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  • Is it possible to make the iPhone keyboard invisible / remove it without resigning first responder?

    - by Alex Gosselin
    I am looking for a way to show my own input view (a UITableView) to enter certain keywords in a UITextView faster than typing them, and also be able to type into this text view the normal way. My solution has a button that causes the keyboard to disappear, revealing the table view underneath it. Problem is I can't figure out how to make the keyboard go away without resigning first responder, and losing the cursor. Has anyone accomplished this before? Thanks for any help.

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  • How costly performance-wise are these actions in iPhone objective-C?

    - by Alex Gosselin
    This is really a few questions in one, I'm wondering what the performance cost is for these things, as I haven't really been following a best practice of any sort for these. The answers may also be useful to other readers, if somebody knows these. (1) If I need the core data managed object context, is it bad to use #import "myAppDelegate.h" //farther down in the code: NSManagedObjectContext *context = [(myAppDelegate.h*)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate] managedObjectContext]; as opposed to leaving the warning you get if you don't cast the delegate? (2) What is the cheapest way to hard-code a string? I have been using return @"myString"; on occasion in some functions where I need to pass it to a variety of places, is it better to do it this way: static NSString *str = @"myString"; return str; (3) How costly is it to subclass an object i wrote vs. making a new one, in general? (4) When I am using core data and navigating through a hierarchy of some sort, is it necessary to turn things back into faults somehow after I read some info from them? or is this done automatically? Thanks for any help.

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  • What is a good way for a custom accessory view in a UITableViewCell to message the table view contro

    - by Alex Gosselin
    Hi Everyone, I am working on adding a custom accessory view, (a button) to a UITableViewCell, and I need it to tell the table view when it is touched, but I can't figure out how to communicate to the table view what button was pressed. Ideally I'd like to somehow call a function like this: [controller tableView:view didSelectCustomButtonAtIndexPath:indexPath usingCell:self]; when my custom view button is pressed. Sorry if this is a bit vague, I'm not really sure how to explain this well. I am basically looking for how to mimic the implementation for tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath: without having to subclass UITableViewCell. Thanks for any help.

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  • Are there actually lag times to remove an email address from "the system"? [closed]

    - by Alex Gosselin
    For example, you send an unsubscribe message to a legitimate company or a spam, they reply that they will remove you and it may take up to 72 hours to take effect. I find it hard to believe anything that simple could take more than 3/4 of a second to take effect system wide. Another example would be when you call the visa activation line, there is a "delay" of several minutes while they try to sell you some kind of insurance. Usually just as you get the point across that you don't want it they will tell you your card has been activated and let you go. Are these delays real?

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  • Geolocation SQL query not finding exact location

    - by Iridium52
    I have been testing my geolocation query for some time now and I haven't found any issues with it until now. I am trying to search for all cities within a given radius, often times I'm searching for cities surrounding a city using that city's coords, but recently I tried searching around a city and found that the city itself was not returned. I have these cities as an excerpt in my database: city latitude longitude Saint-Mathieu 45.316708 -73.516253 Saint-Édouard 45.233374 -73.516254 Saint-Michel 45.233374 -73.566256 Saint-Rémi 45.266708 -73.616257 But when I run my query around the city of Saint-Rémi, with the following query... SELECT tblcity.city, tblcity.latitude, tblcity.longitude, truncate((degrees(acos( sin(radians(tblcity.latitude)) * sin(radians(45.266708)) + cos(radians(tblcity.latitude)) * cos(radians(45.266708)) * cos(radians(tblcity.longitude - -73.616257) ) ) ) * 69.09*1.6),1) as distance FROM tblcity HAVING distance < 10 ORDER BY distance desc I get these results: city latitude longitude distance Saint-Mathieu 45.316708 -73.516253 9.5 Saint-Édouard 45.233374 -73.516254 8.6 Saint-Michel 45.233374 -73.566256 5.3 The town of Saint-Rémi is missing from the search. So I tried a modified query hoping to get a better result: SELECT tblcity.city, tblcity.latitude, tblcity.longitude, truncate(( 6371 * acos( cos( radians( 45.266708 ) ) * cos( radians( tblcity.latitude ) ) * cos( radians( tblcity.longitude ) - radians( -73.616257 ) ) + sin( radians( 45.266708 ) ) * sin( radians( tblcity.latitude ) ) ) ),1) AS distance FROM tblcity HAVING distance < 10 ORDER BY distance desc But I get the same result... However, if I modify Saint-Rémi's coords slighly by changing the last digit of the lat or long by 1, both queries will return Saint-Rémi. Also, if I center the query on any of the other cities above, the searched city is returned in the results. Can anyone shed some light on what may be causing my queries above to not display the searched city of Saint-Rémi? I have added a sample of the table (with extra fields removed) below. I'm using MySQL 5.0.45, thanks in advance. CREATE TABLE `tblcity` ( `IDCity` int(1) NOT NULL auto_increment, `City` varchar(155) NOT NULL default '', `Latitude` decimal(9,6) NOT NULL default '0.000000', `Longitude` decimal(9,6) NOT NULL default '0.000000', PRIMARY KEY (`IDCity`) ) ENGINE=MyISAM AUTO_INCREMENT=52743 DEFAULT CHARSET=latin1 AUTO_INCREMENT=52743; INSERT INTO `tblcity` (`city`, `latitude`, `longitude`) VALUES ('Saint-Mathieu', 45.316708, -73.516253), ('Saint-Édouard', 45.233374, -73.516254), ('Saint-Michel', 45.233374, -73.566256), ('Saint-Rémi', 45.266708, -73.616257);

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  • Non-blocking read on a stream in python.

    - by Mathieu Pagé
    Hi, I'm using the subprocess module to start a subprocess and connect to it's output stream (stdout). I want to be able to execute non-blocking reads on its stdout. Is there a way to make .readline non-bloking or to check if there is data on the stream before I invoke .readline? I'd like this to be portable or at least work under Windows and Linux. here is how I do it for now (It's blocking on the .readline if no data is avaible): p = subprocess.Popen('myprogram.exe', stdout = subprocess.PIPE) str = p.stdout.readline() Thanks for your help.

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  • WPF Converter and NotifyOnTargetUpdated exclusive in a binding ?

    - by Mathieu Garstecki
    Hi, I have a problem with a databinding in WPF. When I try to use a value converter and set the NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True property to True, I get an XamlParseException with the following message: 'System.Windows.Data.BindingExpression' value cannot be assigned to property 'Contenu' of object 'View.UserControls.ShadowedText'. Value cannot be null. Parameter name: textToFormat Error at object 'System.Windows.Data.Binding' in markup file 'View.UserControls;component/saletotal.xaml' Line 363 Position 95. The binding is pretty standard: <my:ShadowedText Contenu="{Binding Path=Total, Converter={StaticResource CurrencyToStringConverter}, NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True}" TargetUpdated="MontantTotal_TargetUpdated"> </my:ShadowedText> (Styling properties removed for conciseness) The converter exists in the resources and works correctly when NotifyOnTargetUpdated=True is removed. Similarly, the TargetUpdated event is called and implemented correctly, and works when the converter is removed. Note: This binding is defined in a ControlTemplate, though I don't think that is relevant to the problem. Can anybody explain me what is happening ? Am I defining the binding wrong ? Are those features mutually exclusive (and in this case, can you explain why it is so) ? Thanks in advance. More info: Here is the content of the TargetUpdated handler: private void MontantTotal_TargetUpdated(object sender, DataTransferEventArgs e) { ShadowedText textBlock = (ShadowedText)e.TargetObject; double textSize = textBlock.Taille; double delta = 5; double defaultTaille = 56; double maxWidth = textBlock.MaxWidth; while (true) { FormattedText newFormat = new FormattedText(textBlock.Contenu, CultureInfo.CurrentCulture, FlowDirection.LeftToRight, new Typeface("Calibri"), textSize, (SolidColorBrush) Resources["RougeVif"]); if (newFormat.Width < textBlock.MaxWidth && textSize <= defaultTaille) { if ((Math.Round(newFormat.Width) + delta) >= maxWidth || textSize == defaultTaille) { break; } textSize++; } else { if ((Math.Round(newFormat.Width) - delta) <= maxWidth && textSize <= defaultTaille) { break; } textSize--; } } textBlock.Taille = textSize; } The role of the handler is to resize the control based on the length of the content. It is quite ugly but I want to have the functional part working before refactoring.

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  • pointPolygonTest in OpenCV 2.2

    - by Mathieu Dubois
    I wanted to use pointPolygonTest but I have a problem. I'm stuck to OpenCV2.2. I tried to use the code found here: http://docs.opencv.org/doc/tutorials/imgproc/shapedescriptors/point_polygon_test/point_polygon_test.html#point-polygon-test I use findContours to detect contours in an image. Under OpenCV 2.2 returns a vector< vector<Point> >. The problem is that pointPolygonTest accept a matrix as an entry. Therefore the code doesn't compile with OpenCV 2.2: erreur: invalid initialization of reference of type ‘const cv::Mat&’ from expression of type ‘std::vector<cv::Point_<int>, std::allocator<cv::Point_<int> > >’ Under more recent OpenCV versions, the findContours function returns vector<Mat> so it's easy to pass to pointPolygonTest (see the example). I guess I could convert the vector< vector<Point> > to vector<Mat>. Unfortunately the documentation is not very clear about the format. Does anybody have an advice?

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  • How to find if an Oracle APEX session is expired

    - by Mathieu Longtin
    I have created a single-sign-on system for our Oracle APEX applications, roughly based on this tutorial: http://www.oracle.com/technology/oramag/oracle/09-may/o39security.html The only difference is that my master SSO login is in Perl, rather than another APEX app. It sets an SSO cookie, and the app can check if it's valid with a database procedure. I have noticed that when I arrive in the morning, the whole system doesn't work. I reload a page from the APEX app, it then sends me to the SSO page because the session was expired, I logon, and get redirected back to my original APEX app page. This usually works except first thing in the morning. It seems the APEX session is expired. In that case it seems to find the session, but then refuse to use it, and sends me back to the login page. I've tried my best to trace the problem. The "wwv_flow_custom_auth_std.is_session_valid" function returns true, so I'm assuming the session is valid. But nothing works until I remove the APEX session cookie. Then I can log back in easily. Anybody knows if there is another call that would tell me if the session is expired or not? Thanks

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  • How to nest an Enum inside the value of an Enum

    - by Mathieu
    I'd like to know if it is possible in Java to nest Enums. Here what i'd like to be able to do : Have an enum Species made of CAT and DOG wich would grant me access to sub enums of the available CAT and DOG breeds. For example, i'd like to be able to test if wether a CAT or a DOG and if an animal is a PERSAN CAT or a PITBULL DOG. CAT and DOG breeds must be distinct enums ,i.e a CatBreeds enum and a DogBreeds enum. Here is an example of access pattern i'd like to use : Species : Species.CAT Species.DOG Breeds : Species.CAT.breeds.PERSAN Species.DOG.breeds.PITBULL

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  • How to use SSL Web Services in a Rails application

    - by Mathieu
    Hi, I having a hard time to consume this webservice https://www.arello.com/webservice/verify.cfc?wsdl in my rails application. I successfully generated the ruby files with the wsdl2ruby.rb but when un run the generated script I get the following error: at depth 0 - 20: unable to get local issuer certificate OpenSSL::SSL::SSLError: SSL_connect returned=1 errno=0 state=SSLv3 read server certificate B: certificate verify failed I also tried to connect via this script but same issue require 'http-access2' client = HTTPAccess2::Client.new() client.ssl_config.set_trust_ca('/arello.cert') puts client.get('https://www.arello.com/webservice/verify.cfc?wsdl').content Any ideas? Thanks

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  • Ruby on rails session = nil

    - by Mathieu
    Hi, In a controller I have 2 actions def action1 session[:test]="test" render :text => session[:test] # output test end def action2 render :text => session[:test] # output nil end I perform first action1 so the session is set Then I perform action2 but session[:test] is nil So what am I doing wrong?

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  • Rails : soap4r - How to run wsdl2ruby.rb

    - by Mathieu
    Hi, I just installed the gem soap4r on my mac and now I need to run wsdl2ruby.rb --wsdl https://www.arello.com/webservice/verify.cfc?wsdl --type client --force but I have this error : -bash: wsdl2ruby.rb: command not found What did I miss? Thanks

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  • What are the pro and cons of statically linking a library?

    - by Mathieu Pagé
    Hi, I want to release an application I developed as a hobby both for Linux and Windows. This application depends on boost (and possibly other libraries). The norm for this kind of application (a chess engine) is to provide only an executable file and possibly some helper files. I tough it would be a good idea to statically link the libraries so the executable would not have any dependencies. So the end user can just put the executable in a directory and start using it. However, while doing some research online I found some negative comments about statically linking libraries, some even arguing that an application with statically linked libraries would be hardly portable, meaning that it would only run on my system of highly similar systems. So what are the pros and cons of statically linking library? I already know that the executable will be bigger. But I can't see why it would make my application less portable.

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  • Post-loading : check if an image is in the browser cache

    - by Mathieu
    Short version question : Is there navigator.mozIsLocallyAvailable equivalent function that works on all browsers, or an alternative? Long version :) Hi, Here is my situation : I want to implement an HtmlHelper extension for asp.net MVC that handle image post-loading easily (using jQuery). So i render the page with empty image sources with the source specified in the "alt" attribute. I insert image sources after the "window.onload" event, and it works great. I did something like this : $(window).bind('load', function() { var plImages = $(".postLoad"); plImages.each(function() { $(this).attr("src", $(this).attr("alt")); }); }); The problem is : After the first loading, post-loaded images are cached. But if the page takes 10 seconds to load, the cached post-loaded images will be displayed after this 10 seconds. So i think to specify image sources on the "document.ready" event if the image is cached to display them immediatly. I found this function : navigator.mozIsLocallyAvailable to check if an image is in the cache. Here is what I've done with jquery : //specify cached image sources on dom ready $(document).ready(function() { var plImages = $(".postLoad"); plImages.each(function() { var source = $(this).attr("alt") var disponible = navigator.mozIsLocallyAvailable(source, true); if (disponible) $(this).attr("src", source); }); }); //specify uncached image sources after page loading $(window).bind('load', function() { var plImages = $(".postLoad"); plImages.each(function() { if ($(this).attr("src") == "") $(this).attr("src", $(this).attr("alt")); }); }); It works on Mozilla's DOM but it doesn't works on any other one. I tried navigator.isLocallyAvailable : same result. Is there any alternative?

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  • Post request with body_stream and parameters

    - by Damien MATHIEU
    Hello, I'm building some kind of proxy. When I call some url in a rack application, I forward that request to an other url. The request I forward is a POST with a file and some parameters. I want to add more parameters. But the file can be quite big. So I send it with Net::HTTP#body_stream instead of Net::HTTP#body. I get my request as a Rack::Request object and I create my Net::HTTP object with that. req = Net::HTTP::Post.new(request.path_info) req.body_stream = request.body req.content_type = request.content_type req.content_length = request.content_length http = Net::HTTP.new(@host, @port) res = http.request(req) I've tried several ways to add the proxy's parameters. But it seems nothing in Net::HTTP allows to add parameters to a body_stream request, only to a body one. Is there a simpler way to proxy a rack request like that ? Or a clean way to add my parameters to my request ?

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  • mod_rewrite if file exists

    - by Mathieu Parent
    Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

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  • How to convert the output of an artificial neural network into probabilities?

    - by Mathieu Pagé
    I've read about neural network a little while ago and I understand how an ANN (especially a multilayer perceptron that learns via backpropagation) can learn to classify an event as true or false. I think there are two ways : 1) You get one output neuron. It it's value is 0.5 the events is likely true, if it's value is <=0.5 the event is likely to be false. 2) You get two output neurons, if the value of the first is than the value of the second the event is likely true and vice versa. In these case, the ANN tells you if an event is likely true or likely false. It does not tell how likely it is. Is there a way to convert this value to some odds or to directly get odds out of the ANN. I'd like to get an output like "The event has a 84% probability to be true"

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  • WCF data services (OData), query with inheritance limitation?

    - by Mathieu Hétu
    Project: WCF Data service using internally EF4 CTP5 Code-First approach. I configured entities with inheritance (TPH). See previous question on this topic: Previous question about multiple entities- same table The mapping works well, and unit test over EF4 confirms that queries runs smoothly. My entities looks like this: ContactBase (abstract) Customer (inherits from ContactBase), this entity has also several Navigation properties toward other entities Resource (inherits from ContactBase) I have configured a discriminator, so both Customer and Resource map to the same table. Again, everythings works fine on the Ef4 point of view (unit tests all greens!) However, when exposing this DBContext over WCF Data services, I get: - CustomerBases sets exposed (Customers and Resources sets seems hidden, is it by design?) - When I query over Odata on Customers, I get this error: Navigation Properties are not supported on derived entity types. Entity Set 'ContactBases' has a instance of type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer', which is an derived entity type and has navigation properties. Please remove all the navigation properties from type 'CodeFirstNamespace.Customer'. Stacktrace: at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteObjectProperties(IExpandedResult expanded, Object customObject, ResourceType resourceType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem item, DictionaryContent content, EpmSourcePathSegment currentSourceRoot) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteEntryElement(IExpandedResult expanded, Object element, ResourceType expectedType, Uri absoluteUri, String relativeUri, SyndicationItem target) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.<DeferredFeedItems>d__b.MoveNext() at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteItems(XmlWriter writer, IEnumerable`1 items, Uri feedBaseUri) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeedTo(XmlWriter writer, SyndicationFeed feed, Boolean isSourceFeed) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteFeed(XmlWriter writer) at System.ServiceModel.Syndication.Atom10FeedFormatter.WriteTo(XmlWriter writer) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.SyndicationSerializer.WriteTopLevelElements(IExpandedResult expanded, IEnumerator elements, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.Serializers.Serializer.WriteRequest(IEnumerator queryResults, Boolean hasMoved) at System.Data.Services.ResponseBodyWriter.Write(Stream stream) Seems like a limitation of WCF Data services... is it? Not much documentation can be found on the web about WCF Data services (OData) and inheritance specifications. How can I overpass this exception? I need these navigation properties on derived entities, and inheritance seems the only way to provide mapping of 2 entites on the same table with Ef4 CTP5... Any thoughts?

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  • Validate number of nested attributes

    - by Damien MATHIEU
    Hello, I have a model with nested attributes : class Foo < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :bar accepts_nested_attributes_for :bar end It works fine. However I'd want to be sure that for every Foo, I have at least two Bar. I can't access the bar_attributes in my validations so it seems I can't validate it. Is there any clean way to do so ?

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