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  • Problem sending email with Codeigniter - Headers sent in the message body

    - by Brian
    Having a strange issue with the email class in codeigniter. When I send email directly to my gmail account email address, it works fine. However if I send email to a different email address and use POP3 to import that email address into gmail, then for some reason all the headers are included in the message. Here's the code for sending the email: $this->email->clear(); $config['mailtype'] = "html"; $this->email->initialize($config); $this->email->set_newline("\r\n"); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'Website'); $this->email->to('[email protected]'); $this->email->message($message); Here's what arrives in my inbox when the email is sent to an account which is imported into gmail via POP3: Date: Fri, 7 Jan 2011 15:07:04 +0000 From: "Website" <[email protected]> Reply-To: "[email protected]" <[email protected]> X-Sender: [email protected] X-Mailer: CodeIgniter X-Priority: 3 (Normal) Message-ID: <[email protected]> Mime-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: multipart/alternative; boundary="B_ALT_4d272c1835c46" This is a multi-part message in MIME format. Your email application may not support this format. --B_ALT_4d272c1835c46 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit this is the email message content --B_ALT_4d272c1835c46 Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: quoted-printable <html> <body> <p>this is the email message content </p> </body> </html> --B_ALT_4d272c1835c46--

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  • can load data(google app enngine) from http://localhost:8100/remote_api ..

    - by zjm1126
    i can download data from gae (http://zjm1126.appspot.com/remote_api), this is code: appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://zjm1126.appspot.com/remote_api --filename=a.csv and it successful : D:\zjm_demo\app>appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://zjm1 126.appspot.com/remote_api --filename=a.csv Downloading data records. [INFO ] Logging to bulkloader-log-20100618.162421 [INFO ] Throttling transfers: [INFO ] Bandwidth: 250000 bytes/second [INFO ] HTTP connections: 8/second [INFO ] Entities inserted/fetched/modified: 20/second [INFO ] Batch Size: 10 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-progress-20100618.162421.sql3 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-results-20100618.162421.sql3 [INFO ] Connecting to zjm1126.appspot.com/remote_api Please enter login credentials for zjm1126.appspot.com Email: [email protected] Password for [email protected]: [INFO ] Downloading kinds: [u'LogText', u'Greeting', u'Forum', u'Thread'] .... [INFO ] Have 0 entities, 0 previously transferred [INFO ] 0 entities (8804 bytes) transferred in 11.3 seconds so i want to know can load data from 127.0.0.1 , this is my code : appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://localhost:8100/remote_api --filename=a.csv and the error is : D:\zjm_demo\app>appcfg.py download_data --application=zjm1126 --url=http://loca lhost:8100/remote_api --filename=a.csv Downloading data records. [INFO ] Logging to bulkloader-log-20100618.162325 [INFO ] Throttling transfers: [INFO ] Bandwidth: 250000 bytes/second [INFO ] HTTP connections: 8/second [INFO ] Entities inserted/fetched/modified: 20/second [INFO ] Batch Size: 10 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-progress-20100618.162325.sql3 [INFO ] Opening database: bulkloader-results-20100618.162325.sql3 Please enter login credentials for localhost Email: [email protected] Password for [email protected]: [INFO ] Connecting to localhost:8100/remote_api [ERROR ] Exception during authentication Traceback (most recent call last): File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\bulkload er.py", line 3169, in Run self.request_manager.Authenticate() File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\bulkload er.py", line 1178, in Authenticate remote_api_stub.MaybeInvokeAuthentication() File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\ext\remote_api \remote_api_stub.py", line 542, in MaybeInvokeAuthentication datastore_stub._server.Send(datastore_stub._path, payload=None) File "d:\Program Files\Google\google_appengine\google\appengine\tools\appengin e_rpc.py", line 346, in Send f = self.opener.open(req) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 387, in open response = meth(req, response) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 498, in http_response 'http', request, response, code, msg, hdrs) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 425, in error return self._call_chain(*args) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 360, in _call_chain result = func(*args) File "D:\Python25\lib\urllib2.py", line 506, in http_error_default raise HTTPError(req.get_full_url(), code, msg, hdrs, fp) HTTPError: HTTP Error 404: Not Found [INFO ] Authentication Failed so what should i do , thanks

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  • Multithreaded IOCP Client Issue

    - by Carl
    I am writing a multithreaded client that uses an IO Completion Port. I create and connect the socket that has the WSA_FLAG_OVERLAPPED attribute set. if ((m_socket = socket(AF_INET, SOCK_STREAM, IPPROTO_TCP)) == INVALID_SOCKET) { throw std::exception("Failed to create socket."); } if (WSAConnectByName(m_socket, L"server.com", L"80", &localAddressLength, reinterpret_cast<sockaddr*>(&localAddress), &remoteAddressLength, &remoteAddress, NULL, NULL) == FALSE) { throw std::exception("Failed to connect."); } I associate the IO Completion Port with the socket. if ((m_hIOCP = CreateIoCompletionPort(reinterpret_cast<HANDLE>(m_socket), m_hIOCP, NULL, 8)) == NULL) { throw std::exception("Failed to create IOCP object."); } All appears to go well until I try to send some data over the socket. SocketData* socketData = new SocketData; socketData->hEvent = 0; DWORD bytesSent = 0; if (WSASend(m_socket, socketData->SetBuffer(socketData->GenerateLoginRequestHeader()), 1, &bytesSent, NULL, reinterpret_cast<OVERLAPPED*>(socketData), NULL) == SOCKET_ERROR && WSAGetLastError() != WSA_IO_PENDING) { throw std::exception("Failed to send data."); } Instead of returning SOCKET_ERROR with the last error set to WSA_IO_PENDING, WSASend returns immediately. I need the IO to pend and for it's completion to be handled in my thread function which is also my worker thread. unsigned int __stdcall MyClass::WorkerThread(void* lpThis) { } I've done this before but I don't know what is going wrong in this case, I'd greatly appreciate any efforts in helping me fix this problem.

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  • GLSL shader render to texture not saving alpha value

    - by quadelirus
    I am rendering to a texture using a GLSL shader and then sending that texture as input to a second shader. For the first texture I am using RGB channels to send color data to the second GLSL shader, but I want to use the alpha channel to send a floating point number that the second shader will use as part of its program. The problem is that when I read the texture in the second shader the alpha value is always 1.0. I tested this in the following way: at the end of the first shader I did this: gl_FragColor(r, g, b, 0.1); and then in the second texture I read the value of the first texture using something along the lines of vec4 f = texture2D(previous_tex, pos); if (f.a != 1.0) { gl_FragColor = vec4(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); return; } No pixels in my output are black, whereas if I change the above code to read gl_FragColor(r, g, 0.1, 1.0); //Notice I'm now sending 0.1 for blue and in the second shader vec4 f = texture2D(previous_tex, pos); if (f.b != 1.0) { gl_FragColor = vec4(0.0, 0.0, 0.0, 1.0); return; } All the appropriate pixels are black. This means that for some reason when I set the alpha value to something other than 1.0 in the first shader and render to a texture, it is still seen as being 1.0 by the second shader. Before I render to texture I glDisable(GL_BLEND); It seems pretty clear to me that the problem has to do with OpenGL handling alpha values in some way that isn't obvious to me since I can use the blue channel in the way I want, and figured someone out there will instantly see the problem.

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  • client-server syncing methodology [theoretical]

    - by Kenneth Ballenegger
    I'm in the progress of building an web-app that syncs with an iOS client. I'm currently tackling trying to figure out how to go about about syncing. I've come up with following two directions: I've got a fairly simple server web-app with a list of items. They are ordered by date modified and as such syncing the order does not matter. One direction I'm considering is to let the client deal with syncing. I've already got an API that lets the client get the data, as well as do certain actions on it, such as update, add or remove single items. I was considering: 1) on each sync asking the server for all items modified since the last successful sync and updating the local records based on what's returned by the server, and 2) building a persistent queue of create / remove / update requests on the client, and keeping them until confirmation by the server. The risk with this approach is that I'm basically asking each side to send changes to the other side, hoping it works smoothly, but risking a diversion at some point. This would probably be more bandwidth-efficient, though. The other direction I was considering was a more traditional model. I would have a "sync" process in which the client would send its whole list to the server (or a subset since last modified sync), the server would update the data on the server (by fixing conflicts by keeping the last modified item, and keeping deleted items with a deleted = 1 field), and the server would return an updated list of items (since last successful sync) which the client would then replace its data with. Thoughts?

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  • implementing a download manager that supports resuming

    - by Idan K
    hi, I intend on writing a small download manager in C++ that supports resuming (and multiple connections per download). From the info I gathered so far, when sending the http request I need to add a header field with a key of "Range" and the value "bytes=startoff-endoff". Then the server returns a http response with the data between those offsets. So roughly what I have in mind is to split the file to the number of allowed connections per file and send a http request per splitted part with the appropriate "Range". So if I have a 4mb file and 4 allowed connections, I'd split the file to 4 and have 4 http requests going, each with the appropriate "Range" field. Implementing the resume feature would involve remembering which offsets are already downloaded and simply not request those. Is this the right way to do this? What if the web server doesn't support resuming? (my guess is it will ignore the "Range" and just send the entire file) When sending the http requests, should I specify in the range the entire splitted size? Or maybe ask smaller pieces, say 1024k per request? When reading the data, should I write it immediately to the file or do some kind of buffering? I guess it could be wasteful to write small chunks. Should I use a memory mapped file? If I remember correctly, it's recommended for frequent reads rather than writes (I could be wrong). Is it memory wise? What if I have several downloads simultaneously? If I'm not using a memory mapped file, should I open the file per allowed connection? Or when needing to write to the file simply seek? (if I did use a memory mapped file this would be really easy, since I could simply have several pointers). Note: I'll probably be using Qt, but this is a general question so I left code out of it.

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  • Unexpected Event Behavior When Using VB6 with COM Interop (C#)

    - by Randal
    We are using a COM Interop (C#) to allow for a VB6 application to send data to a server. Once the server receives the data, the managed code will raise a DataSent event. This event is only fired after a correlation ID is returned to the original caller. About 1% of the time, we've encountered VB6 executing the raised event before finishing the function that originally sent the data. Using the following code: ' InteropTester.COMEvents is the C# object ' Dim WithEvents m_ManagedData as InteropTester.COMEvents Private Sub send_data() Set m_ManagedData = new COMEvents Dim id as Integer ' send 5 to using the managed interop object ' id = m_ManagedData.SendData(5) LogData "ID " & id & " was returned" m_correlationIds.Add id End Sub Private Sub m_ManagedData_DataSent(ByVal sender as Variant, ByVal id as Integer) LogData "Data was successfully sent to C#" ' check if the returned ID is in the m_correlationIds collection goes here' End Sub We can verify that the id is returned with a value when we call m_ManagedData.SendData(5), but the logs then show that the m_ManagedData_DataSent is occasionally called before send_data ends. How is possible for VB6 to access the Message Loop to know that the DataSent event was raised before exiting send_data()? We are not calling DoEvents and everything within VB6 is synchronous. Thanks in advance for your help.

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  • WCF Callback Contract InvalidOperationException: Collection has been modified

    - by mrlane
    We are using a WCF service with a Callback contract. Communication is Asynchronous. The service contract is defined as: [ServiceContract(Namespace = "Silverlight", CallbackContract = typeof(ISessionClient),SessionMode = SessionMode.Allowed)] public interface ISessionService With a method: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void Send(Message message); The callback contract is defined as [ServiceContract] public interface ISessionClient With methods: [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true, AsyncPattern = true)] IAsyncResult BeginSend(Message message, AsyncCallback callback, object state); void EndSend(IAsyncResult result); The implementation of BeginSend and EndSend in the callback channel are as follows: public void Send(ActionMessage actionMessage) { Message message = Message.CreateMessage(_messageVersion, CommsSettings.SOAPActionReceive, actionMessage, _messageSerializer); lock (LO_backChannel) { try { _backChannel.BeginSend(message, OnSendComplete, null); } catch (Exception ex) { _hasFaulted = true; } } } private void OnSendComplete(IAsyncResult asyncResult) { lock (LO_backChannel) { try { _backChannel.EndSend(asyncResult); } catch (Exception ex) { _hasFaulted = true; } } } We are getting an InvalidOperationException: "Collection has been modified" on _backChannel.EndSend(asyncResult) seemingly randomly, and we are really out of ideas about what is causing this. I understand what the exception means, and that concurrency issues are a common cause of such exceptions (hence the locks), but it really doesn't make any sense to me in this situation. The clients of our service are Silverlight 3.0 clients using PollingDuplexHttpBinding which is the only binding available for Silverlight. We have been running fine for ages, but recently have been doing a lot of data binding, and this is when the issues started. Any help with this is appreciated as I am personally stumped at this time.

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  • Sending multi-part email from Google App Engine using Spring's JavaMailSender fails

    - by hleinone
    It works without the multi-part (modified from the example in Spring documentation): final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage); message.setTo(toAddress); message.setFrom(fromAddress); message.setSubject(subject); final String htmlText = FreeMarkerTemplateUtils .processTemplateIntoString(configuration .getTemplate(htmlTemplate), model); message.setText(htmlText, true); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); But once I change it to: final MimeMessagePreparator preparator = new MimeMessagePreparator() { public void prepare(final MimeMessage mimeMessage) throws Exception { final MimeMessageHelper message = new MimeMessageHelper( mimeMessage, true); ... message.setText(plainText, htmlText); } }; mailSender.send(preparator); I get: Failed message 1: javax.mail.MessagingException: Converting attachment data failed at com.google.appengine.api.mail.stdimpl.GMTransport.sendMessage(GMTransport.java:231) at org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl.doSend(JavaMailSenderImpl.java:402) ... This is especially difficult since the GMTransport is proprietary Google class and no sources are available, which would make it a bit easier to debug. Anyone have any ideas what to try next? My bean config, for helping you to help me: <bean id="mailSender" class="org.springframework.mail.javamail.JavaMailSenderImpl" p:username="${mail.username}" p:password="${mail.password}" p:protocol="gm" />

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  • Sending email through a Google Apps account is working locally, but not on my web server...

    - by Janis Baldwin
    Related: Send Email via C# through Google Apps account My question is the same so I implemented Koistya's solution as follows. The heartbreak is that it works beautifully on my dev laptop but when ported to web server it times out with no explanation. My SMTP config is in my web.config file. I made mods based on Koistya's answer: <mailSettings> **Changed** <smtp from="[email protected]"> <network host="smtp.gmail.com" password="[password]" port="587" userName="[email protected]"/> </smtp> **Original** <!--<smtp from="[email protected]"> <network host="mail.domain.com" password="[password]" port="25" userName="[email protected]"/> </smtp>--> </mailSettings> My .Net C# code (before & after removed): SmtpClient mSmtpClient = new SmtpClient(); mSmtpClient.EnableSsl = true; mSmtpClient.Send(message); As I said this works great on my dev environment but not on web. Can anyone help? Thanks.

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  • SharePoint Designer Workflow: Unruly 'Collect User Data' Action

    - by Jeremy
    I'm a student in a SharePoint class online. This problem has riddled everyone I've discussed it with, including the teacher. There seems to be some sort of problem when I create a workflow with the collect data action. I can create workflows that send e-mails and use the other actions just fine. What could be causing this problem? My reproduction steps are simple: Create a new Site Collection with the Blank Site template. Create a new Custom List. In SharePoint Designer, start a new workflow on the Custom List. Add the collect data action to the workflow. Set the user to the one that created the task. Set the data to anything. A single check box, a string, Choice, doesn't matter. Leave the output variable as default. Mystery error appears! When the Check Workflow button is pressed, nothing happens. No message box appears at all. The warning icon in the Steps panel merely points out that there are some errors, it isn't specific as to what they are. Additionally, when I click on the data object again after it's been created, it doesn't populate the form with the old values. It goes back to the default name with no fields. So there's definitely something going wrong here. I've narrowed the problem down to the data object, but I don't know what to do about it. The workflow acts like normal for other activities. For example, delete the Collect Data action and add a Send Email one instead and it compiles and runs successfully.

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  • Issue while adding 'Cc' Field in 'TTMessageController' (Three 20)

    - by Deepika
    Hi All I am using the TTMessageController class for compose mail.There is only 'To' recepients Field in this class. I added the Cc Field in it. I have used this code: - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { _fields = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects: [[[TTMessageRecipientField alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"To:", @"") required: YES] autorelease], [[[TTMessageRecipientField alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Cc:", @"") required: YES] autorelease], [[[TTMessageSubjectField alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Subject:", @"") required: NO] autorelease], nil]; self.title = TTLocalizedString(@"New Message", @""); self.navigationItem.leftBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Cancel", @"") style: UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target: self action: @selector(cancel)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithTitle: TTLocalizedString(@"Send", @"") style: UIBarButtonItemStyleDone target: self action: @selector(send)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem.enabled = NO; } return self; } When I type anything in 'To' or 'Cc' field , two lists are appearing as search result:- One for 'To' field and second for 'Cc' Field. I want to show only one list according to 'To' or 'Cc' Field. Please suggest me any idea how can I resolve it or some other better way to implement my requirements? Thanks Deepika

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  • Can I output/flush data to screen while processing ajax page?

    - by Bee
    I need to display on my page a list of records pulled from a table. Ajax works fine (I query the database and put all the data inside a on the main page) but if I have lots of records (say 500+) it will hang until data is fully loaded, THEN it will be sent back to the page and correctly displayed. I would like to be able to display the records on the page while getting them, instead of being forced to wait until completion. I am trying with flush(); inside the remote (ajax) page but it still waits until full data is loaded. This is what I currently have inside the ajax page: At the very beginning: @apache_setenv('no-gzip', 1); @ini_set('zlib.output_compression', 0); @ini_set('implicit_flush', 1); for ($i = 0; $i < ob_get_level(); $i++) { ob_end_flush(); } ob_implicit_flush(1); Then whenever I have a echo call: ob_flush(); Now if I load the ajax page alone... it will list the records while reading them from the database. But if I call the same page via Ajax, it will hang and send all the data at once. Any idea? This is the function I use to get the ajax content ('id' is the target , 'url' refers to the ajax page that runs the database query to list the records): function ajax(id,url) { xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); xmlhttp.open("GET",url,false); xmlhttp.send(null); document.getElementById(id).innerHTML = parseScript(xmlhttp.responseText); }

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  • How do you clear a CustomValidator Error on a Button click event?

    - by George
    I have a composite User control for entering dates: The CustomValidator will include server sided validation code. I would like the error message to be cleared via client sided script if the user alters teh date value in any way. To do this, I included the following code to hook up the two drop downs and the year text box to the validation control: <script type="text/javascript"> ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlMonth.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= ddlDate.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); ValidatorHookupControlID("<%= txtYear.ClientID%>", document.getElementById("<%= CustomValidator1.ClientID%>")); </script> However, I would also like the Validation error to be cleared when the user clicks the clear button. When the user clicks the Clear button, the other 3 controls are reset. To avoid a Post back, the Clear button is a regular HTML button with an OnClick event that resets the 3 controls. Unfortunately, the ValidatorHookupControlID method does not seem to work on HTML controls, so I thought to change the HTML Button to an ASP button and to Hookup to that control instead. However, I cannot seem to eliminate the Postback functionality associated by default with the ASP button control. I tried to set the UseSubmitBehavior to False, but it still submits. I tried to return false in my btnClear_OnClick client code, but the code sent to the browser included a DoPostback call after my call. btnClear.Attributes.Add("onClick", "btnClear_OnClick();") Instead of adding OnClick code, I tried overwriting it, but the DoPostBack code was still included in the final code that was sent to the browser. What do I have to do to get the Clear button to clear the CustomValidator error when clicked and avoid a postback? btnClear.Attributes.Item("onClick") = "btnClear_OnClick();"

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  • Application log aggregation, management and notifications...

    - by Matthew Savage
    I'm wondering what everyone is using for logging, log management and log aggregation on their systems. I am working in a company which uses .NET for all it's applications and all systems are Windows based. Currently each application looks after its own logging and notifications of failures (e.g. if app A fails it will send out its own 'call for help' to an admin). While this current practice works its a bit hacky and hard to manage. I've been trying to find some options for making this work better and I've come up with the following: log4net & Chainsaw (ah, if it works). Logging via log4net or another framework into a central database & rolling our own management tool. Logging to the Windows event log and using MOM or System Center Operations Manager to aggregate and manage each of these servers & their apps. A hand-rolled solution to suck all the log files into one point and work some magic across them. Essentially what we are after is something which can pull log entries all together and allow for some analytics to be run across them, plus use a kind of event based system to, for example, send out a warning email when there have been 30+ warning level logs for an application in the last x minutes. So is there anything I've missed, or something someone else can suggest?

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  • SD card initialization SPI

    - by Openavr
    Hi People I saw a lot of infos about MMC/SD cards and I tried to make a lib to read this.. (modifying the Procyon Avrlib) But I have some problems here. I Don´t change the original code and tried here. My problem is about the init of SD card. I have 2 here, a 256mb and another 1GB. I send the init commands like this order: CMD0, CMD55, ACMD41, CMD1 But SD 256mb returns me only 0x01 response for each command.. the CMD1 i send a lot of times, SD 256mb always returs only 0x01.. never 0x00. The SD 1GB is more crazy... CMD0 returns with 0x01 ..nice but the CMD55 response with 0x05... another times responde with 0xC1... and another ones response 0xF0 with a 0x5F in the next interation... Around internet have infos and examples, but a bit of confused. Here in my project, I must use 1GB card and I´m trying with a MicroSD with a SD Adapter (I think that this is not the problem). Please any help are apreciate! Regards PS - my problem like the problem from this guy http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2365897/initializing-sd-card-in-spi-issues but his solution don´t solved my problem.. The SD1GB returns only 0x01 ever... :cry:

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  • Using Javascript to flip flop a textbox's readonly flag

    - by Velika
    I have a frame with several radio buttons where the user is supposed to select the "Category" that his Occupation falls into and then unconditionally also specify his occupation. If the user selects "Retired", the requirement is to prefill "Retired" in the "Specify Occupation" text box and to disable it to prevent it from being changed. The Specify Occupation text box should also no longer be a tab stop. If the user selects a radio button other than Retired the Specify Occupation text box should be enabled and once again in the normal tab sequence. Originally, I was setting and clearing the disabled property on the Specify occupation textbox, then I found out that, upon submitting the form, disabled fields are excluded from the submit and the REQUIRED validator on the Specify Occupation textbox was being raised because the textbox was being blanked out. What is the best way to solve this? My approach below was to mimic a disabled text box by setting/resetting the readonly attribute on the text box and changing the background color to make it appear disabled. (I suppose I should be changing the forecolor instead of teh background color). Nevertheless, my code to make the textbox readonly and to reset it doesn't appear to be working. function OccupationOnClick(sender) { debugger; var optOccupationRetired = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationRetired.ClientId %>"); var txtSpecifyOccupation = document.getElementById("<%= txtSpecifyOccupation.ClientId %>"); var optOccupationOther = document.getElementById("<%= optOccupationOther.ClientId %>"); if (sender == optOccupationRetired) { txtSpecifyOccupation.value = "Retired" txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = "readonly"; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#E0E0E0"; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = -1; } else { if (txtSpecifyOccupation.value == "Retired") txtSpecifyOccupation.value = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.style.backgroundColor = "#FFFFFF"; txtSpecifyOccupation.readonly = ""; txtSpecifyOccupation.tabIndex = 0; } } Can someone provide a suggest for the best way to handle this scenario and porovide a tweek to the code above to fix the setting/resetting on the readonly property?

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  • Sending jQuery.ajax data simultaneous to a form submit

    - by dscher
    I have a bit of a conundrum. I have a form which has numerous fields. There is one field for links where you enter a link, click an add button, and the link(using jQuery) gets added to a link_array. I want this array to be sent via the jQuery.ajax method when the form is submitted. If I send the link_array using $.ajax like this: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "add_stock", dataType: "json", data: { "links": link_array } }); when the add link button is selected the data goes no problem to the correct place and gets put in the db correctly. If I bind the above function to the submit form button using $(#stock_form).submit(..... then the rest of the form data is sent but not the link_array. I can obviously pass the link array back into a hidden field in HTML but then I'd have to unpack the array into comma separate values and break the comma-separated string apart in PHP. It just seems 100X easier to unpack the Javascript array in PHP without an other fuss. So, how is it that you can send an array from javascript using $.ajax concurrent to the rest of the $_POST data in HTML? Please note that I'm using Kohana 3.0 framework but really that shouldn't make a difference, what I want to do is add this js array to the $_POST array that is already going. Thanks!

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  • If attacker has original data and encrypted data, can they determine the passphrase?

    - by Brad Cupit
    If an attacker has several distinct items (for example: e-mail addresses) and knows the encrypted value of each item, can the attacker more easily determine the secret passphrase used to encrypt those items? Meaning, can they determine the passphrase without resorting to brute force? This question may sound strange, so let me provide a use-case: User signs up to a site with their e-mail address Server sends that e-mail address a confirmation URL (for example: https://my.app.com/confirmEmailAddress/bill%40yahoo.com) Attacker can guess the confirmation URL and therefore can sign up with someone else's e-mail address, and 'confirm' it without ever having to sign in to that person's e-mail account and see the confirmation URL. This is a problem. Instead of sending the e-mail address plain text in the URL, we'll send it encrypted by a secret passphrase. (I know the attacker could still intercept the e-mail sent by the server, since e-mail are plain text, but bear with me here.) If an attacker then signs up with multiple free e-mail accounts and sees multiple URLs, each with the corresponding encrypted e-mail address, could the attacker more easily determine the passphrase used for encryption? Alternative Solution I could instead send a random number or one-way hash of their e-mail address (plus random salt). This eliminates storing the secret passphrase, but it means I need to store that random number/hash in the database. The original approach above does not require storage in the database. I'm leaning towards the the one-way-hash-stored-in-the-db, but I still would like to know the answer: does having multiple unencrypted e-mail addresses and their encrypted counterparts make it easier to determine the passphrase used?

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  • Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: .... The status code returned from the server w

    - by webnoob
    Hi All, I have seen a few posts regarding this issue but not one specific to my problem and I have no ideas as to what I need to do to debug this. I have some combo boxes on an aspx pages, when I select a value from the first one, it fills the second with value and so on with the third and fourth. This works with no problems until I wrap an asp.net UpdatePanel around the combo boxes and try to "ajaxify" the whole process so the page isn't dancing around. The exact error I get is: Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManagerServerErrorException: An unknown error occurred while processing the request on the server. The status code returned from the server was: 404 Some things to note: I am using URL rewriting - This is what I think is causing the problem The error will occur whenever I choose a selection for a SECOND time. This means that I could select a value from the first combo box and get the same error (so it is happening on the second postback - No matter which combo box it's from). I have tried setting the EnablePartialRendering="false" on teh scriptmanager but as I said, it works when not using ajax, so I don't know how to debug the issue. My server is Windows 2008 running IIS& with ASP.NET 2.0. I would really appreciate your help Thanks in advance.

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  • asp.net mvc ajax form helper/post additional data

    - by Jopache
    I would like to use the ajax helper to create ajax requests that send additional, dynamic data with the post (for example, get the last element with class = blogCommentDateTime and send the value of that last one to the controller which will return only blog comments after it). I have successfully done so with the help of jQuery Form plugin like so: $(document).ready(function () { $("#addCommentForm").submit(function () { var lastCommentDate = $(".CommentDateHidden:last").val(); var lastCommentData = { lastCommentDateTicks: lastCommentDate }; var formSubmitParams = { data: lastCommentData, success: AddCommentResponseHandler } $("#addCommentForm").ajaxSubmit(formSubmitParams); return false; }); This form was created with html.beginform() method. I am wondering if there is an easy way to do this using the ajax.beginform() helper? When I try to use the same code but replace html.beginform() with ajax.beginform(), when i try to submit the form, I am issuing 2 posts (which is understandable, one being taken care of by the helper, the other one by me with the JS above. I can't create 2 requests, so this option is out) I tried getting rid of the return false and changing ajaxSubmit() to ajaxForm() so that it would only "prepare" the form, and this leads in only one post, but it does not include the extra parameter that I defined, so this is worthless as well. I then tried keeping the ajaxForm() but calling that whenever the submit button on the form gets clicked rather than when the form gets submitted (I guess this is almost the same thing) and that results in 2 posts also. The biggest reason I am asking this question is that I have run in to some issues with the javascript above and using mvc validation provided by the mvc framework (which i will set up another question for) and would like to know this so I can dive further in to my validation issue.

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  • paypal verify payment

    - by yozhik
    I am testing PayPal payments through Sandbox. So what do I do: Make a payment from my Android device, using SDK AppID: "APP-80W284485P519543T". Receive RESULT_OK in applicationResult and receive response on server side through IPN service. Now I am taking all responce from IPN and send it to paypal verification sandbox server to verify payment. It cat return (VERIFIED or INVALID). But the problem is that it is return INVALID. So whats can be the problem? What I am doing wrong? Thanks. This is what I send to verify: https://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr?cmd=_notify-validate&payment_request_date=Mon+Mar+26+02%3A37%3A10+PDT+2012&fees_payer=EACHRECEIVER&transaction[0].is_primary_receiver=false&memo=Buy+1500+coins&transaction_type=Adaptive+Payment+PAY&verify_sign=AWimjEpfvS2eR6IgBwHtiwM0rMDUA.b2twU2ADjkAY-kg5szeluxcqKb&log_default_shipping_address_in_transaction=false&pay_key=AP-2YR77828AV574621G&transaction[0].amount=USD+1.99&reverse_all_parallel_payments_on_error=true&ipn_notification_url=http%3A%2F%2Fdev-vs.upiter.com%2Fvspayment%2Fproviders%2Fvs%2Ffb%2Fpaypalcallback&action_type=CREATE&notify_version=UNVERSIONED&transaction[0].status_for_sender_txn=Pending&test_ipn=1&cancel_url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.paypal.com&transaction[0].pending_reason=UNILATERAL&status=COMPLETED&charset=windows-1252&transaction[0].paymentType=GOODS&request_body=&request_url=http%3A%2F%2Fdev-vs-mobile.stagika.com%2Fvspayment%2Fproviders%2Fvs%2Ffb%2Fpaypalcallback&return_url=https%3A%2F%2Fwww.paypal.com&transaction[0].receiver=a.merchant1.kv%40gmail.com&request_method=POST&transaction[0].id_for_sender_txn=0X355330VH030952T&sender.useCredentials=true

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  • Web Hosting URL Length Limit?

    - by Isaac Waller
    Hello, I am designing a web application which is a tie in to my iPhone application. It sends massively large URLs to the web server (15000 about.) I was using NearlyFreeSpeech.net, but they only support URLS up to 2000 characters. I was wondering if anybody knows of web hosting that will support really large URLs? Thanks, Isaac Edit: My program needs to open a picture in Safari. I could do this 2 ways: send it base64 encoded in the URL and just echo the query parameters. first POST it to the server in my application, then the server would send back a unique ID after storing the photo in a database, which I would append to a URL which I would open in Safari which retrieved the photo from the database and delete it from the database. You see, I am lazy, and I know Mobile Safari can support URI's up to 80 000 characters, so I think this is a OK way to do it. If there is something really wrong with this, please tell me. Edit: I ended up doing it the proper POST way. Thanks.

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  • Ajax UpdatePanels scroll on partial page update.

    - by George
    I set the AutoPostback property of a textbox to True so I can process the TextChanged event on the server and, based on what they typed in the textbox, appropriately display a message in an update panel. The problem is, when the partial screen refresh is performed, no control on the screen has focus. 99% of the time, when the text in the textbox is changed, it is because the user has tabbed forward, and so, to limit the disruption in the lost of focus, I perform a "Focus" call on teh next control in the tab sequence. For the most part, this works OK, but of course, is disputive if the user is tabbing in the reverse order or has used the mouse to set the focus to another control. In these situations, the focus would be set to the next control even though the user was trying to set focus elsewhere. OK, that sucks. Now what I consider the bigger problem with calling the focus method on the server: In IE, it works OK, but in Mozilla Firefox and Chrome, setting the focus causes a repositioning of the scroll bar, even though none is necessary because the control is already in view. I realize that I could switch to doing AJAX web service calls, but these darn Updae Panels are so convenient if used in moderation. is there anyway to use updatepanels and not have these focus/scroll issues?

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  • Serializing a part of object graph

    - by Felix
    Hi all, I have a problem regarding Java custom serialization. I have a graph of objects and want to configure where to stop when I serialize a root object from client to server. Let's make it a bit concrete, clear by giving a sample scenario. I have Classes of type Company Employee (abstract) Manager extends Employee Secretary extends Employee Analyst extends Employee Project Here are the relations: Company(1)---(n)Employee Manager(1)---(n)Project Analyst(1)---(n)Project Imagine, I'm on the client side and I want to create a new company, assign it 10 employees (new or some existing) and send this new company to the server. What I expect in this scenario is to serialize the company and all bounding employees to the server side, because I'll save the relations on the database. So far no problem, since the default Java serialization mechanism serializes the whole object graph, excluding the field which are static or transient. My goal is about the following scenario. Imagine, I loaded a company and its 1000 employees from the server to the client side. Now I only want to rename the company's name (or some other field, that directly belongs to the company) and update this record. This time, I want to send only the company object to the server side and not the whole list of employees (I just update the name, the employees are in this use case irrelevant). My aim also includes the configurability of saying, transfer the company AND the employees but not the Project-Relations, you must stop there. Do you know any possibility of achieving this in a generic way, without implementing the writeObject, readObject for every single Entity-Object? What would be your suggestions? I would really appreciate your answers. I'm open to any ideas and am ready to answer your questions in case something is not clear.

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