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  • How to use boost::fusion::transform on heterogeneous containers?

    - by Kyle
    Boost.org's example given for fusion::transform is as follows: struct triple { typedef int result_type; int operator()(int t) const { return t * 3; }; }; // ... assert(transform(make_vector(1,2,3), triple()) == make_vector(3,6,9)); Yet I'm not "getting it." The vector in their example contains elements all of the same type, but a major point of using fusion is containers of heterogeneous types. What if they had used make_vector(1, 'a', "howdy") instead? int operator()(int t) would need to become template<typename T> T& operator()(T& const t) But how would I write the result_type? template<typename T> typedef T& result_type certainly isn't valid syntax, and it wouldn't make sense even if it was, because it's not tied to the function.

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  • Folder permission and submit button

    - by bob
    I want to create a simple installation script. Below are simple code. <ul> <?php function check_perms($path,$perm) { clearstatcache(); $configmod = substr(sprintf('%o', fileperms($path)), -4); $css = (($configmod != $perm) ? " class='error r2'" : " class='none'"); echo "<li".$css.">\n"; echo '<span style="float:left; padding-right:20px;">'.$path.'</span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; width:100px; text-align:right;"> <strong>'.$perm.'</strong></span>'; echo '<span style="float:right; padding-right:100px;"><strong>'.$configmod.'</strong></span>'; echo '<div class="clear"></div>'; echo "</li>"; } check_perms("config.php","0777"); check_perms("themes","0777"); check_perms("themes/images","0777"); check_perms("useruploads","0777"); ?> </ul> How to make if all file and folder is valid permission to 777 will appear Submit button. <input type='submit' name='submit' value='Submit' /> If there still have incorrect permission do not show the Submit button Let me know.

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  • Semi-generic function

    - by Fredrik Ullner
    I have a bunch of overloaded functions that operate on certain data types such as int, double and strings. Most of these functions perform the same action, where only a specific set of data types are allowed. That means I cannot create a simple generic template function as I lose type safety (and potentially incurring a run-time problem for validation within the function). Is it possible to create a "semi-generic compile time type safe function"? If so, how? If not, is this something that will come up in C++0x? An (non-valid) idea; template <typename T, restrict: int, std::string > void foo(T bar); ... foo((int)0); // OK foo((std::string)"foobar"); // OK foo((double)0.0); // Compile Error Note: I realize I could create a class that has overloaded constructors and assignment operators and pass a variable of that class instead to the function.

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  • Handling Corrupted JPEGs in C#

    - by ddango
    We have a process that pulls images from a remote server. Most of the time, we're good to go, the images are valid, we don't timeout, etc. However, every once and awhile we see this error similar to this: Unhandled Exception: System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+. at System.Drawing.Image.Save(Stream stream, ImageCodecInfo encoder, EncoderPa rameters encoderParams) at ConsoleApplication1.Program.Main(String[] args) in C:\images\ConsoleApplic ation1\ConsoleApplication1\Program.cs:line 24 After not being able to reproduce it locally, we looked closer at the image, and realized that there were artifacts, making us suspect corruption. Created an ugly little unit test with only the image in question, and was unable to reproduce the error on Windows 7 as was expected. But after running our unit test on Windows Server 2008, we see this error every time. Is there a way to specify non-strictness for jpegs when writing them? Some sort of check/fix we can use? Unit test snippet: var r = ReadFile("C:\\images\\ConsoleApplication1\\test.jpg"); using (var imgStream = new MemoryStream(r)) { using (var ms = new MemoryStream()) { var guid = Guid.NewGuid(); var fileName = "C:\\images\\ConsoleApplication1\\t" + guid + ".jpg"; Image.FromStream(imgStream).Save(ms, ImageFormat.Jpeg); using (FileStream fs = File.Create(fileName)) { fs.Write(ms.GetBuffer(), 0, ms.GetBuffer().Length); } } }

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  • Spring 3 MVC validation BindingResult doesn't contain any errors

    - by Travelsized
    I'm attempting to get a Spring 3.0.2 WebMVC project running with the new annotated validation support. I have a Hibernate entity annotated like this: @Entity @Table(name = "client") public class Client implements Serializable { private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; @Id @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "clientId", nullable = false) @NotEmpty private Integer clientId; @Basic(optional = false) @Column(name = "firstname", nullable = false, length = 45) @NotEmpty @Size(min=2, max=45) private String firstname; ... more fields, getters and setters } I've turned on mvc annotation support in my applicationContext.xml file: <mvc:annotation-driven /> And I have a method in my controller that responds to a form submission: @RequestMapping(value="/addClient.htm") public String addClient(@ModelAttribute("client") @Valid Client client, BindingResult result) { if(result.hasErrors()) { return "addClient"; } service.storeClient(client); return "clientResult"; } When my app loads in the server, I can see in the server log file that it loads a validator: 15 [http-8084-2] INFO org.hibernate.validator.util.Version - Hibernate Validator 4.0.2.GA The problem I'm having is that the validator doesn't seem to kick in. I turned on the debugger, and when I get into the controller method, the BindingResult contains 0 errors after I submit an empty form. (The BindingResult does show that it contains the Client object as a target.) It then proceeds to insert a record without an Id and throws an exception. If I fill out an Id but leave the name blank, it creates a record with the Id and empty fields. What steps am I missing to get the validation working?

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  • Process xml-like log file queue

    - by Zsolt Botykai
    Hi all, first of all: I'm not a programmer, never was, although had learn a lot during my professional carreer as a support consultant. Now my task is to process - and create some statistics about a constantly written and rapidly growing XML like log file. It's not valid XML, because it does not have a proper <root> element, e.g. the log looks like this: <log itemdate="somedate"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+1"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> <log itemdate="somedate+n"> <field id="0" /> ... </log> E.g. I have to count all the items with field id=0. But most of the solutions I had found (e.g. using XPath) reports an error about the garbage after the first closing </log>. Most probably I can use python (2.6, although I can compile 3.x as well), or some really old perl version (5.6.x), and recently compiled xmlstarlet which really looks promising - I was able to create the statistics for a certain period after copying the file, and pre- & appending the opening and closing root element. But this is a huge file and copying takes time as well. Isn't there a better solution? Thanks in advance!

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  • Does not contain a definition

    - by JB
    public void button2_Click(object sender, System.EventArgs e) { string text = textBox1.Text; Mainform = this; this.Hide(); GetSchedule myScheduleFinder = new GetSchedule(); string result = myScheduleFinder.GetDataFromNumber(text);// says there is no definition if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(result)) { MessageBox.Show(result); } else { MessageBox.Show("Enter A Valid ID Number!"); } } says it does not contain definition for it but on my GetSchedule .cs file i have it defined public string GetDataFromNumber(string ID)//defined here { foreach (IDnumber IDCandidateMatch in IDnumbers) { if (IDCandidateMatch.ID == ID) { StringBuilder myData = new StringBuilder(); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.Name); myData.AppendLine(": "); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.ID); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.year); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class1); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class2); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class3); myData.AppendLine(IDCandidateMatch.class4); //return myData; return myData.ToString(); } } return ""; } } } }

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  • PHP: json_decode dumping NULL, BOM not found

    - by SerEnder
    I've been trying to find out why this 'json_encode'd string isn't parsing out correctly, and came across previously answered questions that had the UTF BOM sequence that was throwing the error, but didn't help me here. Here's the code that isn't currently working: //Decode the notes attached to the sig $aNotes = json_decode($rule->getNotes(),true); $bom = pack("CCC",0xef,0xbb,0xbf); if(0 == strncmp($rule->getNotes(),$bom,3)) { print('BOM detected - json encoding in UTF-8<br/>'); } else { print('BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly<br/>'); } print('rule->getNotes:<br/>' . $rule->getNotes() .'<br/>'); var_dump($aNotes); Which generates this result: BOM NOT detected - json encoding correctly rule->getNotes: [{"lDate":"Unknown","sAuthor":"Unknown","sNote":"This is a general purpose Russian spam rule that matches anything starting with 2, 3 or 4 hex digits followed by a domain name ending with .ru -RSK 2010-05-10"},{"lDate":"1295031463082","sAuthor":"Drew Thorstenson","sNote":"this is Ryan's ru rule"}] NULL I've run it through JSON Lint, which said it was valid, and An Online JSON Parser which parsed it correctly too. Any insight would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Calling into a saved java object via JNI from a different thread

    - by Drake Amara
    I have a java object which calls into a C++ shared object via JNI. In C++, I am saving a reference to the JNIEnv and jObject. JavaVM * jvm; JNIEnv * myEnv; jobject myobj; JNIEXPORT void JNICALL Java_org_api_init (JNIEnv *env, jobject jObj) { myEnv = env; myobj = jObj; } I also have a GLSurface renderer and it eventually calls the C++ shared object mentioned above on a different thread, the GLThread. I am then trying to call back into my original Java object using the jobject I saved initially, but I think because I am on the GLThread, I get the following error. W/dalvikvm(16101): JNI WARNING: 0x41ded218 is not a valid JNI reference I/dalvikvm(16101): "GLThread 981" prio=5 tid=15 RUNNABLE I/dalvikvm(16101): | group="main" sCount=0 dsCount=0 obj=0x41d6e220 self=0x5cb11078 I/dalvikvm(16101): | sysTid=16133 nice=0 sched=0/0 cgrp=apps handle=1555429136 I/dalvikvm(16101): | schedstat=( 0 0 0 ) utm=42 stm=32 core=1 The code calling back into Java : void setData() { jvm->AttachCurrentThread(&myEnv, 0); jclass javaClass = myEnv->FindClass("com/myapp/myClass"); if(javaClass == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant find class"); } jmethodID method = myEnv->GetMethodID(javaClass, "updateDataModel", "()V"); if(method == NULL){ LOGD("ERROR - cant access method"); } // this works, but its a new java object //jobject myobj2 = myEnv->NewObject(javaClass, method); //this is where the crash occurs myEnv->CallVoidMethod(myobj, method, NULL); } If instead I create a new jObject using env-NewObject, I can succuessfully call back into Java, but it is a new object and I dont want that. I need to get back to my original Java Object. Is it a matter of switching threads before I call back into Java? If so, how do I do so ?

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  • Initialize listitem with blanks?

    - by VBartilucci
    Say I have a list made up of a listitem which contains three strings. I add a new listitem, and try to assign the values of said strings from an outside source. If one of those items is unassigned, the value in the listitem remains as null (unassigned). As a result I get an error if I try to assign that value to a field on my page. I can do a check on isNullOrEmpty for each field on the page, but that seems inefficient. I'd rather initialize the values to "" (Empty string) in the codebehind and send valid data. I can do it manually: ClaimPwk emptyNode = new ClaimPwk(); emptyNode.cdeAttachmentControl = ""; emptyNode.cdeRptTransmission = ""; emptyNode.cdeRptType = ""; headerKeys.Add(emptyNode); But I have some BIG list items, and writing that for those will get tedious. So is there a command, or just plain an easier way to initialize a listitem to empty string as opposed to null? Or has anyone got a better idea?

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  • ignoring elements order in xml validation against xsd

    - by segolas
    Hi, Ia processing an email and saving some header inside a xml document. I also need to validate the document against a xml schema. As the subject suggest, I need to validate ignoring the elements order but, as far as I read this seems to be impossible. Am I correct? If I put the headers in a<xsd:sequence>, the order obviously matter. If I us the order is ignored but for some strange reason this imply that the elements must occur at least once. My xml is something like this: <headers> <subject>bla bla bla</subject> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> <recipient>rcp02domain.com</recipient> <recipient>[email protected]</recipient> </headers> but I think the final document is valid even if subject and recipient elements are swapped. There is really nothing to do?

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  • Is Google Mock a good mocking framework ?

    - by des4maisons
    I am pioneering unit testing efforts at my company, and need need to choose a mocking framework to use. I have never used a mocking framework before. We have already chosen Google Test, so using Google Mock would be nice. However, my initial impressions after looking at Google Mock's tutorial are: The need for re-declaring each method in the mocking class with a MOCK_METHODn macro seems unnecessary and seems to go against the DRY principle. Their matchers (eg, the '_' in EXPECT_CALL(turtle, Forward(_));) and the order of matching seem almost too powerful. Like, it would be easy to say something you don't mean, and miss bugs that way. I have high confidence in google's developers, and low confidence in my own ability to judge mocking frameworks, never having used them before. So my question is: Are these valid concerns? Or is there no better way to define a mock object, and are the matchers intuitive to use in practice? I would appreciate answers from anyone who has used Google Mock before, and comparisons to other C++ frameworks would be helpful.

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  • DNS protocol message example

    - by virtual-lab
    hello there, I am trying to figure out how to send out DNS messages from an application socket adapter to a DNSBL. I spent the last two days understanding the basics, including experimenting with WireShark to catch an example of message exchanged. Now I would like to query the DNS without using dig or host command (I'm using Ubuntu); how can I perform this action at low level, without the help of these tools in wrapping the request in a proper DNS message format? How the message should be post it? Hex or String? Thanks in advance for any help. Regards Alessandro Ilardo Comment added I am investigating on JDev and Oracle SOA. The platform provides a Socket Adapter which simply apply a transformation (XSLT) and send the message straight to the socket. How the payload parameters (ex. the host I'm looking up) are wrapped within the message is left to the developer. So basically I have an idea on how the all DNS message is structured, but rather than put everything on JDev stright away I'd like to make some tests on my own just to make sure I got a valid message format. So, I am not using any specific language (I don't even understand why they moved my question from serverfault) and I don't want to use any tools which would hide part of the message, such as the header. I know they work well btw. I guess this stuff has something to do with packet injection. Someone suggested me to use telnet, but I've only used for SMTP or HTTP, I haven't got a clue on how it works for DNS request. Does it make more sense now?

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  • MySQL SELECT Statement not working when executed from PHP

    - by Andrew K
    Hello all, I have the following piece of code, executing a pretty simple MySQL query: $netnestquery = 'SELECT (`nested`+1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<='.$adaddr.' AND `subnet`<='.$postmask.' AND `type`="net" AND `addr` NOT IN(SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<'.$adaddr.' AND `type`="broadcast") ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1'; $netnestresults = mysql_query($netnestquery); $netnestrow = mysql_fetch_array($netnestresults); $nestlvl = $netnestrow['nest']; echo '<br> NESTQ: '.$netnestquery; Now, when I execute this in PHP, I get no results; an empty query. However, when I copy and paste the query echoed by my code (for debug purposes) into the mysql command line, I get a valid result: mysql> SELECT (`nested` + 1) AS `nest` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `id`<=50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `subnet`<=36 AND `type`='net' AND `addr` NOT IN (SELECT `id` FROM `ipspace6` WHERE `addr`<50552019054038629283648959286463168512 AND `type`='broadcast') ORDER BY `id`,`subnet` DESC LIMIT 1; +------+ | nest | +------+ | 1 | +------+ 1 row in set (0.00 sec) Can anybody tell me what I'm doing wrong? I can't put quotes around my variables, as then MySQL will try to evaluate the variable as a string, when it is, in fact, a very large decimal. I think I might just be making a stupid mistake somewhere, but I can't tell where.

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  • XSD: Different sub-elements depending on attribute/element value

    - by AndiDog
    Another XSD question - how can I achieve that the following XML elements are both valid: <some-element> <type>1</type> <a>...</a> </some-element> <some-element> <type>2</type> <b>...</b> </some-element> The sub-elements (either <a> or <b>) should depend on the content of <type> (could also be an attribute). It would be so simple in RelaxNG - but RelaxNG doesn't support key integrity :( Is there a way to implement this in XSD? Note: XML schema version 1.1 supports <xs:alternative>, which might be a solution, but afaik no reference implementation (e.g. libxml2) supports this yet. So I'm searching for workarounds. The only way I've come up with is: <type>1</type> <some-element type="1"> <!-- simple <xs:choice> between <a> and <b> goes here --> <a>...</a> </some-element> <!-- and now create a keyref between <type> and @type -->

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  • How can I restore the "auto" values with for list-style-type in nested unordered lists with CSS?

    - by Michael
    By default, an unstyled set of nested <ul> lists looks like this (in Chrome, Firefox, and IE at least): The top level has a list-style-type of disc, the next level is circle, and subsequent levels are square. If I include a stylesheet that changes the list-style-type to none, is there a simple way to revert back to the "automatic bullet types" later in the document? (e.g., override with a subsequent CSS definition or JavaScript style change) Basically, I'm looking for something like list-style-type: auto; (which is apparently not valid and has no effect): <style type="text/css"> ul { list-style-type: none; } ul { list-style-type: auto; } /* Does not work */ </style> Setting the list-style-type back to disc changes every bullet in the list and I no longer see different bullets at different levels, so that doesn't work either. Is the only way to accomplish this by explicitly defining styles for every level? e.g.: <style type="text/css"> ul { list-style-type: disc; } ul ul { list-style-type: circle; } ul ul ul { list-style-type: square; } </style>

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  • How to transform a production to LL(1) grammar for a list separated by a semicolon?

    - by Subb
    Hi, I'm reading this introductory book on parsing (which is pretty good btw) and one of the exercice is to "build a parser for your favorite language." Since I don't want to die today, I thought I could do a parser for something relatively simple, ie a simplified CSS. Note: This book teach you how to right a LL(1) parser using the recursive-descent algorithm. So, as a sub-exercice, I am building the grammar from what I know of CSS. But I'm stuck on a production that I can't transform in LL(1) : //EBNF block = "{", declaration, {";", declaration}, [";"], "}" //BNF <block> =:: "{" <declaration> "}" <declaration> =:: <single-declaration> <opt-end> | <single-declaration> ";" <declaration> <opt-end> =:: "" | ";" This describe a CSS block. Valid block can have the form : { property : value } { property : value; } { property : value; property : value } { property : value; property : value; } ... The problem is with the optional ";" at the end, because it overlap with the starting character of {";", declaration}, so when my parser meet a semicolon in this context, it doesn't know what to do. The book talk about this problem, but in its example, the semicolon is obligatory, so the rule can be modified like this : block = "{", declaration, ";", {declaration, ";"}, "}" So, Is it possible to achieve what I'm trying to do using a LL(1) parser?

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  • How do I DRY up business logic between sever-side Ruby and client-side Javascript?

    - by James A. Rosen
    I have a Widget model with inheritance (I'm using Single-Table Inheritance, but it's equally valid for Class-per-Table). Some of the subclasses require a particular field; others do not. class Widget < ActiveRecord ALL_WIDGET_TYPES = [FooWidget, BarWidget, BazWidget] end class FooWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end class BarWidget < Widget # no color field end class BazWidget < Widget validates_presence_of :color end I'm building a "New Widget" form (app/views/widgets/new.html.erb) and would like to dynamically show/hide the color field based on a <select> for widget_type. <% form_for @widget do |f| %> <%= f.select :type, Widget::ALL_WIDGET_TYPES %> <div class='hiddenUnlessWidgetTypeIsFooOrBaz'> <%= f.label :color %> <%= f.text_field :color %> </div> <% end %> I can easily write some jQuery to watch for onChange events on widget_type, but that would mean putting some sort of WidgetTypesThatRequireColor constant in my Javascript. Easy enough to do manually, but it is likely to get disconnected from the Widget model classes. I would prefer not to output Javascript directly in my view, though I have considered using content_for(:js) and have a yield :js in my template footer. Any better ideas?

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  • ASP.NET - What is the best way to block the application usage?

    - by Tufo
    Our clients must pay a monthly Fee... if they don't, what is the best way to block the asp.net software usage? Note: The application runs on the client own server, its not a SaaS app... My ideas are: Idea: Host a Web Service on the internet that the application will use to know if the client can use the software. Issue 1 - What happen if the client internet fails? Or the data center fails? Possible Answer: Make each web service access to send a key that is valid for 7 or 15 days, so each web service consult will enable the software to run more 7 or 15 days, this way the application will only be locked after 7 or 15 days without consulting our web servicee. Issue 2 - And if the client don't have or don't want to enable internet access to the application? Idea 2: Send a key monthly to the client. Issue - How to make a offline key? Possible Answer: Generate a Hash using the "limit" date, so each login try on software will compare the today hash with the key? Issue 2 - Where to store the key? Possible Answer: Database (not good, too easy to change), text file, registry, code file, assembly... Any opinion will be very appreciated!

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  • Why is PHP discriminating between .php and .abc extensions for caching?

    - by Sam
    There seems to be a problem between how PHP engine handles identical files that differ only in their file extension. Problem: "An If-Modified-Since conditional request returned the full content unchanged." Also, I measured that the .php extension loads much faster than identitcal twin with .xxx extension even though the file contents are identical, and they differ only in their file extension. "HTTP allows clients to make conditional requests to see if a copy that they hold is still valid. Since this response has a Last-Modified header, clients should be able to use an If-Modified-Since request header for validation. RED has done this and found that the resource sends a full response even though it hadn't changed, indicating that it doesn't support Last-Modified validation." homepage ending with .php exact same file, but ending .ast Given: A home.php file is copied as home.xxx and this extension is added to htaccess to recognize it as a PHP file. The .php file listen to the php.ini where freshness is set to 3 hrs, the non .php files have to listen to htaccess where freshness is set to 2 hrs according to: AddType application/x-httpd-php .php .ast .abc .xxx .etc <IfModule mod_headers.c> ExpiresActive On ExpiresDefault M2419200 Header unset ETag FileETag None Header unset Pragma Header set Cache-Control "max-age=2419200" ##### DYNAMIC PAGES <FilesMatch "\\.(ast|php|abc|xxx)$"> ExpiresDefault M7200 Header set Cache-Control "public, max-age=7200" </FilesMatch> </IfModule> So far so good and everything loads, except, the non-php file doesn't cache properly, or it does cache well but doesn't validate well, to be more specific. See images enclosed. Only the non-php file extension causes the error and loads slower. The entire page.php loads faster as somehow all the elements in there then load properly from cache, while the page.abc has the full request returned while it ought to be cached, meaning the entire page is slower. Bottom line: What should be changed, in order eliminate the If-Modified-Since conditional request returning the full content unchanged?

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  • Cookie blocked/not saved in IFRAME in Internet Explorer

    - by Piskvor
    I have two websites, let's say they're example.com and anotherexample.net. On anotherexample.net/page.html, I have an IFRAME SRC="http://example.com/someform.asp". That IFRAME displays a form for the user to fill out and submit to http://example.com/process.asp. When I open the form ("someform.asp") in its own browser window, all works well. However, when I load someform.asp as an IFRAME in IE 6 or IE 7, the cookies for example.com are not saved. In Firefox this problem doesn't appear. For testing purposes, I've created a similar setup on http://newmoon.wz.cz/test/page.php . example.com uses cookie-based sessions (and there's nothing I can do about that), so without cookies, process.asp won't execute. How do I force IE to save those cookies? Results of sniffing the HTTP traffic: on GET /someform.asp response, there's a valid per-session Set-Cookie header (e.g. Set-Cookie: ASPKSJIUIUGF=JKHJUHVGFYTTYFY), but on POST /process.asp request, there is no Cookie header at all. Edit3: some AJAX+serverside scripting is apparently capable to sidestep the problem, but that looks very much like a bug, plus it opens a whole new set of security holes. I don't want my applications to use a combination of bug+security hole just because it's easy. Edit: the P3P policy was the root cause, full explanation below.

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  • Some images fails to load on Windows Server 2008

    - by Guffa
    I have an application running on a Windows Server 2008, that is processing uploaded images. Currently it successfully processes about 8000 images per day, creating 11 different sizes of each image. The problem that I have is that sometimes the application fails to load some images, I get the error "System.Runtime.InteropServices.ExternalException: A generic error occurred in GDI+.". The upload only accepts files with a JPEG extension (jpg/jpeg/jpe) or with a JPEG MIME type, and from what I can tell those images are really JPEG images. If I look at the image file in windows explorer on the server, it can successfully extract the thumbnail from the file, but if I try to open it, I get the error message "This is not a valid bitmap file, or it's format is not currently supported." from Paint. If I copy the image to my own computer, running Windows 7, there is no problem opening the image. It works in Paint, Windows Photo Viewer, Adobe Bridge, and Photoshop. If I try to load the image using Image.FromStream the same way as in the application running on the server, it loads just fine. (I have copied the file back to the server, and it still doesn't work, so there is nothing in the copying process that changes it.) When I look at the image information in Bridge, I see that the images are created using Picasa 3.0, but other than that I can't see anything special about them. I haven't yet found anyone having the same problem, or any known problems like this with the Picasa application. Has anyone had any similar problem, or know if there is something special about images created using Picasa? Is there any image codec that needs installing on the server to handle all kinds of JPEG images?

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  • SQL problem - select accross multiple tables (user groups)

    - by morpheous
    I have a db schema which looks something like this: create table user (id int, name varchar(32)); create table group (id int, name varchar(32)); create table group_member (foobar_id int, user_id int, flag int); I want to write a query that allows me to so the following: Given a valid user id (UID), fetch the ids of all users that are in the same group as the specified user id (UID) AND have group_member.flag=3. Rather than just have the SQL. I want to learn how to think like a Db programmer. As a coder, SQL is my weakest link (since I am far more comfortable with imperative languages than declarative ones) - but I want to change that. Anyway here are the steps I have identified as necessary to break down the task. I would be grateful if some SQL guru can demonstrate the simple SQL statements - i.e. atomic SQL statements, one for each of the identified subtasks below, and then finally, how I can combine those statements to make the ONE statement that implements the required functionality. Here goes (assume specified user_id [UID] = 1): //Subtask #1. Fetch list of all groups of which I am a member Select group.id from user inner join group_member where user.id=group_member.user_id and user.id=1 //Subtask #2 Fetch a list of all members who are members of the groups I am a member of (i.e. groups in subtask #1) Not sure about this ... select user.id from user, group_member gm1, group_member gm2, ... [Stuck] //Subtask #3 Get list of users that satisfy criteria group_member.flag=3 Select user.id from user inner join group_member where user.id=group_member.user_id and user.id=1 and group_member.flag=3 Once I have the SQL for subtask2, I'd then like to see how the complete SQL statement is built from these subtasks (you dont have to use the SQL in the subtask, it just a way of explaining the steps involved - also, my SQL may be incorrect/inefficient, if so, please feel free to correct it, and point out what was wrong with it). Thanks

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  • C# - Bug in Code Logic

    - by Matthew
    I have some code which keeps track of the number of times a button has been clicked. As a matter of fact, when the page first loads, a counter is set to 0. On every postback, the counter is incremented by 1. I have only one button on the page. The main idea behind this is to allow the user to enter some details 4 times. If he enters invalid details for 4 times, he is redirected to an error page. Otherwise, he is redirected to a confirmation page. This is my code: if (!this.IsPostBack) { Session["Count"] = 0; } else { if (Session["Count"] == null) { Session.Abandon(); Response.Redirect("CheckOutErrorPage.htm"); } else { int count = (int)Session["Count"]; if (count == 3) { Session.Abandon(); Response.Redirect("CheckOutFailure.aspx"); } else { count++; Session["Count"] = count; } } } Everything works as it should except that if the user enter invalid details for 3 times and then he enters VALID details on the 4th time, the user is redirected to the Error Page (because he has tried 4 times) instead of the confirmation page. How can I solve this please?

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  • DB Design to store custom fields for a table

    - by Fazal
    Hi All, this question came up based on the responses I got for the question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2785033/getting-wierd-issue-with-to-number-function-in-oracle As everyone suggested that storing Numeric values in VARCHAR2 columns is not a good practice (which I totally agree with), I am wondering about a basic Design choice our team has made and whether there are better way to design. Problem Statement : We Have many tables where we want to give certain number of custom fields. The number of required custom fields is known, but what kind of attribute is mapped to the column is available to the user E.g. I am putting down a hypothetical scenario below Say you have a laptop which stores 50 attribute values for every laptop record. Each laptop attributes are created by the some admin who creates the laptop. A user created a laptop product lets say lap1 with attributes String, String, numeric, numeric, String Second user created laptop lap2 with attributes String,numeric,String,String,numeric Currently there data in our design gets persisted as following Laptop Table Id Name field1 field2 field3 field4 field5 1 lap1 lappy lappy 12 13 lappy 2 lap2 lappy2 13 lappy2 lapp2 12 This example kind of simulates our requirement and our design Now here if somebody is lookinup records for lap2 table doing a comparison on field2, We need to apply TO_NUMBER. select * from laptop where name='lap2' and TO_NUMBER(field2) < 15 TO_NUMBER fails in some cases when query plan decides to first apply to_number instead of the other filter. QUESTION Is this a valid design? What are the other alternative ways to solve this problem One of our team mates suggested creating tables on the fly for such cases. Is that a good idea How do popular ORM tools give custom fields or flex fields handling? I hope I was able to make sense in the question. Sorry for such a long text.. This causes us to use TO_NUMBER when queryio

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