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  • Problem with incomplete type while trying to detect existence of a member function

    - by abir
    I was trying to detect existence of a member function for a class where the function tries to use an incomplete type. The typedef is struct foo; typedef std::allocator<foo> foo_alloc; The detection code is struct has_alloc { template<typename U,U x> struct dummy; template<typename U> static char check(dummy<void* (U::*)(std::size_t),&U::allocate>*); template<typename U> static char (&check(...))[2]; const static bool value = (sizeof(check<foo_alloc>(0)) == 1); }; So far I was using incomplete type foo with std::allocator without any error on VS2008. However when I replaced it with nearly an identical implementation as template<typename T> struct allocator { T* allocate(std::size_t n) { return (T*)operator new (sizeof(T)*n); } }; it gives an error saying that as T is incomplete type it has problem instantiating allocator<foo> because allocate uses sizeof. GCC 4.5 with std::allocator also gives the error, so it seems during detection process the class need to be completely instantiated, even when I am not using that function at all. What I was looking for is void* allocate(std::size_t) which is different from T* allocate(std::size_t). My questions are (I have three questions, but as they are correlated , so I thought it is better not to create three separate questions). Why MS std::allocator doesn't check for incomplete type foo while instantiating? Are they following any trick which can be implemented ? Why the compiler need to instantiate allocator<T> to check the existence of the function when sizeof is not used as sfinae mechanism to remove/add allocate in the overload resolutions set? It should be noted that, if I remove the generic implementation of allocate leaving the declaration only, and specialized it for foo afterwards such as struct foo{}; template< struct allocator { foo* allocate(std::size_t n) { return (foo*)operator new (sizeof(foo)*n); } }; after struct has_alloc it compiles in GCC 4.5 while gives error in VS2008 as allocator<T> is already instantiated and explicit specialization for allocator<foo> already defined. Is it legal to use nested types for an std::allocator of incomplete type such as typedef foo_alloc::pointer foo_pointer; ? Though it is practically working for me, I suspect the nested types such as pointer may depend on completeness of type it takes. It will be good to know if there is any possible way to typedef such types as foo_pointer where the type pointer depends on completeness of foo. NOTE : As the code is not copy paste from editor, it may have some syntax error. Will correct it if I find any. Also the codes (such as allocator) are not complete implementation, I simplified and typed only the portion which I think useful for this particular problem.

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  • How to get a subdomain to point a different server than the main domain

    - by alexchoi
    I have a site at say: foo.com and I would like the subdomain blog.foo.com to point to fooblog.com blog.foo.com - fooblog.com However, our DNS provider says that if we do an alias such as that, since the provider at fooblog.com does not recognize the name blog.foo.com. We asked if we could just point blog.foo.com at the IP address of fooblog.com and they say the same problem will occur. Any advice? Due to our configuration we can't really put the blog on foo.com. We are willing to move our hosting and even our domain name hosting if necessary. -- Yes, I am a n00b when it comes to DNS.

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  • Is there any functional difference between immutable value types and immutable reference types?

    - by Kendall Frey
    Value types are types which do not have an identity. When one variable is modified, other instances are not. Using Javascript syntax as an example, here is how a value type works. var foo = { a: 42 }; var bar = foo; bar.a = 0; // foo.a is still 42 Reference types are types which do have an identity. When one variable is modified, other instances are as well. Here is how a reference type works. var foo = { a: 42 }; var bar = foo; bar.a = 0; // foo.a is now 0 Note how the example uses mutatable objects to show the difference. If the objects were immutable, you couldn't do that, so that kind of testing for value/reference types doesn't work. Is there any functional difference between immutable value types and immutable reference types? Is there any algorithm that can tell the difference between a reference type and a value type if they are immutable? Reflection is cheating. I'm wondering this mostly out of curiosity.

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  • Checking preconditions or not

    - by Robert Dailey
    I've been wanting to find a solid answer to the question of whether or not to have runtime checks to validate input for the purposes of ensuring a client has stuck to their end of the agreement in design by contract. For example, consider a simple class constructor: class Foo { public: Foo( BarHandle bar ) { FooHandle handle = GetFooHandle( bar ); if( handle == NULL ) { throw std::exception( "invalid FooHandle" ); } } }; I would argue in this case that a user should not attempt to construct a Foo without a valid BarHandle. It doesn't seem right to verify that bar is valid inside of Foo's constructor. If I simply document that Foo's constructor requires a valid BarHandle, isn't that enough? Is this a proper way to enforce my precondition in design by contract? So far, everything I've read has mixed opinions on this. It seems like 50% of people would say to verify that bar is valid, the other 50% would say that I shouldn't do it, for example consider a case where the user verifies their BarHandle is correct, but a second (and unnecessary) check is also being done inside of Foo's constructor.

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  • C++ and system exceptions

    - by Abyx
    Why standard C++ doesn't respect system (foreign or hardware) exceptions? E.g. when null pointer dereference occurs, stack isn't unwound, destructors aren't called, and RAII doesn't work. The common advice is "to use system API". But on certain systems, specifically Win32, this doesn't work. To enable stack unwinding for this C++ code // class Foo; // void bar(const Foo&); bar(Foo(1, 2)); one should generate something like this C code Foo tempFoo; Foo_ctor(&tempFoo); __try { bar(&tempFoo); } __finally { Foo_dtor(&tempFoo); } Foo_dtor(&tempFoo); and it's impossible to implement this as C++ library. Upd: Standard doesn't forbid handling system exceptions. But it seems that popular compilers like g++ doesn't respect system exceptions on any platforms just because standard doesn't require this. The only thing that I want - is to use RAII to make code readable and program reliable. I don't want to put hand-crafted try\finally around every call to unknown code. For example in this reusable code, AbstractA::foo is such unknown code: void func(AbstractA* a, AbstractB* b) { TempFile file; a->foo(b, file); } Maybe one will pass to func such implementation of AbstractA, which every Friday will not check if b is NULL, so access violation will happen, application will terminate and temporary file will not be deleted. How many months uses will suffer because of this issue, until either author of func or author of AbstractA will do something with it? Related: Is `catch(...) { throw; }` a bad practice?

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  • Best way to lay-out the website when sections of it are almost identical

    - by Linas
    so, I have a minisite for the mobile application that I did. The mobile application is a public transport (transit) schedule viewer for a particular city (let's call it Foo), and I'm trying to sell it via that minisite. I publish that minisite in www.myawesomeapplication.com/foo/. It has the usual "standard" subpages, like "About", "Compatible phones", "Contact", etc. Now, I have decided to create analogue mobile application for other cities, Bar and Baz. These mobile applications (products) would be almost identical to the one for the Foo city, thus the minisites for those would (should) look very similar too (except for some artwork and Foo = Bar replacement). The question is: what do you think would be the most logical way to lay-out the website in this situation, both from the business and search engine perspective? In other words, should I just duplicate the /foo/ website to /bar/ and /baz/, or would it be better to try to create a single website under root path (/)? I don't want search engine penalties for almost-duplicate information under /foo/, /bar/ and /baz/, and also I don't want a messy, non-localized website (I guess the user is more likely to buy something if he/she sees "This-and-that is the application for NYC, the city you live in", not "This-and-that is the application for city A, city B, ..., NYC, ..., and city Z.")

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  • Want Google to index redirect urls

    - by Dave Goten
    I'm having issues with users who think that Google Search is the address bar. Some of the sites that link to my site use user friendly addresses with 301 redirects to pages that have less friendly URLs. So, for example if I enter www.foo.com/bar it goes to www.bar.com/page.php?some-parameters-and-utm-codes-etc usually this is done by a 301 redirect in order to keep the SEO from foo.com on bar.com and so on, which I believe is standard practice. However, lately there have been more and more people searching www.foo.com/bar instead of going to www.foo.com/bar directly and because the page /bar is nothing more than a redirect it has no SEO that I know of. Things I've thought of but haven't been able to test, because Google takes forever to update :) (and I'm lazy like that), include using Google sitemaps and having them enter their redirects as entries there. (I could see this working if they were the top search entry all the time, and it might appear as a sitelink, but I don't know if that'll make the url itself show up in searches) Using Canonical tags on my pages to the redirects they set up. Which is a nightmare in itself because of the nature of my pages. One week the www.foo.com/bar might go to www.bar.com/pageA.php the next it might goto www.bar.com/pageB.php and having to remember to take the canonical tag off of pageA, so that it doesn't get confused with pageB would be a pain. Using 302 redirects -.- So I guess the question here is, does anyone have any experience or knowledge about this? What should I do to make www.foo.com/bar show up when someone 'searches' for this redirect url?

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  • Difference in String concatenation performance

    - by Homer
    I know you should use a StringBuilder when concatenating strings but I was just wondering if there is a difference in concatenating string variables and string literals. So, is there a difference in performance in building s1, s2, and s3? string foo = "foo"; string bar = "bar"; string s1 = "foo" + "bar"; string s2 = foo + "bar"; string s3 = foo + bar;

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  • Visual Studio 2008 - Add Reference

    - by James Sun
    When adding a DLL as a reference to an ASP.Net project, VS2008 adds several files to the bin directory. If the DLL is called foo.dll, VS2008 adds foo.dll.refresh, foo.pdb and foo.xml. I know what foo.dll is :-), why does VS2008 add the other three files? What do those three files do? Can I delete them? Do they need to be added in source control?

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  • multiple stateful iframes per page will overwrite JSESSIONID?

    - by Nikita
    Hello, Looking for someone to either confirm or refute my theory that deploying two iframes pointing to two different stateful pages on the same domain can lead to JSESSIONIDs being overwritten. Here's what I mean: Setup suppose you have two pages that require HttpSession state (session affinity) to function correctly - deployed at http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 assume www.foo.com is a single host running a Tomcat (6.0.20, fwiw) that uses JSESSIONID for session id's. suppose these pages are turned into two iframe widgets to be embedded on 3rd party sites: http://www.site.com/page1" / (and /page2 respectively) suppose there a 3rd party site that wishes to place both widgets on the same page at http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html Can the following race condition occur? a new visitor goes to http://www.bar.com/foowidgets.html browser starts loading URLs in foowidgets.html including the two iframe 'src' URLs because browsers open multiple concurrent connections against the same host (afaik up to 6 in chrome/ff case) the browser happens to simultaneously issue requests for http://www.foo.com/page1 and http://www.foo.com/page2 The tomcat @ foo.com receives both requests at about the same time, calls getSession() for the first time (on two different threads) and lazily creates two HttpSessions and, thus, two JSESSIONIDs, with values $Page1 and $Page2. The requests also stuff data into respective sessions (that data will be required to process subsequent requests) assume that the browser first receives response to the page1 request. Browser sets cookie JSESSIONID=$Page1 for HOST www.foo.com next response to the page2 request is received and the browser overwrites cookie JSESSIONID for HOST www.foo.com with $Page2 user clicks on something in 'page1' iframe on foowidgets.html; browser issues 2nd request to http://www.foo.com/page1?action=doSomethingStateful. That request carries JSESSIONID=$Page2 (and not $Page1 - because cookie value was overwritten) when foo.com receives this request it looks up the wrong HttpSession instance (because JSESSIONID key is $Page2 and NOT $Page1). Foobar! Can the above happen? I think so, but would appreciate a confirmation. If the above is clearly possible, what are some solutions given that we'd like to support multiple iframes per page? We don't have a firm need for the iframes to share the same HttpSession, though that would be nice. In the event that the solution will still stipulate a separate HttpSession per iframe, it is - of course - mandatory that iframe 1 does not end up referencing httpSession state for iframe 2 instead of own. off top of my head I can think of: map page1 and page2 to different domains (ops overhead) use URL rewriting and never cookies (messes up analytics) anything else? thanks a lot, -nikita

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  • How do I call a super class method

    - by KandadaBoggu
    I have two classes A, and B. Class B overrides the foo method of class A. Class B has a bar method where I want to call the foo method of the super class. What is the syntax for such a call? class A def foo "hello" end end class B def foo super + " world" end def bar # how to call the `foo` method of the super class? # something similar to super.foo end end

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  • Spring transaction demarcation causes new Hibernate session despite use of OSIV

    - by Kelly Ellis
    I'm using Hibernate with OpenSessionInViewInterceptor so that a single Hibernate session will be used for the entire HTTP request (or so I wish). The problem is that Spring-configured transaction boundaries are causing a new session to be created, so I'm running into the following problem (pseudocode): Start in method marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.SUPPORTS, readOnly = false) Hibernate session #1 starts Call DAO method to update object foo; foo gets loaded into session cache for session #1 Call another method to update foo.bar, this one is marked @Transactional(propagation = Propagation.REQUIRED, readOnly = false) Transaction demarcation causes suspension of current transaction synchronization, which temporarily unbinds the current Hibernate session Hibernate session #2 starts since there's no currently-existing session Update field bar on foo (loading foo into session cache #2); persist to DB Transaction completes and method returns, session #1 resumes Call yet another method to update another field on foo Load foo from session cache #1, with old, incorrect value of bar Update field foo.baz, persist foo to DB foo.bar's old value overwrites the change we made in the previous step Configuration looks like: <bean name="openSessionInViewInterceptor" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.support.OpenSessionInViewInterceptor" autowire="byName"> <property name="flushModeName"> <value>FLUSH_AUTO</value> </property> </bean> <bean id="txManager" class="org.springframework.jdbc.datasource.DataSourceTransactionManager"> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> <bean id="sessionFactory" class="org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.LocalSessionFactoryBean"> <property name="useTransactionAwareDataSource" value="true" /> <property name="mappingLocations"> <list> <value>/WEB-INF/xml/hibernate/content.hbm.xml</value> </list> </property> <property name="lobHandler"> <ref local="oracleLobHandler" /> </property> <!--property name="entityInterceptor" ref="auditLogInterceptor" /--> <property name="hibernateProperties" ref="HibernateProperties" /> <property name="dataSource" ref="myDataSource" /> </bean> I've done some debugging and figured out exactly where this is happening, here is the stack trace: Daemon Thread [http-8080-1] (Suspended (entry into method doUnbindResource in TransactionSynchronizationManager)) TransactionSynchronizationManager.doUnbindResource(Object) line: 222 TransactionSynchronizationManager.unbindResource(Object) line: 200 SpringSessionSynchronization.suspend() line: 115 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).doSuspendSynchronization() line: 620 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).suspend(Object) line: 549 DataSourceTransactionManager(AbstractPlatformTransactionManager).getTransaction(TransactionDefinition) line: 372 TransactionInterceptor(TransactionAspectSupport).createTransactionIfNecessary(TransactionAttribute, String) line: 263 TransactionInterceptor.invoke(MethodInvocation) line: 101 ReflectiveMethodInvocation.proceed() line: 171 JdkDynamicAopProxy.invoke(Object, Method, Object[]) line: 204 $Proxy14.changeVisibility(Long, ContentStatusVO, ContentAuditData) line: not available I can't figure out why transaction boundaries (even "nested" ones - though here we're just moving from SUPPORTS to REQUIRED) would cause the Hibernate session to be suspended, even though OpenSessionInViewInterceptor is in use. When the session is unbound, I see the following in my logs: [2010-02-16 18:20:59,150] DEBUG org.springframework.transaction.support.TransactionSynchronizationManager Removed value [org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.SessionHolder@7def534e] for key [org.hibernate.impl.SessionFactoryImpl@693f23a2] from thread [http-8080-1]

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  • Matching unmatched strings based on a unknown pattern

    - by Polity
    Alright guys, i really hurt my brain over this one and i'm curious if you guys can give me any pointers towards the right direction i should be taking. The situation is this: Lets say, i have a collection of strings (let it be clear that the pattern of this strings is unknown. For a fact, i can say that the string contain only signs from the ASCII table and therefore, i dont have to worry about weird Chinese signs). For this example, i take the following collection of strings (note that the strings dont have to make any human sence so dont try figguring them out :)): "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[003].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", "-001- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1", "-002- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1" Now, what i need to have is a way of finding logical groups (and subgroups) of these set of strings, so in the above example, just by rational thinking, you can combine the first 3, the 2 after that and the last 2. Also the resulting groups from the first 5 can be combined in one main group with 2 subgroups, this should give you something like this: { { "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", "[003].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test'", } { "[001].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", "[002].[FOO].[TEST] - 'foofoo.test.sample'", } { "-001- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1", "-002- BAR.[TEST] - 'bartest.xx1" } } Sorry for the layout above but indenting with 4 spaces doesnt seem to work correctly (or im frakk'n it up). Anyways, I'm not sure how to approach this problem (how to get the result desired as indicated above). First of, i thought of creating a huge set of regexes which would parse most known patterns but the amount of different patterns is just to huge that this isn't realistic. Another think i thought of was parsing each indidual word within a string (so strip all non alphabetic or numeric characters and split by those), and if X% matches, i can assume the strings belong to the same group. (where X wil probably be around 80/90). However, i find the area of speculation kinda big. For example, when matching strings with each 20 words, the change of hitting above 80% is kinda big (that means that 4 words can differ), however when matching only 8 words, 2 words at most can differ. My question to you is, what would be a logical approach in the above situation? Thanks in advance!

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  • Ruby require fails

    - by Overdose
    I don't get it why. I have foo.rb and test.rb in the same folder. I tried require 'Foo' require 'foo' require 'foo.rb' in test.rb, but whatever it fails with "in `require': no such file to load -- Foo (LoadError)"

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  • Vim + OmniCppComplete: Completing on Class Members which are STL containers

    - by Robert S. Barnes
    Completion on class members which are STL containers is failing. Completion on local objects which are STL containers works fine. For example, given the following files: // foo.h #include <string> class foo { public: void set_str(const std::string &); std::string get_str_reverse( void ); private: std::string str; }; // foo.cpp #include "foo.h" using std::string; string foo::get_str_reverse ( void ) { string temp; temp.assign(str); reverse(temp.begin(), temp.end()); return temp; } /* ----- end of method foo::get_str ----- */ void foo::set_str ( const string &s ) { str.assign(s); } /* ----- end of method foo::set_str ----- */ I've generated the tags for these two files using: ctags -R --c++-kinds=+pl --fields=+iaS --extra=+q . When I type temp. in the cpp I get a list of string member functions as expected. But if I type str. omnicppcomplete spits out "Pattern Not Found". I've noticed that the temp. completion only works if I have the using std::string; declaration. How do I get completion to work on my class members which are STL containers? Edit I found that completion on members which are STL containers works if I make the follow modifications to the header: // foo.h #include <string> using std::string; class foo { public: void set_str(const string &); string get_str_reverse( void ); private: string str; }; Basically, if I add using std::string; and then remove the std:: name space qualifier from the string str; member and regenerate the tags file then OmniCppComplete is able to do completion on str.. It doesn't seem to matter whether or not I have let OmniCpp_DefaultNamespaces = ["std", "_GLIBCXX_STD"] set in the .vimrc. The problem is that putting using declarations in header files seems like a big no-no, so I'm back to square one.

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  • Dynamically add a field to an object in matlab

    - by Marc
    Say I have a MATLAB object defined in a class file classdef foo properties bar end end And I create a foo object myfoo = foo(); Now I want to add another field to foo dynamically. What I want is foo.newfield = 42; but this will throw an error. I know there is a way to dynamically add a field/property to a MATLAB object but I can't remember it or find it easily in the help. Anyone know the syntax?

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  • virtual function

    - by hitech
    class a { virtual void foo(void) ; }; class b : public a { public: virtual void foo(void) { cout<< "class b"; } }; int main ( ) { class a *b_ptr = new b ; b_ptr->foo(); } please guide me why the b_ptr-foo() will not call the foo() function of the class b?

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  • In Sphinx, can I register a bunch of keywords that should always be translated into links?

    - by Ross Rogers
    My doc strings have references to other python classes that I've defined. Every time Sphinx encounters one of these classes, I want it to insert a link to the documentation for that other class. Is this possible in Sphinx? Specifically, I have a doc string like: '''This class contains a bunch of Foo objects''' I could write: '''This class contains a bunch of :class:`~foo.Foo` objects''' but I would prefer that Sphinx finds all text matching Foo and makes it seem as though I had typed :class:~foo.Foo

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  • strange error in haskell about indentation of if-then-else

    - by Drakosha
    I have the following code: foo :: Int -> [String] -> [(FilePath, Integer)] -> IO Int foo _ [] _ = return 4 foo _ _ [] = return 5 foo n nameREs pretendentFilesWithSizes = do result <- (bar n (head nameREs) pretendentFilesWithSizes) if result == 0 then return 0 -- <========================================== here is the error else foo n (tail nameREs) pretendentFilesWithSizes I get an error on the line with the comment above, the error is: aaa.hs:56:2: parse error (possibly incorrect indentation) I'm working with emacs, there's no spaces, and i do not understand what did i do wrong.

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  • splat operator in groovy?

    - by IttayD
    def foo(map, name) { println(map) } foo("bar", hi: "bye") will print [hi:bye] Now I have a previous map that I wish to pass along to foo. In pseudo code, something like: def otherMap = [hi: "world"] foo("bar", hi: "bye", otherMap*) So that it prints [hi:world] This doesn't work of course. Also, trying to pass just the map mixes the order of arguments: def otherMap = [hi: "world"] foo("bar", otherMap) will print bar How can I fix this?

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  • Apache mod_rewrite - prefer files over directories with pretty URLs

    - by Jesse
    I want to have pretty urls so http://www.domain.com/foo will return http://www.domain.com/foo.php The issue is that there is a directory that has the same name. I have another page at http://www.domain.com/foo/bar/baz and right now my server just returns the directory listing of foo when I request http://www.domain.com/foo Pseudocode: If the request plus ".php" is a file rewrite out the file instead of the directory Actual Code: RewriteEngine On RewriteBase / RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME}\.php -f RewriteRule (.*) $1.php [NC,L]

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  • Do I have to call release on an objective-c retain class variable when setting it to a new object?

    - by Andrew Arrow
    Say I have: @property (nonatomic,retain) NSString *foo; in some class. And I call: myclass.foo = [NSString stringWithString:@"string1"]; myclass.foo = [NSString stringWithString:@"string2"]; Should I have called [myclass.foo release] before setting it to "string2" to avoid a memory leak? Or the fact that nothing is pointing to the first "string1" object anymore is good enough? And in the dealloc method [foo release] will be called.

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