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  • comparing strings from two different sources in javascript

    - by andy-score
    This is a bit of a specific request unfortunately. I have a CMS that allows a user to input text into a tinymce editor for various posts they have made. The editor is loaded via ajax to allow multiple posts to be edited from one page. I want to be able to check if there were edits made to the main text if cancel is clicked. Currently I get the value of the text from the database during the ajax call, json_encode it, then store it in a javascript variable during the callback, to be checked against later. When cancel is clicked the current value of the hidden textarea (used by tinymce to store the data for submission) is grabbed using jquery.val() and checked against the stored value from the previous ajax call like this: if(stored_value!=textarea.val()) { return true } It currently always returns true, even if no changes have been made. The issue seems to be that the textarea.val() uses html entities, whereas the ajax jsoned version doesn't. the response from ajax in firebug looks like this: <p>some text<\/p>\r\n<p>some more text<\/p> the textarea source code looks like this: &lt;p&gt;some text&lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;some more text&lt;/p&gt; these are obviously different, but how can I get them to be treated as the same when evaluated? Is there a function that compares the final output of a string or a way to convert one string to the other using javascript? I tried using html entities in the ajax page, but this returned the string with html entities intact when alerted, I assume because json_encoding it turned them into characters. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • In MVC2, how do I validate fields that aren't in my data model?

    - by Andy Evans
    I am playing with MVC2 in VS 2010 and am really getting to like it. In a sandbox application that I've started from scratch, my database is represented in an ADO.NET entity data model and have done much of the validation for fields in my data model using Scott Guthrie's "buddy class" approach which has worked very well. However, in a user registration form that I have designed and am experimenting with, I'd like to add a 'confirm email address' or a 'confirm password' field. Since these fields obviously wouldn't exist in my data model, how would I validate these fields client side and server side? I would like to implement something like 'Html.ValidationMessageFor', but these fields don't exist in the data model. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • google maps not showing actual map and postcode

    - by Andy
    Im trying to pass a dynamically generated postode to a page. But currently its not showing the map correctly. Any ideas? Heres my head tag <script src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=ABQIAAAANQzcZVPOkiHWMZO3zxREGRSlIja3KBL7jZ08tky_uJrV3vVYdxTCwTHJPA2Vn06DLdnCWvRW_w7VYQ" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="Javascript" type="text/javascript"> var localSearch; var map; var icon; var addressMarkerOptions; google.load("search", "1"); google.load("maps", "2"); google.setOnLoadCallback(initialize); function initialize() { localSearch = new GlocalSearch(); icon = new GIcon(G_DEFAULT_ICON); addressMarkerOptions = { icon:icon , draggable: false}; map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); map.addControl(new GMapTypeControl()); plotAddress("OX4 1FJ"); } /** * This takes either a postcode or an address string * */ function plotAddress(address) { localSearch.setSearchCompleteCallback(null, function() { if (localSearch.results[0]) { var resultLat = localSearch.results[0].lat; var resultLng = localSearch.results[0].lng; var point = new GLatLng(resultLat,resultLng); var marker = new GMarker(point, addressMarkerOptions); map.addOverlay(marker); map.setCenter(point, 5, G_NORMAL_MAP); } else { alert('address not found'); } }); localSearch.execute(address + ", UK"); } </script> It slots into the code below: <div id="map">Loading...</div>

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  • wpf error template - red box still visible on collapse of an expander

    - by Andy Clarke
    Hi, I'm doing some validation on the DataSource of TextBox that's within an Expander and have found that once a validation error has been triggered, if I collapse the Expander, the red box stays where the TextBox would have been. <Expander Header="Blah Blah Blah"> <TextBox Name="TextBox" Validation.ErrorTemplate="{DynamicResource TextBoxErrorTemplate}" Text="{Binding Path=Blah, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged, ValidatesOnDataErrors=True}" /> </Expander> I've tried to get round this by binding the visibility of the Error Template to the Expander, however I think there's something wrong with the binding. <local:NotVisibleConverter x:Key="NotVisibleConverter" /> <ControlTemplate x:Key="TextBoxErrorTemplate"> <DockPanel> <Border BorderBrush="Red" BorderThickness="2" Visibility="{Binding Path=IsExpanded, Converter={StaticResource NotVisibleConverter}, RelativeSource={RelativeSource AncestorType=Expander}}" > <AdornedElementPlaceholder Name="MyAdorner" /> </Border> </DockPanel> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="Validation.HasError" Value="true"> <Setter Property="ToolTip" Value="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=(Validation.Errors)[0].ErrorContent}"/> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> I guess I've gone wrong with my binding, can someone put me back on track please? Alternatively does anyone know another solution to the ErrorTemplate still being visible on the collapse of an Expander?

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  • customize Help Center Live HLC

    - by Andy
    Hi, I just installed Help Center Live which works fine, but I would like to make just one minor adjustment and after looking almost everywhere I couldn't find the file where the text was listen in. At the end of each chat the user can request a copy of the transcript. I tested it and it got into the spam folder of my email client. Why, I don't know, but the point here is I would lik to add some text. After a user finishes a chat session, he or she gets a page hcl/live/chat/end.php with the following text displayed somewhere: "To e-mail yourself a copy of the transcript, please enter your e-mail address below." After entering the address and pressing submit there is a confirmation message: "A copy of the transcript has been sent to your e-mail address." And I would like to add: "Please check your spam folder if you haven't received your transcript" How can this be done? Thanks.

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  • Netbeans-esque retrospective auto-comment/phpDocumentor tool (for Eclipse or standalone)

    - by Andy
    Is there anything similar to netbean's Javadoc auto comment tool for PHP/phpDocumentor/Eclipse? In the netbeans implementation: A dialog pops up and allows you to run through all the members of your class and enter comments, which are added to the source file. It even verifies that there are no parameters you have not accounted for, so you can be sure that your comments are complete. Ideally this would be standalone software, but plugins are OK too :) p.s. netbeans 6+ auto comment was moved/renamed. Now in "Tool-Options", Tab: "Java Code", Javadoc: "Hints" edit: screengrab of the original Netbeans tool:

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  • How can I capture the keystroke that triggers "CellEndEdit" on a DataGridView in C#?

    - by Andy Stampor
    I have a DataGridView that is set to EditOnF2. I do some special processing of data in the CellEndEdit eventhandler that sets the value of the cell. I still want the functionality of the EditOnKeystrokeOrF2 of reverting to the original value when the Esc key is pressed. Unfortunately, at the CellEndEdit eventhandler, I don't see a way to tell what caused the CellEndEdit event to be fired. I only want to change the value of the cell if the Esc key is not pressed. How can I tell if it was or not? Edit: It is worth noting that the KeyDown event does not get fired when the cell is being edited, nor for the final ending keystroke. Edit2: I have tried the KeyPreview suggestion, but the form still does not capture the Escape key being pressed. Edit3: I've been experimenting with trying to get this working. I originally posted some of the following as a separate post, but feel it might be more relevant to include it here. I have a cell in a DataGridView that is now set to EditProgrammatically. To capture the keystroke that starts an edit, I am setting the cell.Value equal to the keystroke. However, this ruins the "Escape" functionality of the cell - when you press escape, instead of reverting to the original value, it reverts to the keystroke that I programmatically inserted into the cell. I believe that if I could set the "EditedFormattedValue" on a cell, this would be where I want to put my keystroke value, however this appears to be read only. How can I accomplish what I am attempting? An example to clarify: If the cell has a value of "54.3" in it, and I press the "9" key, it begins editing the cell and places a "9" there. If I hit Escape, instead of reverting to "54.3" it reverts to "9". What I want is for it to return to its original value of "54.3". So, I am trying to tackle this issue from both the beginning and the end. I think the real problem is that I am overwriting the original value and have no way to determine if I should revert it or not. Edit4: It looks like CellValidating might be worth using, but I am seeing strange behavior when I experiment with it. In a new project, I create the DataGridView and register for the various events and see that CellValidating is fired before the CellEndEdit. However, in my project where I am trying to get this to work, CellEndEdit is firing BEFORE CellValidating. Any ideas on what the difference might be?

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  • MySQL Query Help

    - by Andy
    I need to find the category id in the products table below. However the cms_ecom_categories.id is wrapped with the & character like &12&. Is there some kind of wild card i could use to wrap around? like %cms_ecom_categories.id% ? $sql = "SELECT * FROM cms_ecom_products, cms_ecom_categories WHERE cms_ecom_products.pCategories = cms_ecom_categories.id AND cms_ecom_categories.slug = ".$page.""; Thanks to all in advance who can help.

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  • Network Authentication when running exe from WMI

    - by Andy
    Hi, I have a C# exe that needs to be run using WMI and access a network share. However, when I access the share I get an UnauthorizedAccessException. If I run the exe directly the share is accessible. I am using the same user account in both cases. There are two parts to my application, a GUI client that runs on a local PC and a backend process that runs on a remote PC. When the client needs to connect to the backend it first launches the remote process using WMI (code reproduced below). The remote process does a number of things including accessing a network share using Directory.GetDirectories() and reports back to the client. When the remote process is launched automatically by the client using WMI, it cannot access the network share. However, if I connect to the remote machine using Remote Desktop and manually launch the backend process, access to the network share succeeds. The user specifed in the WMI call and the user logged in for the Remote Desktop session are the same, so the permissions should be the same, shouldn't they? I see in the MSDN entry for Directory.Exists() it states "The Exists method does not perform network authentication. If you query an existing network share without being pre-authenticated, the Exists method will return false." I assume this is related? How can I ensure the user is authenticated correctly in a WMI session? ConnectionOptions opts = new ConnectionOptions(); opts.Username = username; opts.Password = password; ManagementPath path = new ManagementPath(string.Format("\\\\{0}\\root\\cimv2:Win32_Process", remoteHost)); ManagementScope scope = new ManagementScope(path, opts); scope.Connect(); ObjectGetOptions getOpts = new ObjectGetOptions(); using (ManagementClass mngClass = new ManagementClass(scope, path, getOpts)) { ManagementBaseObject inParams = mngClass.GetMethodParameters("Create"); inParams["CommandLine"] = commandLine; ManagementBaseObject outParams = mngClass.InvokeMethod("Create", inParams, null); }

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  • would like to create a .php file that reads an .xml file and delivers xml output from the .xml file

    - by Andy
    I know it sounds weird but I need it for a workaround. So some link in an ActionScript links for a .php file. As I am unable to edit this link in the AS I need some workaround. I have the xml and the .php file needs to output that exact xml code. How can this be done. Ultimately I would like to create a .php script that outputs xml. Where can I find instructions on how to do this? thanks!

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  • C# - NetworkChangeEventHandler

    - by Andy
    I have small application which catches Network Availability change and its working very fine in client Desktop m/c (which is having XP) But when I tested the same in Vista by disabling the network and enabling it again..the event is not getting triggered. NetworkChange.NetworkAvailabilityChanged += new NetworkAvailabilityChangedEventHandler(NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged); private void NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged(object sender, NetworkAvailabilityEventArgs e) {.....} Does .Net framework 3.5 got any new solution introduced ...

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  • Upload a file to SharePoint through the built-in web services

    - by Andy McCluggage
    What is the best way to upload a file to a Document Library on a SharePoint server through the built-in web services that version WSS 3.0 exposes? Following the two initial answers... We definitely need to use the Web Service layer as we will be making these calls from remote client applications. The WebDAV method would work for us, but we would prefer to be consistent with the web service integration method. There is additionally a web service to upload files, painful but works all the time. Are you referring to the “Copy” service? We have been successful with this service’s CopyIntoItems method. Would this be the recommended way to upload a file to Document Libraries using only the WSS web service API? I have posted our code as a suggested answer.

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  • Qt LGPL licencing for a free application with closed source

    - by Andy M
    Hey everyone, I'm working on an application developped with Qt 4.6.2. I'm linking dynamicaly and I don't want to share my source code. The application is totally free and I don't plan on selling any part of it. I did not make any changes in the Qt library, I'm only using it to develop the application... I just want to share my free application, without having to share the source code... My question is, what would be your advices in choosing the correct licencing ? Thanks in advance for your answers !

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  • Launching desired version of XCode from Finder

    - by Andy J Buchanan
    My google-fu has failed me, and I guess this may be basic OS X/Xcode knowledge but.... When I double click .xcodeproj files, I'm getting the Beta I have installed launching instead of the stable release - which is the one I actually want. I have tried changing the launch program in the finder info window, but it always displays as "Xcode" and doesn't seem to accept that there are different versions - even though it offers them to me in the drop down list. Is there an xcode setting for this? Thanks.

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  • Jquery Slide to position on click

    - by Andy
    Here's a scenario... I have a column. In the column i have multiple divs with text inside each one. A bit like a list of categories. Which ever one is SELECTED gains a different background colour. What i would like to be able to do is use jquery so that when a different div is clicked on the background colour appears to slide behind the rest of the items until it reaches the one you selected. Does anyone have any idea if this can be done? And if so any idea on Markup? Any help is greatly appreciated.

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  • 2d int array Drawing Canvas

    - by Andy
    How do you print out the contents of a 2d int array Ive code written in java for a sudoku game and im trying to create a game on the android using the same code My code in java reads in a text file(sudoku grid) i see canvas.drawText will read in a string, but how do you do it for a 2d int array, so it prints out in a grid?

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  • possible to recreate xml out of ActionScript?

    - by Andy
    Hi, I got stuck with an SWF which has ActionScript in it and should use some xml. The problem is, I cannot edit the SWF by decompiling it and compile it again, it simply doesn't work... Adobe Flash CS4 rebuilds the thing, but after I press CTRL+ENTER I get a lot of runtime errors (probably something to do with AS <- AS2 <- AS3 and don't know how to fix that). So the question is: can I reconstruct how the xml should look like? I am able to view all the actionscript code with Flash Decompiler Gold and ain't gettin much smarter. Maybe I could post the code if someone desire it. thanks

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  • How do I shift items in an array in C#?

    - by Andy Evans
    Let's say that I have an array of strings like this: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 and I want to shift the elements of the array such that The first element always remains fixed Only the remaining elements get shifted like so ... The last element in the array becomes the 2nd element and is shifted through the array with each pass. Pass #1: 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 Pass #2: 1, 8, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 Pass #3: 1, 7, 8, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 Pass #4: 1, 6, 7, 8, 2, 3, 4, 5 Any assistance would be greatly appreciated.

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  • PEAR mail not sending to .eu email addresses

    - by andy-score
    I have a PEAR mailing script that is used to send newsletters from a clients website. I've used the same code before to produce another newsletter system and it has worked well and been used to send emails to various addresses, however our latest client has email addresses ending .eu and this seems to cause a problem. When the newsletter is sent from the site to the various subscribers, including gmail, hotmail, yahoo and our own company emails, the emails are received correctly by all but the clients email addresses, the ones ending in .eu. As there is nothing different between their mailing system and our own, which is run from the same hosting company, I have to conclude that it is something to do with the domain name. The emails are being sent to the addresses from the system, as I have a log file storing the email addresses when the mail out function is called, but the newsletter never appears in the inbox. I have created a new email account for the domain and that too isn't receiving the emails. It's not going into a spam folder as the webmail system marks spam by adding SPAM into the subject. I've tried to log if there are any errors using the following foreach($subscribers as $recipient) { $send_newsletter = $mail->send($recipient, $headers, $body); // LOG INFO $message = $recipient; if($send_newsletter) { $message .= ' SENT'; } elseif(PEAR::isError($send_newsletter)) { $message .= ' ERROR: '.$send_newsletter->getMessage(); } $message .= ' | '; fwrite($log_file,$message); } However this simple returns SENT for all recipients, so in theory there isn't anything wrong with the mailing function. I don't know a great deal about PEAR or the mailing function so I may be missing something important, but I'd have thought seeing the last thing to happen is sending the email out, and that seems to work, then it should reach the clients inbox. Is this something to do with the PEAR mailing function not liking .eu addresses or is it more likely to be something wrong in my code or with their domain? Any help is greatly appreciated as the client and myself are getting both confused and frustrated by the whole thing. Cheers

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  • UITouch Events and Table Views

    - by Andy
    I'm working on a navigation-based iPhone-only app that serves two main purposes: One, to present data in a hierarchical view, allowing users to drill down and eventually edit said data, and, two, to all users to perform a default action when the table view cell is tapped. I now need to offer a small set of options tied to the same data; however, both the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: and accessoryButtonTappedForRowAtIndexPath: methods are obviously taken. So, my options seem to be to implement a double-tap method, wherein the small list of additional options would be presented after (you guessed it) a double-tap on said table row; or, preferably, a tap-and-hold method. From what I can tell, tap-and-hold seems like the way to go in SDK 4.0 - which does me no good right this red-hot minute. I decided to go with the double-tap option, but I'm having a little trouble. First and foremost, the touchesBegan:withEvent: method does not seem to be getting called at all; a breakpoint placed within the method is never called while the application runs, and the table view responds exactly as it did before I inserted the method (which is to say, it performs the default action): - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *aTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (aTouch.tapCount == 2) { [NSObject cancelPreviousPerformRequestsWithTarget:self]; } } Second, I don't really need to handle a single-tap - the didSelectRowAtIndexPath: method can handle the single-tap just fine. The double-tap is the funky one I want to handle. I suspect the answer is going to contain the phrase, "You can't have the table view handle the single-tap and the touchesBegan: method handle the double-tap. The touch handling methods have to handle all of them." I would really appreciate some guidance from some of you who've dealt with this issue. Thanks in advance.

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  • Plist array , cannot change dictonaries inside

    - by Andy Jacobs
    i have a plist that's at its root an array with dictonaries inside it. i load a plist from my recourses as an NSMutableArray. [NSMutableArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:[[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"Filters" ofType:@"plist"]] i store it into nsuserdefault because it has to be persistent between startups. [[NSUserDefaults standardUserDefaults] setObject:array forKey:@"filters"]; but i can't change the dictonaries in the array because they are not mutable. how can i make them mutable?

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  • Subquery max sequence number

    - by Andy Levesque
    I'm hesitant to ask because I'm sure it's out there, but I just can't seem to come up with the keywords to find the answer. I'm stepping outside my boundaries by starting with subqueries (normally an Access user). I have a query that has TECH_ID, SEQ_NBR, and PELL_FT_AWD_AMT SELECT ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.TECH_ID, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.AWD_YR, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.PELL_FT_AWD_AMT, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.SEQ_NBR FROM ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT GROUP BY ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.TECH_ID, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.AWD_YR, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.PELL_FT_AWD_AMT, ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.SEQ_NBR HAVING (((ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.AWD_YR)="2013")) ORDER BY ISRS_V_NEED_ANAL_RESULT_PARENT.TECH_ID; What I want to return is add a subquery that selects only the max SEQ_NUM for each record, but I can't seem to get the syntax right. In the past I would cheat and have a separate query that first gave me the TECH_ID and max SEQ_NUM, and then have a second query that use the original table and the first query in a join to get the rest. How can I do this in one query? Example: TECH_ID SEQ_NUM PELL 1 1 4000 1 2 4000 1 3 5000 Using just the max of the sequence number still returns: 1; 2; 4000 and 1; 3; 5000 when I'm only wanting the latter.

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