do with it. I haven't really tried in any other browsers yet)

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  • Making an AJAX WCF Web Service request during an Async Postback

    - by nekno
    I want to provide status updates during a long-running task on an ASP.NET WebForms page with AJAX. Is there a way to get the ScriptManager to execute and process a script for a web service request during an async postback? I have a script on the page that makes a web service request. It runs on page load and periodically using setInterval(). It's running correctly before the async postback is initiated, but it stops running during the async postback, and doesn't run again until after the async postback completes. I have an UpdatePanel with a button to trigger an async postback, which executes the long-running task. I also have an instance of an AJAX WCF Web service that is working correctly to fetch data and present it on the page but, like I said, it doesn't fetch and present the data until after the async postback completes. During the async postback, the long-running task sends updates from the page to the web service. The problem is that I can debug and step through the web service and see that the status updates are correctly set, but the updates aren't retrieved by the client script until the async postback completes. It seems the Script Manager is busy executing the async postback, so it doesn't run my other JavaScript via setInterval() until the postback completes. Is there a way to get the Script Manager, or otherwise, to run the script to fetch data from the WCF web service during the async postback? I've tried various methods of using the PageRequestManager to run the script on the client-side BeginRequest event for the async postback, but it runs the script, then stops processing the code that should be running via setInterval() while the page request executes.

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  • CATiledLayer blanking tiles before drawing contents

    - by Greg Plesur
    All, I'm having trouble getting behavior that I want from CATiledLayer. Is there a way that I can trigger the tiles to redraw without having the side-effect that their areas are cleared to white first? I've already subclassed CATiledLayer to set fadeDuration to return 0. To be more specific, here are the details of what I'm seeing and what I'm trying to achieve: I have a UIScrollView with a big content size...~12000x800. Its content view is a UIView backed by a CATiledLayer. The UIView is rendered with a lot of custom-drawn lines Everything works fine, but the contents of the UIView sometimes change. When that happens, I'd like to redraw the tiles as seamlessly as possible. When I use setNeedsDisplay on the view, the tiles redraw but they are first cleared to white and there's a fraction-of-a-second delay before the new content is drawn. I've already subclassed CATiledLayer so that fadeDuration is set to 0. The behavior that I want seems like it should be possible...when you zoom in on the scrollview and the content gets redrawn at a higher resolution, there's no blanking before the redraw; the new content is drawn right on top of the old one. That's what I'm looking for. Thanks; I appreciate your ideas. Update: Just to follow up - I realized that the tiles weren't being cleared to white before the redraw, they're being taken out entirely; the white that I was seeing is the color of the view that's beneath my CATiledLayer-backed view. As a quick hack/fix, I put a UIImageView beneath the UIScrollView, and before triggering a redraw of the CATiledLayer-backed view I render its visible section into the UIImageView and let it show. This smooths out the redraw significantly. If anyone has a better solution, like keeping the redraw-targeted tiles from going away before being redrawn in the first place, I'd still love to hear it.

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  • Limit the number of rows returned on the server side (forced limit)

    - by evolve
    So we have a piece of software which has a poorly written SQL statement which is causing every row from a table to be returned. There are several million rows in the table so this is causing serious memory issues and crashes on our clients machine. The vendor is in the process of creating a patch for the issue, however it is still a few weeks out. In the mean time we were attempting to figure out a method of limiting the number of results returned on the server side just as a temporary fix. I have no real hope of there being a solution, I've looked around and don't really see any ways of doing this, however I'm hoping someone might have an idea. Thank you in advance. EDIT I forgot an important piece of information, we have no access to the source code so we can not change this on the client side where the SQL statement is formed. There is no real server side component, the client just accesses the database directly. Any solution would basically require a procedure, trigger, or some sort of SQL-Server 2008 setting/command.

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  • Making a concurrent AJAX WCF Web Service request during an Async Postback

    - by nekno
    I want to provide status updates during a long-running task on an ASP.NET WebForms page with AJAX. Is there a way to get the ScriptManager to execute and process a script for a web service request concurrently with an async postback? I have a script on the page that makes a web service request. It runs on page load and periodically using setInterval(). It's running correctly before the async postback is initiated, but it stops running during the async postback, and doesn't run again until after the async postback completes. I have an UpdatePanel with a button to trigger an async postback, which executes the long-running task. I also have an instance of an AJAX WCF Web service that is working correctly to fetch data and present it on the page but, like I said, it doesn't fetch and present the data until after the async postback completes. During the async postback, the long-running task sends updates from the page to the web service. The problem is that I can debug and step through the web service and see that the status updates are correctly set, but the updates aren't retrieved by the client script until the async postback completes. It seems the Script Manager is busy executing the async postback, so it doesn't run my other JavaScript via setInterval() until the postback completes. Is there a way to get the Script Manager, or otherwise, to run the script to fetch data from the WCF web service during the async postback? I've tried various methods of using the PageRequestManager to run the script on the client-side BeginRequest event for the async postback, but it runs the script, then stops processing the code that should be running via setInterval() while the page request executes.

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  • My AJAX is only firing once,

    - by sea_1987
    Hi There, I ahave some ajax that is fired when a checkbox is clicked, it essentially sends a query string to a PHP script and then returns the relevant HTML, however, if I select a select it works fine if I then slect another checkbox as well as the previous I get no activity what so ever, not even any errors in firebug, it is very curious, does anyone have any ideas? //Location AJAX //var dataObject = new Object(); var selected = new Array(); //alert(selected); $('#areas input.radio').change(function(){ // will trigger when the checked status changes var checked = $(this).attr("checked"); // will return "checked" or false I think. // Do whatever request you like with the checked status if(checked == true) { //selected.join('&'); selected = $('input:checked').map(function() { return $(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val(); }).get(); getQuery = selected.join('&')+"&location_submit=Next"; alert(getQuery); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/search/location", data: getQuery, success:function(data){ //alert(getQuery); //console.log(data); $('body.secEmp').html(data); } }); } else { //do something to remove the content here alert($(this).attr('name')); } });

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  • How do I pass data from a BroadcastReceiver through to an Activity being started?

    - by Tom Hume
    I've got an Android application which needs to be woken up sporadically throughout the day. To do this, I'm using the AlarmManager to set up a PendingIntent and have this trigger a BroadcastReceiver. This BroadcastReceiver then starts an Activity to bring the UI to the foreground. All of the above seems to work, in that the Activity launches itself correctly; but I'd like the BroadcastReceiver to notify the Activity that it was started by the alarm (as opposed to being started by the user). To do this I'm trying, from the onReceive() method of the BroadcastReceiver to set a variable in the extras bundle of the intent, thus: Intent i = new Intent(context, MyActivity.class); i.putExtra(wakeupKey, true); i.setFlags(Intent.FLAG_ACTIVITY_NEW_TASK); context.startActivity(i); In the onResume() method of my Activity, I then look for the existence of this boolean variable: protected void onResume() { super.onResume(); String wakeupKey = "blah"; if (getIntent()!=null && getIntent().getExtras()!=null) Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ":" + getIntent().getExtras().getBoolean(wakeupKey)); else Log.d("app", "onResume at " + System.currentTimeMillis() + ": null"); } The getIntent().getExtras() call in onResume() always returns null - I don't seem to be able to pass any extras through at all in this bundle. If I use the same method to bind extras to the PendingIntent which triggers the BroadcastReceiver however, the extras come through just fine. Can anyone tell me what's different about passing a bundle from a BroadcastReceiver to an Activity, as opposed to passing the bundle from an Activity to a BroadcastReceiver? I fear I may be doing something very very obvious wrong here...

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  • FileSystem.GetFiles() + UnauthorizedAccessException error?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello, It seems like FileSystem.GetFiles() is unable to recover from the UnauthorizedAccessException exception that .Net triggers when trying to access an off-limit directory. In this case, does it mean this class/method isn't useful when scanning a whole drive and I should use some other solution (in which case: Which one?)? Here's some code to show the issue: Private Sub bgrLongProcess_DoWork(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles bgrLongProcess.DoWork Dim drive As DriveInfo Dim filelist As Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyCollection(Of String) Dim filepath As String 'Scan all fixed-drives for MyFiles.* For Each drive In DriveInfo.GetDrives() If drive.DriveType = DriveType.Fixed Then Try 'How to handle "Access to the path 'C:\System Volume Information' is denied." error? filelist = My.Computer.FileSystem.GetFiles(drive.ToString, FileIO.SearchOption.SearchAllSubDirectories, "MyFiles.*") For Each filepath In filelist DataGridView1.Rows.Add(filepath.ToString, "temp") 'Trigger ProgressChanged() event bgrLongProcess.ReportProgress(0, filepath) Next filepath Catch Ex As UnauthorizedAccessException 'How to ignore this directory and move on? End Try End If Next drive End Sub Thank you. Edit: What about using a Try/Catch just to have GetFiles() fill the array, ignore the exception and just resume? Private Sub bgrLongProcess_DoWork(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.ComponentModel.DoWorkEventArgs) Handles bgrLongProcess.DoWork 'Do lengthy stuff here Dim filelist As Collections.ObjectModel.ReadOnlyCollection(Of String) Dim filepath As String filelist = Nothing Try filelist = My.Computer.FileSystem.GetFiles("C:\", FileIO.SearchOption.SearchAllSubDirectories, "MyFiles.*") Catch ex As UnauthorizedAccessException 'How to just ignore this off-limit directory and resume searching? End Try 'Object reference not set to an instance of an object For Each filepath In filelist bgrLongProcess.ReportProgress(0, filepath) Next filepath End Sub

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  • Running job in the background from Perl WITHOUT waiting for return

    - by Rafael Almeida
    The Disclaimer First of all, I know this question (or close variations) have been asked a thousand times. I really spent a few hours looking in the obvious and the not-so-obvious places, but there may be something small I'm missing. The Context Let me define the problem more clearly: I'm writing a newsletter app in which I want the actual sending process to be async. As in, user clicks "send", request returns immediately and then they can check the progress in a specific page (via AJAX, for example). It's written in your traditional LAMP stack. In the particular host I'm using, PHP's exec() and system() are disabled for security reasons, but Perl's system functions (exec, system and backticks) aren't. So my workaround solution was to create a "trigger" script in Perl that calls the actual sender via the PHP CLI, and redirects to the progress page. Where I'm Stuck The very line the calls the sender is, as of now: system("php -q sender.php &"); Problem being, it's not returning immediately, but waiting for the script to finish. I want it to run in the background but the system call itself returns right away. I also tried running a similar script in my Linux terminal, and in fact the prompt doesn't show until after the script has finished, even though my test output doesn't run, indicating it's really running in the background. What I already tried Perl's exec() function - same result of system(). Changing the command to: "php -q sender.php | at now"), hoping that the "at" daemon would return and that the PHP process itself wouldn't be attached to Perl. What should I try now?

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  • Did you love the game Mouse Trap as a kid, or something similar? (Programmer Psychology) [closed]

    - by Robert Oschler
    When I was a kid I absolutely fell in love with games that had as a core feature, the need to understand interconnecting structures. My favorite of all time was Mouse Trap. For the younger crowd out there, this was a very cool board game where you built the mouse trap out of the included plastic pieces as you played, with the end goal to trigger the mouse trap. The fully assembled mouse trap was a Rube Goldberg style invention where one operation triggered the next and the next and so on, until the last step dropped a cage on a little plastic mouse. Sometimes when I'm programming and I'm reviewing a particularly complex interaction between components and objects, while tracking the flow path mentally, I say to myself "It's a Mouse Trap!" and I wonder if my early addiction to that game and others like it was portent to my becoming a programmer. Another realization I have sometimes when looking at my code is how daunted I feel at the share complexity involved, followed by a darker comedic amazement at my expectation that it will all come together and work. How about you? Did you find yourself drawn to games that at their heart featured interacting control paths when growing up? Robert.

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  • Rotate a feature Image in Open Layers - ReApply StyleMap to layer.

    - by Ozaki
    I have an open layers map. It adds and removes my "imageFeature" every 10secs or so. I have a JSON feed that gives me the rotation that I need, I have a request to get that rotation and set it as a variable of rotationv. Everything works but the fact when the image is recreated it does not update the rotation. My code is as follows: JSON request: var rotationv = (function () { rotationv = null; $.ajax({ 'async': false, 'global': true, 'url': urldefault, 'dataType': "json", 'success': function (data) { rotationv = data.rotation; } }); return rotationv })(); Creating image feature: imageFeature = new OpenLayers.Feature.Vector( new OpenLayers.Geometry.Point(mylon, mylat), { rotation: rotationv } ); The image is set in the styling elsewhere. Why does this not rotate my image? Debugging with firebug I now notice that "rotationv" is updating as per it should be. But when the point is destroyed then added again it does not apply the new rotation... Add: I realised that the "image" is applied as per the layer. So I need to figure out how to re apply the stylemap to the layer so it will trigger the "update" on the page. //redefine layer 2 so it can be updated - test.js is just a 0.0 ref// var layer2 = new OpenLayers.Layer.GML("Layer 2", "test.js", { format: OpenLayers.Format.GeoJSON, styleMap: styleMap }); But even if I add the above into my function still no luck. Included map.addLayers([layer2]); into the function as well. Edit: Attaching stylemap: var styleMap = new OpenLayers.StyleMap({ "default": new OpenLayers.Style({ rotation: rotationv, labelXOffset: "0", labelYOffset: "-15", graphicZIndex: 1 }) });

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  • Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

    - by rolando
    Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a> <!-- overlayed element --> <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay"> <!-- the external content is loaded inside this tag --> <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

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  • how to handle base tag target attribute in iphone uiwebview to open new window

    - by user217428
    When the links are supposed to open a new window, iphone uiwebview won't trigger an event when user click these links. We had to use javascript to do some trick to the target attribute of the links. I can handle 'a' tag to open in the '_self' window with the trick without problem. But when I do it the same way with the 'base' tag. it doesn't work. I believe the base target is set by the javascript. But the base tag is in the head, which may be handled by the uiwebview before my javascript executed, so the target change may not reflected in the webkit engine. Could someone please give some suggestion, so I can open the link in the same uiwebview? The following is the sample HTML opened in the uiwebview <html> <head> <base target='_blank'> </head> <body> <a href='http://google.ca'>google</a> </body> </html> The following is the code to be executed in the (void) webViewDidFinishLoad: (UIWebView*)webView static NSString* js = @"" "function bkModifyBaseTargets()" "{" "var allBases = window.document.getElementsByTagName('base');" "if (allBases)" "{" "for (var i = 0; i < allBases.length; i++)" "{" "base = allBases[i];" "target = base.getAttribute('target');" "if (target)" "{" "base.setAttribute('target', '_self');" "}" "}" "}" "}"; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: js]; [webView stringByEvaluatingJavaScriptFromString: @"bkModifyBaseTargets()"];

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  • Java: does the EDT restart or not when an exception is thrown?

    - by NoozNooz42
    (the example code below is self-contained and runnable, you can try it, it won't crash your system :) Tom Hawtin commented on the question here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/3018165 that: It's unlikely that the EDT would crash. Unchecked exceptions thrown in EDT dispatch are caught, dumped and the thread goes on. Can someone explain me what is going on here (every time you click on the "throw an unchecked exception" button, a divide by zero is performed, on purpose): import javax.swing.*; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.WindowAdapter; import java.awt.event.WindowEvent; public class CrashEDT extends JFrame { public static void main(String[] args) { final CrashEDT frame = new CrashEDT(); frame.addWindowListener(new WindowAdapter() { public void windowClosing( WindowEvent e) { System.exit(0); } }); final JButton jb = new JButton( "throw an unchecked exception" ); jb.addActionListener( new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed( ActionEvent e ) { System.out.println( "Thread ID:" + Thread.currentThread().getId() ); System.out.println( 0 / Math.abs(0) ); } } ); frame.add( jb ); frame.setSize(300, 150); frame.setVisible(true); } } I get the following message (which is what I'd expect): Exception in thread "AWT-EventQueue-0" java.lang.ArithmeticException: / by zero and to me this is an unchecked exception right? You can see that the thread ID is getting incremented every time you trigger the crash. So is the EDT automatically restarted every time an unchecked exception is thrown or are unchecked exceptions "caught, dumped and the thread goes on" like Tom Hawtin commented? What is going on here?

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