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  • Java loading user-specified classes at runtime

    - by user349043
    I'm working on robot simulation in Java (a Swing application). I have an abstract class "Robot" from which different types of Robots are derived, e.g. public class StupidRobot extends Robot { int m_stupidness; int m_insanityLevel; ... } public class AngryRobot extends Robot { float m_aggression; ... } As you can see, each Robot subclass has a different set of parameters. What I would like to do is control the simulation setup in the initial UI. Choose the number and type of Robots, give it a name, fill in the parameters etc. This is one of those times where being such a dinosaur programmer, and new to Java, I wonder if there is some higher level stuff/thinking that could help me here. So here is what I've got: (1) User Interface Scrolling list of Robot types on the left. "Add " and "<< Remove" buttons in the middle. Default-named scrolling list of Robots on the right. "Set Parameters" button underneath. (So if you wanted an AngryRobot, you'd select AngryRobot on the left list, click "Add" and "AngryRobot1" would show up on the right.) When selecting a Robot on the right, click "Set Parameters..." button which would call yet another model dialog where you'd fill in the parameters. Different dialog called for each Robot type. (2) Data structures an implementation As an end-product I think a HashMap would be most convenient. The keys would be Robot types and the accompanying object would be all of the parameters. The initializer could just retrieve each item one and a time and instantiate. Here's what the data structures would look like: enum ROBOT_TYPE {STUPID, ANGRY, etc} public class RobotInitializer { public ROBOT_TYPE m_type; public string m_name; public int[] m_int_params; public float[] m_float_params; etc. The initializer's constructor would create the appropriate length parameter arrays based on the type: public RobotInitializer(ROBOT_TYPE type, int[] int_array, float[] float_array, etc){ switch (type){ case STUPID: m_int_params = new int[STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH]; System.arraycopy(int_array,0,m_int_params,0,STUPID_INT_PARAM_LENGTH); etc. Once all the RobotInitializers are instantiated, they are added to the HashMap. Iterating through the HashMap, the simulation initializer takes items from the Hashmap and instantiates the appropriate Robots. Is this reasonable? If not, how can it be improved? Thanks

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  • infix operation to postfix using stacks

    - by Chris De La O
    We are writing a program that needs to convert an infix operation (4 5/3) to postfix (4 5 3 / ) using stacks. however my convert to postfix does not work as it doesnt not output the postFix array that is supposed to store the conversion from infix notation to postfix notation. here is the code for the convertToPostix fuction. //converts infix expression to postfix expression void ArithmeticExpression::convertToPostfix(char *const inFix, char *const postFix) { //create a stack2 object named cow Stack2<char> cow; cout<<postFix; char thing = '('; //push a left parenthesis onto the stack cow.push(thing); //append a right parenthesis to the end of inFix array strcat(inFix, ")"); int i = 0;//declare an int that will control posFix position //if the stack is not empty if (!cow.isEmpty()) { //loop to run until the last character in inFix array for (int x = 0; inFix[x]!= '\0'; x++ ) { //if the inFix element is a digit if (isdigit(inFix[x])) { postFix[i]=inFix[x];//it is assigned to the next element in postFix array i++;//move on to next element in postFix } //if the inFix element is a left parenthesis else if (inFix[x]=='(') { cow.push(inFix[x]);//push it unto the stack } //if the inFix element is an operator else if (isOperator(inFix[x])) { char oper2 = inFix[x];//char variable holds inFix operator if (isOperator(cow.stackTop()))//if the top node in the stack is an operator { while (isOperator(cow.stackTop()))//and while the top node in the stack is an operator { char oper1 = cow.stackTop();//char variable holds node operator if(precedence( oper1, oper2))//if the node operator has higher presedence than node operator { postFix[i] = cow.pop();//we pop such operator and insert it in postFix array's next element cow.push(inFix[x]);//and push inFix operator unto the stack i++;//move to the next element in posFix } } } //if the top node is not an operator //we push the current inFix operator unto the top of the stack else cow.push(inFix[x]); } //if the inFix element is a right parenthesis else if (inFix[x]==')') { //we pop everything in the stack and insert it in postFix //until we arrive at a left paranthesis while (cow.stackTop()!='(') { postFix[i] = cow.pop(); i++; } //we then pop and discard left parenthesis cow.pop(); } } postFix[i]='\0'; //print !!postFix array!! (not stack) print();//code for this is just cout<<postFix; }

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  • Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

    - by Evan
    Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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  • How to know there is something in the cell or not ?

    - by Harikrishna
    I have table like below in the html file: <table border="1"> <tr> <td>BuyQuantity</td><td>SellQuantity</td> </tr> <tr> <td>15D</td><td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></p></td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></td><td>38D</td> </tr> <tr> <td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></td><td>99D</td> </tr> <tr> <td>38D</td><td>&nbsp;<span style="font-family: &quot;Arial Unicode MS&quot;;"><o:p></o:p></span></td> </tr> </table> There are two columns: buy-quantity and sell-quantity.(It is only example but in each html file there is different content in the table.) Now with the content of these two columns I want to decide there is items bought or items sold.Like in the first row there is 15d buy-qauntity then items were bought and in the second row there is 38d sell-qauntity then items were sold and so on. And after deciding there is items-bought or items-sold I want to build one column named buy/sell for this table like below: ![alt text][1] [1]: http://C:\Documents and Settings\Administrator\My Documents\My Pictures\untitled.png How can I do this ?

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  • data from few MySQL tables sorted by ASC

    - by Andrew
    In the dbase I 've few tables named as aaa_9xxx, aaa_9yyy, aaa_9zzz. I want to find all data with a specified DATE and show it with the TIME ASC. First, I must find a tables in the dbase: $STH_1a = $DBH->query("SELECT table_name FROM information_schema.tables WHERE table_name LIKE 'aaa\_9%' "); foreach($STH_1a as $row) { $table_name_s1[] = $row['table_name']; } Second, I must find a data wit a concrete date and show it with TIME ASC: foreach($table_name_s1 as $table_name_1) { $STH_1a2 = $DBH->query("SELECT * FROM `$table_name_1` WHERE date = '2011-11-11' ORDER BY time ASC "); while ($row = $STH_1a2->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) { echo " ".$table_name_1."-".$row['time']."-".$row['ei_name']." <br>"; } } .. but it shows the data sorted by tables name, then by TIME ASC. I must to have all this data (from all tables) sorted by TIME ASC. Thank You dev-null-dweller, Andrew Stubbs and Jaison Erick for your help. I test the Erick solution : foreach($STH_1a as $row) { $stmts[] = sprintf('SELECT * FROM %s WHERE date="%s"', $row['table_name'], '2011-11-11'); } $stmt = implode("\nUNION\n", $stmts); $stmt .= "\nORDER BY time ASC"; $STH_1a2 = $DBH->query($stmt); while ($row_1a2 = $STH_1a2->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) { echo " ".$row['table_name']."-".$row_1a2['time']."-".$row_1a2['ei_name']." <br>"; } it's working but I've problem with 'table_name' - it's always the LAST table name. //---------------------------------------------------------------------- end the ending solution with all fixes, thanks all for your help, :)) foreach($STH_1a as $row) { $stmts[] = sprintf("SELECT *, '%s' AS table_name FROM %s WHERE date='%s'", $row['table_name'], $row['table_name'], '2011-11- 11'); } $stmt = implode("\nUNION\n", $stmts); $stmt .= "\nORDER BY time ASC"; $STH_1a2 = $DBH->query($stmt); while ($row_1a2 = $STH_1a2->fetch(PDO::FETCH_ASSOC)) { echo " ".$row_1a2['table_name']."-".$row_1a2['time']."-".$row_1a2['ei_name']." <br>"; }

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  • How do I use Ruby metaprogramming to refactor this common code?

    - by James Wenton
    I inherited a project with a lot of badly-written Rake tasks that I need to clean up a bit. Because the Rakefiles are enormous and often prone to bizarre nonsensical dependencies, I'm simplifying and isolating things a bit by refactoring everything to classes. Specifically, that pattern is the following: namespace :foobar do desc "Frozz the foobar." task :frozzify do unless Rake.application.lookup('_frozzify') require 'tasks/foobar' Foobar.new.frozzify end Rake.application['_frozzify'].invoke end # Above pattern repeats many times. end # Several namespaces, each with tasks that follow this pattern. In tasks/foobar.rb, I have something that looks like this: class Foobar def frozzify() # The real work happens here. end # ... Other tasks also in the :foobar namespace. end For me, this is great, because it allows me to separate the task dependencies from each other and to move them to another location entirely, and I've been able to drastically simplify things and isolate the dependencies. The Rakefile doesn't hit a require until you actually try to run a task. Previously this was causing serious issues because you couldn't even list the tasks without it blowing up. My problem is that I'm repeating this idiom very frequently. Notice the following patterns: For every namespace :xyz_abc, there is a corresponding class in tasks/... in the file tasks/[namespace].rb, with a class name that looks like XyzAbc. For every task in a particular namespace, there is an identically named method in the associated namespace class. For example, if namespace :foo_bar has a task :apples, you would expect to see def apples() ... inside the FooBar class, which itself is in tasks/foo_bar.rb. Every task :t defines a "meta-task" _t (that is, the task name prefixed with an underscore) which is used to do the actual work. I still want to be able to specify a desc-description for the tasks I define, and that will be different for each task. And, of course, I have a small number of tasks that don't follow the above pattern at all, so I'll be specifying those manually in my Rakefile. I'm sure that this can be refactored in some way so that I don't have to keep repeating the same idiom over and over, but I lack the experience to see how it could be done. Can someone give me an assist?

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  • No Method Error Undefined method 'save' for nil:NilClass

    - by BennyB
    I'm getting this error when i try to create a "Lecture" via my Lecture controller's create method. This used to work but i went on to work on other parts of the app & then of course i come back & something is now throwing this error when a user tries to create a Lecture in my app. I'm sure its something small i'm just overlooking (been at it a while & probably need to take a break)...but I'd appreciate if someone could let me know why this is happening...let me know if i need to post anything else...thx! The error I get NoMethodError in LecturesController#create undefined method `save' for nil:NilClass Rails.root: /Users/name/Sites/rails_projects/app_name Application Trace | Framework Trace | Full Trace app/controllers/lectures_controller.rb:13:in `create' My view to create a new Lecture views/lectures/new.html.erb <% provide(:title, 'Start a Lecture') %> <div class="container"> <div class="content-wrapper"> <h1>Create a Lecture</h1> <div class="row"> <div class="span 6 offset3"> <%= form_for(@lecture) do |f| %> <%= render 'shared/error_messages', :object => f.object %> <div class="field"> <%= f.text_field :title, :placeholder => "What will this Lecture be named?" %> <%= f.text_area :content, :placeholder => "Describe this Lecture & what will be learned..." %> </div> <%= f.submit "Create this Lecture", :class => "btn btn-large btn-primary" %> <% end %> </div> </div> </div> </div> Then my controller where its saying the error is coming from controllers/lectures_controller.rb class LecturesController < ApplicationController before_filter :signed_in_user, :only => [:create, :destroy] before_filter :correct_user, :only => :destroy def index end def new @lecture = current_user.lectures.build if signed_in? end def create if @lecture.save flash[:success] = "Lecture created!" redirect_to @lecture else @activity_items = [ ] render 'new' end end def show @lecture = Lecture.find(params[:id]) end def destroy @lecture.destroy redirect_to root_path end private def correct_user @lecture = current_user.lectures.find_by_id(params[:id]) redirect_to root_path if @lecture.nil? end

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  • Symfony2 Forms: is it possible to bind a form in an "unconventional way"?

    - by DonCallisto
    Imagine this scenario: in our company there is an employee that "play" around graphic,css,html and so on. Our new project will born under symfony2 so we're trying some silly - but "real" - stuff (like authentication from db, submit data from a form and persist it to db and so on..) The problem As far i know, learnt from symfony2 "book" that i found on the site (you can find it here), there is an "automated" way for creating and rendering forms: 1) Build the form up into a controller in this way $form = $this->createFormBuilder($task) ->add('task','text'), ->add('dueDate','date'), ->getForm(); return $this->render('pathToBundle:Controller:templateTwig', array('form'=>$form->createview()); 2) Into templateTwig render the template {{ form_widget(form) }} // or single rows method 3) Into a controller (the same that have a route where you can submit data), take back submitted information if($rquest->getMethod()=='POST'){ $form->bindRequest($request); /* and so on */ } Return to scenario Our graphic employee don't want to access controllers, write php and other stuff like those. So he'll write a twig template with a "unconventional" (from symfony2 point of view, but conventional from HTML point of view) method: /* into twig template */ <form action="{{ path('SestanteUserBundle_homepage') }}" method="post" name="userForm"> <div> USERNAME: <input type="text" name="user_name" value="{{ user.username}}"/> </div> <div> EMAIL: <input type="text" name="user_mail" value="{{ user.email }}"/> </div> <input type="hidden" name="user_id" value="{{ id }}" /> <input type="submit" value="modifica i dati"> </form> Now, if into the controller that handle the submission of data we do something like that public function indexAction(Request $request) { if($request->getMethod() == 'POST'){ // sono arrivato per via di un submit, quindi devo modificare i dati prima di farli vedere a video $defaultData = array('message'=>'ho visto questa cosa in esempio, ma non capisco se posso farne a meno'); $form = $this->createFormBuilder($defaultData) ->add('user_name','text') ->add('user_mail','email') ->add('user_id','integer') ->getForm(); $form->bindRequest($request); //bindo la form ad una request $data = $form->getData(); //mi aspetto un'array chiave=>valore /* .... */ We expected that $data will contain an array with key,value from the submitted form. We found that it isn't true. After googling for a while and try with other "bad" ideas, we're frozen into that. So, if you have a "graphic office" that can't handle directly php code, how can we interface from form(s) to controller(s) ? UPDATE It seems that Symfony2 use a different convention for form's field name and lookup once you've submitted that. In particular, if my form's name is addUser and a field is named userName, the field's name will be AddUser[username] so maybe it have a "dynamic" lookup method that will extract form's name, field's name, concat them and lookup for values. Is it possible?

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • How should I organize my C# classes? [closed]

    - by oscar.fimbres
    I'm creating an email generator system. I'm creating some clases and I'm trying to make things right. By the time, I have created 5 classes. Look at the class diagram: I'm going to explain you each one. Person. It's not a big deal. Just have two constructors: Person(fname, lname1, lname2) and Person(token, fname, lname1, lname2). Note that email property stays without value. StringGenerator. This is a static class and it has only a public function: Generate. The function receives a Person class and it will return a list of patterns for the email. MySql. It contains all the necessary to connect to a database. Database. This class inherits from MySql class. It has particular functions for the database. This gets all the registries from a table (function GetPeople) and return a List. Each person from the list contains all data except Email. Also it can add records (List but this must contains an available email). An available email is when an email doesn't have another person. For that reason, I have a method named ExistsEmail. Container. This is the class which is causing me some problems. It's like a temporary container. It supposed to have a people list from GetPeople (in Database class) and for each person it adds, it must generate a list of possible names (StringGenerator.Generate), then it selects one of the list and it must check out if exists in the database or in the same container. As I told above this is temporal, it may none of the possible emails is available. So the user can modify or enter a custom email available and update the list in this container. When all the email's people are available, it sends a list to add in the database, It must have a Flush method, to insert all the people in the database. I'm trying to design correct class. I need a little help to improve or edite the classes, because I want to separate the logic and visual, and learn of you. I hope you've been able to understand me. Any question or doubt, please let me know. Anyway, I attached the solution here to better understand it: http://www.megaupload.com/?d=D94FH8GZ

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  • Action Cache for root URL not working

    - by askegg
    Here's the setup. I have web site which is essentially a simple CMS. Here is the routes file: map.connect ':url', :controller => :pages, :action => :show map.root :controller => :pages, :action => :show, :url => "/" The page controller is thus: class PagesController < ApplicationController before_filter :verify_access, :except => [:show] # Cache show action if we are not logged in. caches_action :show, :layout => false, :unless => Proc.new { |controller| controller.logged_in? } def update @page = Page.find(params[:id]) respond_to do |format| expire_action :action => :show, :url => @page.url So when a visitor hits "/" it maps to :controller = "pages, :action = "show, :url = "/". This generates a cached version on first try, then returns the appropriate result there after. The log files show: Processing PagesController#show (for 127.0.0.1 at 2009-08-02 14:15:01) [GET] Parameters: {"action"=>"show", "url"=>"/", "controller"=>"pages"} Cached fragment hit: views/out.local// (0.1ms) Rendering template within layouts/application Filter chain halted as [#<ActionController::Filters::AroundFilter:0x23eb03c @identifier=nil, @method=#<Proc:0x01904858@/Library/Ruby/Gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-2.3.3/lib/action_controller/caching/actions.rb:64>, @kind=:filter, @options={:only=>#<Set: {"show"}>, :if=>nil, :unless=>#<Proc:0x025137ac@/Users/askegg/Sites/out/app/controllers/pages_controller.rb:6>}>] did_not_yield. Completed in 2ms (View: 1, DB: 0) | 200 OK [http://out.local/] OK - all good so far. When I update the page, it should expire the cache (see above). The logs show: Page Load (0.2ms) SELECT * FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."id" = 3) Page Load (0.1ms) SELECT "pages".id FROM "pages" WHERE ("pages"."url" = '/' AND "pages".domain_id = 1 AND "pages".id <> 3) LIMIT 1 Expired fragment: views/out.local/index (0.1ms) Redirected to http://out.local/pages/3 Completed in 9ms (DB: 0) | 302 Found [http://out.local/pages/3] See the problem? Rails is clearing the cache named "index", but it sets it as "/". Naturally this results in the cache NOT being cleared, so visitors are now seeing the old version.

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  • use simplexml to get attributes of elements

    - by user1291894
    I am trying to parse an xml file with a soap envelope from a web service using php. I would like to use SoapClient, but I get an error back that 'page must be viewed over secure channel SSL', which I think is an issue on their end, so I gave up on that. Currently I am using curl to get a result back. Then I put it into a simplexml object like so: <?php $xml = @simplexml_load_string($result, NULL, NULL, "http://schemas.xmlsoap.org/soap/envelope/"); $xml->registerXPathNamespace('xs', 'http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema'); $output = $xml->xpath('//soap:Body'); ?> I now have this: Array ( [0] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [GetDocumentListResponse] => SimpleXMLElement Object ( [GetDocumentListResult] => <NewDataSet> <xs:schema id="NewDataSet" xmlns="" xmlns:xs="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns:msdata="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xml-msdata"> <xs:element name="_x0023_temp_list"> <xs:complexType> <xs:attribute name="tran_datetime" type="xs:string" /> <xs:attribute name="sender" type="xs:string" /> <xs:attribute name="doc_type_num" type="xs:string" /> <xs:attribute name="doc_date" type="xs:string" /> <xs:attribute name="doc_num" type="xs:string" /> <xs:attribute name="doc_sys_no" type="xs:string" /> <xs:attribute name="is_new" type="xs:string" /> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> <xs:element name="NewDataSet" msdata:IsDataSet="true" msdata:UseCurrentLocale="true"> <xs:complexType> <xs:choice minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="unbounded"> <xs:element ref="_x0023_temp_list" /> </xs:choice> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> </xs:schema> <_x0023_temp_list tran_datetime="2012-03-22T13:37:17.237" sender="webservice" doc_type_num="100" doc_date="2012-03-22T13:37:17.253" doc_num="12345" doc_sys_no="1234567" is_new="1" /> </NewDataSet> ) ) ) I am able to loop through this object and get to the part between the "NewDataSet" tags, but I can't seem to get to the individual elements. What I need is the attributes in the last tag that starts with _x0023_temp_list. I'm not sure if the tag is always going to be named that, so I will probably also have to deal with getting attributes from the tag with the xs namespace as well. I've read quite a few other posts and have tried several different methods of getting the info and so far nothing has seemed to work.

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  • Crystal Reports : How to add an external assembly class?

    - by Sunil
    I am using VS2010, CrystalReport13 & MVC3. My problem is unable to add an external assembly in Crystal Report using "Database Expert" Option. I have a class named WeeklyReportModel in an external assembly. In my web project, data retrieving from DB as IEnumerable collection of WeeklyReportModel. I tried ProjectData - .NetObjects in Crystal Report for adding the WeeklyReportModel. But this external assembly is not showing under ".NetObjects". Then I tried other option as Create New Connection - ADO.Net – Make New Connection and pointed this External Assembly. It has been added under Ado.Net node, but while expanding displays as "...no items found..." Totally frustrated. Please help. External Assembly Class: namespace SMS.Domain { public class WeeklyReportModel { public int StoreId { get; set; } public string StoreName{ get; set; } public decimal Saturday { get; set; } public decimal Sunday { get; set; } public decimal Monday { get; set; } public decimal Tuesday { get; set; } public decimal Wednesday { get; set; } public decimal Thurday { get; set; } public decimal Friday { get; set; } public decimal Average { get; set; } public string DateRange { get; set; } } } In Controller-action[Data retrieving as Collection Of WeeklyReportModel] namespace SMS.UI.Controllers { public class ReportController : Controller { public ActionResult StoreWeeklyReport(string id) { DateTime weekStart, weekClose; string[] dateArray = id.Split('_'); weekStart = Convert.ToDateTime(dateArray[0].ToString()); weekClose = Convert.ToDateTime(dateArray[1].ToString()); SMS.Infrastructure.Report.AuditReport weeklyReport = new SMS.Infrastructure.Report.AuditReport(); IEnumerable<SMS.Domain.WeeklyReportModel> weeklyRpt = weeklyReport.ReportByStore().WeeklyReport(weekStart, weekClose); Session["WeeklyData"] = weeklyRpt; Response.Redirect("~/Reports/Weekly/StoreWeekly.aspx"); return View(); } } } Thanks in advance.

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  • jQuery replacing an image inside a .net datalist

    - by user359409
    (submit said I was trying to post an image so I've changed image everywhere to ix I am trying to get jQuery to replace an ix inside a datalist. The original ix is the thumbnail ix of a product on a category page. The small ix I am clicking on are swatch ix for the different colors of a product. I can get it to work using a div tag around the ix tag inside the ItemTemplate. I don't need to use a div tag if I can get the imagesx to swap- I was just using it because that is sample code I found and it works for the first product in the category. <asp:HyperLink ID="ProductNav" runat="server" NavigateUrl='<%#Eval("NavigateUrl") %>'> <div id="ladiv" runat="server"> <asp:Ixx runat="server" ID="ProdThumb" /> </div> </asp:HyperLink> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="phSwatches" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> The ProdThumb ix is added from the code behind and the swatches are added from the code behind swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<table><tr>")); foreach(OptionChoice optionChoice in option.Choices) { string swatchThumbnail = string.Format("<ix ID=\"{0}\" src=\"{1}\" border=\"0\" class=\"{2}\" />","swatch" + optionChoice.OptionChoiceId.ToString(), ResolveUrl(optionChoice.ThumbnailUrl),"imgthumb"); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("<td>")); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl(swatchThumbnail)); swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</td>")); } swatches.Controls.Add(new LiteralControl("</tr></table>")); prodThumb.IxUrl = product.ThumbnailUrl; prodThumb.AlternateText = product.ThumbnailAltText; prodThumb.CssClass = "Thumbnail"; The jQuery is: $(function() { $("ix.imgthumb").click(function(e) { var t = $(this); var newImg = ''; $('#ladiv') .html($(newImg) ); }); }); </script> Both images are named similar, except the swatch contains "sws" and the larger one is the some only with "swl". I have spent several days searching but am not able to get it to work. If I try something like $("#<%=ladiv.ClientID %") the code can't find it. I appreciate any help.

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  • Passing arguments between classes - use public properties or pass a properties class as argument?

    - by devoured elysium
    So let's assume I have a class named ABC that will have a list of Point objects. I need to make some drawing logic with them. Each one of those Point objects will have a Draw() method that will be called by the ABC class. The Draw() method code will need info from ABC class. I can only see two ways to make them have this info: Having Abc class make public some properties that would allow draw() to make its decisions. Having Abc class pass to draw() a class full of properties. The properties in both cases would be the same, my question is what is preferred in this case. Maybe the second approach is more flexible? Maybe not? I don't see here a clear winner, but that sure has more to do with my inexperience than any other thing. If there are other good approaches, feel free to share them. Here are both cases: class Abc1 { public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } and here is approach 2: class Abc2 { //here we make take down all properties public void method1(); ... public void methodn(); } class Abc2MethodArgs { //and we put them here. this class will be passed as argument to //Point's draw() method! public property a; public property b; public property c; ... public property z; } Also, if there are any "formal" names for these two approaches, I'd like to know them so I can better choose the tags/thread name, so it's more useful for searching purposes. That or feel free to edit them.

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  • actionscript 2.0 input text box

    - by user1769760
    So, here's what I'm trying to do, and I, frankly, believe it should be obvious, but I can't figure it out. I am creating a very simple Artificial Intelligence simulation. And in this simulation there's an input box at the bottom of the screen (called "input" exactly). "input" has a variable in its properties that is called "inbox" (exactly). Using a key listener the script calls up a function when the enter button is pressed. This function has 2 if statements and an else statement which dictate the responses of the AI (named "nistra"). The problem is this, When I type in what I want to say, and hit enter, it always uses the second response ("lockpick" in the code below). I have tried variations on the code but I still don't see the solution. I believe the problem is that the "typein" variable holds all the format information from the text box as well as the variable, but I could be wrong, that information is in here as well, underneath the code itself. Any help I can get would be greatly appreciated. var typein = ""; //copies the text from inbox into here, this is what nistra responds to var inbox = ""; //this is where the text from the input text box goes var respond = ""; //nistra's responses go here my_listener = new Object(); // key listener my_listener.onKeyDown = function() { if(Key.isDown(13)) //enter button pressed { typein = inbox; // moves inbox into typein nistraresponse(); // calles nistra's responses } //code = Key.getCode(); //trace ("Key pressed = " + code); } Key.addListener(my_listener); // key listener ends here nistraresponse = function() // nistra's responses { trace(typein); // trace out what "typein" holds if(typein = "Hello") // if you type in "Hello" { respond = "Hello, How are you?"; } if(typein = "lockpick") // if you type in "lockpick" { respond = "Affirmative"; } else // anything else { respond = "I do not understand the command, please rephrase"; } cntxtID = setInterval(clearnistra, 5000); // calls the function that clears out nistra's response box so that her responses don't just sit there } clearnistra = function() // clears her respond box { respond = ""; clearInterval(cntxtID); } // "typein" traces out the following <TEXTFORMAT LEADING="2"><P ALIGN="CENTER"><FONT FACE="Times New Roman" SIZE="20" COLOR="#FF0000" LETTERSPACING="0" KERNING="0">test</FONT></P></TEXTFORMAT>

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  • IE sends multiple cookies with same name?

    - by akach
    I have a strange bug that occurs in IE7/XP and IE8/Vista on my website. IE sends two cookies named PHPSESSID. How to reproduce: Clear cookies in IE (not necessary if you never visited unisender.com). Visit unisender.com (exactly without www to reproduce!) and it will redirect to www.unisender.com Login with any valid username and password (I've registered username testmsdn with password testmsdn - feel free to use for testing) Run your favourite capture-the-traffic program (I prefer wireshark) Now click any menu link (e.g. "messages") Look at captured traffic - you will see that IE sends double PHPSESSID cookie (and you are logged out after click because of this). It seems like first PHPSESSID is from unisender.com and second from www.unisender.com. Captured sample: GET /en/letter_list HTTP/1.1 Accept: image/gif, image/jpeg, image/pjpeg, application/x-ms-application, application/vnd.ms-xpsdocument, application/xaml+xml, application/x-ms-xbap, application/x-shockwave-flash, / Referer: http://www.unisender.com/en/intro Accept-Language: ru User-Agent: Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 8.0; Windows NT 6.0; Trident/4.0; Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Windows NT 5.1; SV1) ; SLCC1; .NET CLR 2.0.50727; .NET CLR 3.5.21022; .NET CLR 3.5.30729; FDM; .NET CLR 3.0.30729) Accept-Encoding: gzip, deflate Host: www.unisender.com Connection: Keep-Alive Cookie: authchallenge=3a9cfcfc9fe33822e3e21d75c8a3d3e4; PHPSESSID=14ea1cb133632951592397c86eaf037e; us_reg_ref=unknown; us_reg_url=http%3A%2F%2Funisender.com%2F; __utma=1.778517853.1271204400.1271204400.1271204400.1; __utmb=1.3.10.1271204400; __utmc=1; __utmz=1.1271204400.1.1.utmcsr=(direct)|utmccn=(direct)|utmcmd=(none); PHPSESSID=65e110aeb995a66b9dc8da5656c7a3da; last_login_name=testmsdn I've tried to use session and non-session cookies, tried to use .unisender.com instead of unisender.com for cookie - nothing helps. I suppose there should not be cookies with same name. Am I right? Is it a bug in IE? If it's a bug then is there a workaround? Or am I wrong and it's an expected behavior?

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  • Model self referential collections in Rails

    - by Najitaka
    I have written an application for an online clothing store in Rails 2.3.5. I want to show related Products when a customer views the Product Detail page. For example, if the customer views the detail page for a suit, I'd like to display the accessory products that match the dress such as a vest, shoes, and belt. I have named the related products an Ensemble. However, the vest, shoes, and belts are also Products which is what has me struggling. I have it working as follows but I know it's not the Rails way. I have a Products table for all of the products. Not important here but I also have a ProductDetails table. I have an Ensembles table that has the following columns: product_id - the main or origination product, the one displayed on the detail page outfit_id - the related or accessory product In setting up the data, on the Products list, for each Product I have an Ensemble link. This link takes you to the index action in the Ensembles controller. Using the id from the "main" Product, I find all of the associated Ensemble rows by product_id or I create a new ensemble and assign the id from the main product as the product_id. I'd like to just be able to do @product.related_products to get an Ensemble collection. Also on the index page I list the columns of the main product so the user can be sure their main product was the one they selected from the list. I also have a select list of the other products, with an Add to Ensemble action. Finally on the same index page, I have a table that displays the products that are already in the ensemble and in that list each row has a destroy link to remove a particular product from the ensemble. It would be nice if given a single Ensemble row @ensemble I could do @ensemble.product to get the Product related to the outfit_id of the ensemble row. I've got it working without associations but I have to run queries in the controller to build my own @product, @ensemble, and @ensembles collections. Also the only way I found to destroy an ensemble row is by Ensemble.connection.delete(sql to delete), simple @ensemble.destroy doesn't work. Anyone know how I would set up the associations or have a link to a site explaining a similar setup. None of the examples I found use the same table. They have A related to B through C. I want A related to other A through B.

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  • Unfortunately App stopped when destroying SupportMapFragment

    - by user1408341
    I have the following problem. I have three fragments which are hosted in a TabHost. When I'm working with the app everything works fine. Now I like to end the app when the user hits the back button. Instead of terminating without errors I get the message Unfortunately App stopped. Then I said to myself something is wrong with the onDestroy() method of the FragmentActivity or with the onDestroyView method() of the Fragment. The problem is I cannot debug the point where the app crash. I get only the error:Fatal signal 11 (SIGSEGV). I then removed one by one each Fragment to identify which fragment causes the error. I could identify the fragment that I named BasicMapFragment. Something is wrong there. The code: public class BasicMapFragment extends SupportMapFragment implements LocationListener { @Override public View onCreateView(LayoutInflater inflater, ViewGroup container, Bundle savedInstanceState) { View view = super.onCreateView(inflater, container, savedInstanceState); //removeAllMarkers(); //setupGps(); //setupMap(); //setupMarkersFromModel(); //registerListeners(); return view; } } I commented out all my self written code to isolate the place where the error occurs. @Override public void onDestroy() { Log.d("ch.xxx.fragment.BasiceMapFragment", "On destroy called"); super.onDestroy(); } public void onDestroyView() { Log.d("ch.xxx.fragment.BasiceMapFragment", "On destroy view called"); super.onDestroyView(); } When I press the back button now the onDestroy() method of my FragmentActivity is first called like expected. Then the onDestroyView method is called on my BasicMapFragment class. At the end the onDestroy method is called - and then the application crash. Here is my layout file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" xmlns:tools="http://schemas.android.com/tools" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent"> <fragment android:id="@+id/map" android:layout_width="match_parent" android:layout_height="match_parent" class="com.google.android.gms.maps.SupportMapFragment"/> </FrameLayout> Resume: - Map is showed - I can work with the app. - When I leave out the BasicMapFragment the app finish without error. - When I add the BasicMapFragment the app returns an error when I press the back button Is there something that I have forgot to implement? Have somebody had the same trouble?

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  • UIButton does not respond to touch events after changing its position using setFrame

    - by Pranathi
    I have a view controller class (child) which extends from view controller class (parent). In the parent class's loadView() method I create a sub-view (named myButtonView) with two buttons (buttons are horizontally laid out in the subview) and add it to the main view. In the subclass I need to shift these two buttons up by 50pixels. So, I am shifting the buttonView by calling the setFrame method. This makes the buttons shift and render properly but they do not respond to touch events after this. Buttons work properly in the views of Parent class type. In the child class type view also, if I comment out the setFrame() call the buttons work properly. How can I shift the buttons and still make them respond to touch events? Any help is appreciated. Following is snippets of the code. In the parent class: - (void)loadView { // Some code... CGRect buttonFrameRect = CGRectMake(0,yOffset+1,screenRect.size.width,KButtonViewHeight); myButtonView = [[UIView alloc]initWithFrame:buttonFrameRect]; myButtonView.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [self.view addSubview:myButtonView]; // some code... CGRect nxtButtonRect = CGRectMake(screenRect.size.width - 110, 5, 100, 40); myNxtButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [myNxtButton setTitle:@"Submit" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; myNxtButton.frame = nxtButtonRect; myNxtButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [myNxtButton addTarget:self action:@selector(nextButtonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [myButtonView addSubview:myNxtButton]; CGRect backButtonRect = CGRectMake(10, 5, 100, 40); myBackButton = [UIButton buttonWithType:UIButtonTypeCustom]; [myBackButton setTitle:@"Back" forState:UIControlStateNormal]; myBackButton.frame = backButtonRect; myBackButton.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor]; [myBackButton addTarget:self action:@selector(backButtonPressed:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventTouchUpInside]; [myButtonView addSubview:myBackButton]; // Some code... } In the child class: - (void)loadView { [super loadView]; //Some code .. CGRect buttonViewRect = myButtonView.frame; buttonViewRect.origin.y = yOffset; // This is basically original yOffset + 50 [myButtonView setFrame:buttonViewRect]; yOffset += KButtonViewHeight; // Add some other view below myButtonView .. }

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  • How to load an external swf to the main stage from an instanced child class?

    - by RaamEE
    Hi, I am trying to get an instance of a class to the load an external swf and show it. So far I have the following: 1) I wrote a class that uses the Loader class to load an external swf "loadExtSWF". 2) I have a fla named "MainSWF.fla" that uses a document class "MainSWF.as". 3) I have the MainSWF.as file that instances "loadExtSWF" and calls loadExtSWF.startLoad to load the swf. This almost works. The instance of loadExtSWF loads the external swf, but the swf is not displayed. If I replace the fla's document class with loadExtSWF (this has an empty constructor) instead of MainSWF, and run loadExtSWF.startLoad, then the external swf is loaded and displayed. It seems that the way I initially do it, loads the swf to the wrong stage (?). Any ideas? Thanks for the help. Bye, RaamEE P.S. If you replace the document class for test_tsscreen from test_tsscreen.as to TSScreen.as, and remove the comment inside the test_tsscreen's constructor, the swf will be loaded. my code is: file test_as3.swf an external as3 swf file. file test_tsscreen.fla the fla is empty and references test_tsscreen.as as its document class. file test_tsscreen.as package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import TSScreen; public class test_tsscreen extends MovieClip{ var tsScreen1; public function test_tsscreen(){ // var tsScreen1:TSScreen = new TSScreen(10,10,100,100,0.5,0); var tsScreen1:TSScreen = new TSScreen(); tsScreen1.startLoad(this.stage); } } } file TSScreen.as package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.display.*; import flash.net.URLRequest; import flash.system.ApplicationDomain; import flash.system.LoaderContext; import flash.display.Loader; import flash.events.Event; import flash.events.ProgressEvent; public class TSScreen extends MovieClip implements ITSScreenable{ public function TSScreen():void{ // startLoad(this); //Look important comment in above text } function startLoad(_this:Stage) { var mLoader:Loader = new Loader(); var mRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest("test_as3.swf"); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onCompleteHandler); mLoader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(ProgressEvent.PROGRESS, onProgressHandler); _this.parent.addChild(mLoader); mLoader.load(mRequest); trace(this.name); trace(_this.name); } function onCompleteHandler(loadEvent:Event) { addChild(loadEvent.currentTarget.content); } function onProgressHandler(mProgress:ProgressEvent) { var percent:Number = mProgress.bytesLoaded/mProgress.bytesTotal; trace(percent); } } }

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  • How to get all captures of subgroup matches with preg_match_all()?

    - by hakre
    Update/Note: I think what I'm probably looking for is to get the captures of a group in PHP. Referenced: PCRE regular expressions using named pattern subroutines. (Read carefully:) I have a string that contains a variable number of segments (simplified): $subject = 'AA BB DD '; // could be 'AA BB DD CC EE ' as well I would like now to match the segments and return them via the matches array: $pattern = '/^(([a-z]+) )+$/i'; $result = preg_match_all($pattern, $subject, $matches); This will only return the last match for the capture group 2: DD. Is there a way that I can retrieve all subpattern captures (AA, BB, DD) with one regex execution? Isn't preg_match_all suitable for this? This question is a generalization. Both the $subject and $pattern are simplified. Naturally with such the general list of AA, BB, .. is much more easy to extract with other functions (e.g. explode) or with a variation of the $pattern. But I'm specifically asking how to return all of the subgroup matches with the preg_...-family of functions. For a real life case imagine you have multiple (nested) level of a variant amount of subpattern matches. Example This is an example in pseudo code to describe a bit of the background. Imagine the following: Regular definitions of tokens: CHARS := [a-z]+ PUNCT := [.,!?] WS := [ ] $subject get's tokenized based on these. The tokenization is stored inside an array of tokens (type, offset, ...). That array is then transformed into a string, containing one character per token: CHARS -> "c" PUNCT -> "p" WS -> "s" So that it's now possible to run regular expressions based on tokens (and not character classes etc.) on the token stream string index. E.g. regex: (cs)?cp to express one or more group of chars followed by a punctuation. As I now can express self-defined tokens as regex, the next step was to build the grammar. This is only an example, this is sort of ABNF style: words = word | (word space)+ word word = CHARS+ space = WS punctuation = PUNCT If I now compile the grammar for words into a (token) regex I would like to have naturally all subgroup matches of each word. words = (CHARS+) | ( (CHARS+) WS )+ (CHARS+) # words resolved to tokens words = (c+)|((c+)s)+c+ # words resolved to regex I could code until this point. Then I ran into the problem that the sub-group matches did only contain their last match. So I have the option to either create an automata for the grammar on my own (which I would like to prevent to keep the grammar expressions generic) or to somewhat make preg_match working for me somehow so I can spare that. That's basically all. Probably now it's understandable why I simplified the question. Related: pcrepattern man page Get repeated matches with preg_match_all()

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  • What are the Rails best practices for javascript templates in restful/resourceful controllers?

    - by numbers1311407
    First, 2 common (basic) approaches: # returning from some FoosController method respond_to do |format| # 1. render the javascript directly format.js { render :json => @foo.to_json } # 2. render the default template, say update.js.erb format.js { render } end # in update.js.erb $('#foo').html("<%= escape_javascript(render(@foo)) %>") These are obviously simple cases but I wanted to illustrate what I'm talking about. I believe that these are also the cases expected by the default responder in rails 3 (either the action-named default template or calling to_#{format} on the resource.) The Issues With 1, you have total flexibility on the view side with no worries about the template, but you have to manipulate the DOM directly via javascript. You lose access to helpers, partials, etc. With 2, you have partials and helpers at your disposal, but you're tied to the one template (by default at least). All your views that make JS calls to FoosController use the same template, which isn't exactly flexible. Three Other Approaches (none really satisfactory) 1.) Escape partials/helpers I need into javascript beforehand, then inserting them into the page after, using string replacement to tailor them to the results returned (subbing in name, id, etc). 2.) Put view logic in the templates. For example, looking for a particular DOM element and doing one thing if it exists, another if it does not. 3.) Put logic in the controller to render different templates. For example, in a polymorphic belongs to where update might be called for either comments/foo or posts/foo, rendering commnts/foos/update.js.erb versus posts/foos/update.js.erb. I've used all of these (and probably others I'm not thinking of). Often in the same app, which leads to confusing code. Are there best practices for this sort of thing? It seems like a common enough use-case that you'd want to call controllers via Ajax actions from different views and expect different things to happen (without having to do tedious things like escaping and string-replacing partials and helpers client side). Any thoughts?

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  • Need help with tweaking a Dropdown with three options, user selects one - a hidden div appears with correct fields

    - by Jack
    Hello Again, I posted a question on here and got an answer within minutes I'm hoping the wizards on here can help me again. Okay so I'm using a script I found online to try and add this function to a shopping cart form. Here's the setup. I have a payment method dropdown with Visa, Mastercard and Bank Withdrawal as the options. For the credit cards I have one hidden div with a certain set of fields, and for the bank I have another hidden div. Each of the divs have named ID's - #payCredit and #payBank The css for both have margin: 0px and display: none; Here's a peice of javascript I used successfuly on a shipping address checkbox `function toggleLayer( whichLayer ) { var elem, vis; if( document.getElementById ) // this is the way the standards work elem = document.getElementById( whichLayer ); else if( document.all ) // this is the way old msie versions work elem = document.all[whichLayer]; else if( document.layers ) // this is the way nn4 works elem = document.layers[whichLayer]; vis = elem.style; // if the style.display value is blank we try to figure it out here if(vis.display==''&&elem.offsetWidth!=undefined&&elem.offsetHeight!=undefined) vis.display = (elem.offsetWidth!=0&&elem.offsetHeight!=0)?'block':'none'; vis.display = (vis.display==''||vis.display=='block')?'none':'block'; }` I was hoping I could change it slightly to meet my needs. Here's the dropdown <label>Payment Method:</label> <select name="payment" id="payment" class="dropdown3" style="width:8em"> <option selected="selected">Select</option> <option value="Visa" onclick="javascript:toggleLayer('payCredit');">Visa</option> <option value="MasterCard" onclick="javascript:toggleLayer('payCredit');">Mastercard</option> <option value="Direct" onclick="javascript:toggleLayer('payBank');">Direct Withdraw</option> </select></li> The current result is that it kinda works. I can open the dropdown and select Visa and it appears, if I select Visa again it disappears, if I select Visa and then select bank, both appear. You can see what i'm working on here - http://test.sharevetcare.com/bestfriends/cart3.html

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  • How can I find a URL called [link] inside a block of HTML containing other URLs?

    - by DrTwox
    I'm writing a script to rewrite Reddit's RSS feeds. The script needs to find a URL named [link] inside a block of HTML that contains other URLs. The HTML is contained in an XML element called <description>. Here are two examples of the <description> element from I need to parse and the [link] I would need to get. First example: <description>submitted by &lt;a href=&#34;http://www.reddit.com/user/wildlyinaccurate&#34;&gt; wildlyinaccurate &lt;/a&gt; &lt;br/&gt; &lt;a href=&#34;http://wildlyinaccurate.com/a-hackers-guide-to-git&#34;&gt;[link]&lt;/a&gt; &lt;a href="http://www.reddit.com/r/programming/comments/26jvl7/a_hackers_guide_to_git/"&gt;[66 comments]&lt;/a&gt;</description> The [link] is: http://wildlyinaccurate.com/a-hackers-guide-to-git Second example: <description>&lt;!-- SC_OFF --&gt;&lt;div class=&#34;md&#34;&gt;&lt;p&gt;I work a support role at a company where I primarily fix issues our customers our experiencing with our software, which is a browser based application written primarily in javascript. I&amp;#39;ve been doing this for 2 years, but I want to take it to the next level (with the long term goal being that I become proficient enough to call myself a developer). I&amp;#39;ve been reading &amp;quot;Javascript The Definitive Guide&amp;quot; by O&amp;#39;Reilly but I was wondering if any of you more experienced users out there had some tips on taking it to the next level. Should I start incorporating some PHP and Jquery into my learning? Side projects on my spare time? Any good online resources? Etc. &lt;/p&gt; &lt;p&gt;Thanks! &lt;/p&gt; &lt;/div&gt;&lt;!-- SC_ON --&gt; submitted by &lt;a href=&#34;http://www.reddit.com/user/56killa&#34;&gt; 56killa &lt;/a&gt; &lt;br/&gt; &lt;a href=&#34;http://www.reddit.com/r/javascript/comments/26nduc/i_want_to_become_more_experienced_with_javascript/&#34;&gt;[link]&lt;/a&gt; &lt;a href="http://www.reddit.com/r/javascript/comments/26nduc/i_want_to_become_more_experienced_with_javascript/"&gt;[4 comments]&lt;/a&gt;</description> The [link] is: http://www.reddit.com/r/javascript/comments/26nduc/i_want_to_become_more_experienced_with_javascript/

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