Search Results

Search found 5762 results on 231 pages for 'clients'.

Page 201/231 | < Previous Page | 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208  | Next Page >

  • How to deploy ClickOnce .Net 3.5 application on 3.0 machine

    - by Buthrakaur
    I have .Net 3.5 SP1 WPF application which I'm successfully deploying to client computers using ClickOnce. Now I got new requirement - one of our clients need to run the application on machines equipped just with .Net 3.0 and it's entirely impossible to upgrade or install anything on the machines. I already tried to run the 3.5 application with some of the 3.5FW DLLs copied to the application directory and it worked without any problems. The only problem at the moment is ClickOnce. I already made it to include the 3.5FW System.*.dll files in list of application files, but it always aborts installation on 3.0 machine with this error message: Unable to install or run the application. The application requires that assembly System.Core Version 3.5.0.0 be installed in the Global Assembly Cache (GAC) first. Please contact your system administrator. I already tried to tweak prerequisites on Publish tab of my project, but no combination solved the issue. What part of ClickOnce is responsible for checking prerequisites? I already tried to deploy using mageui.exe, but the 3.5FW error is still present. What should I do to fore ClickOnce to stop checking any prerequisites at all? The project is created using VS2010.

    Read the article

  • Concurrent WCF calls via shared channel

    - by Kent Boogaart
    I have a web tier that forwards calls onto an application tier. The web tier uses a shared, cached channel to do so. The application tier services in question are stateless and have concurrency enabled. But they are not being called concurrently. If I alter the web tier to create a new channel on every call, then I do get concurrent calls onto the application tier. But I wanted to avoid that cost since it is functionally unnecessary for my scenario. I have no session state, and nor do I need to re-authenticate the caller each time. I understand that the creation of the channel factory is far more expensive than than the creation of the channels, but it is still a cost I'd like to avoid if possible. I found this article on MSDN that states: While channels and clients created by the channels are thread-safe, they might not support writing more than one message to the wire concurrently. If you are sending large messages, particularly if streaming, the send operation might block waiting for another send to complete. Firstly, I'm not sending large messages (just a lot of small ones since I'm doing load testing) but am still seeing the blocking behavior. Secondly, this is rather open-ended and unhelpful documentation. It says they "might not" support writing more than one message but doesn't explain the scenarios under which they would support concurrent messages. Can anyone shed some light on this?

    Read the article

  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Reading data from an open HTTP stream

    - by allenjones
    Hi, I am trying to use the .NET WebRequest/WebResponse classes to access the Twitter streaming API here "http://stream.twitter.com/spritzer.json". I need to be able to open the connection and read data incrementally from the open connection. Currently, when I call WebRequest.GetResponse method, it blocks until the entire response is downloaded. I know there is a BeginGetResponse method, but this will just do the same thing on a background thread. I need to get access to the response stream while the download is still happening. This just does not seem possible to me with these classes. There is a specific comment about this in the Twitter documentation: "Please note that some HTTP client libraries only return the response body after the connection has been closed by the server. These clients will not work for accessing the Streaming API. You must use an HTTP client that will return response data incrementally. Most robust HTTP client libraries will provide this functionality. The Apache HttpClient will handle this use case, for example." They point to the Appache HttpClient, but that doesn't help much because I need to use .NET. Any ideas whether this is possible with WebRequest/WebResponse, or do I have to go for lower level networking classes? Maybe there are other libraries that will allow me to do this? Thx Allen

    Read the article

  • Client Web Browser Behavior When Handling 301 Redirect

    - by Jon Swanson
    The RFC seems to suggest that the client should permanently cache the response: http://www.w3.org/Protocols/rfc2616/rfc2616-sec10.html 10.3.2 301 Moved Permanently The requested resource has been assigned a new permanent URI and any future references to this resource SHOULD use one of the returned URIs. Clients with link editing capabilities ought to automatically re-link references to the Request-URI to one or more of the new references returned by the server, where possible. This response is cacheable unless indicated otherwise. The new permanent URI SHOULD be given by the Location field in the response. Unless the request method was HEAD, the entity of the response SHOULD contain a short hypertext note with a hyperlink to the new URI(s). If the 301 status code is received in response to a request other than GET or HEAD, the user agent MUST NOT automatically redirect the request unless it can be confirmed by the user, since this might change the conditions under which the request was issued. Note: When automatically redirecting a POST request after receiving a 301 status code, some existing HTTP/1.0 user agents will erroneously change it into a GET request. I'm having a hard time finding concrete browser documentation for any major browser that states how they handle these. I've started digging through the source code of firefox, but quickly got lost. Is the following scenario true for which (if any) browsers, and is there definitive documentation for either Firefox or IE that states as much?: First Time Around: 1.1: User enters link to site A, or clicks on a link directed at Site A 1.2: Browser interprets link at Site A, first time, no cache. Sends GET to Site A. 1.2: Site A responds with 301 Redirect to Site B 1.3: Browser sends GET to Site B. Any Subsequent Times Around: 2.2: User clicks on a link directed at Site A 2.2: Browser sees that, due to a past 301 redirect, Site A should now be Site B. 2.3: Without initiating any request whatsoever at Site A, browser initiates GET at Site B.

    Read the article

  • Applet Not Loading In Java 1.6.0_16

    - by Wayne Hartman
    I am running a Java applet compiled in 1.5 and am experiencing odd behavior when running it on computers running 1.6.0_07 and 1.6.0_16. On the *_07 version, the applet initializes and loads in the browser perfectly fine. However, computers with the *_16 are not loading at all. Even more strange, there is nothing in the Java Console to indicate any problems will loading the applet in the browser. If I run the applet from as a standalone app on said machines, it loads up just fine. The compatibility mode in the JNLP is set to 1.5+. Firefox reports no errors attempting to load the applet. Even with full tracing and logging set to all, nothing is reported in the console window. Quick facts: The JAR is signed Compiled in 1.5 Works flawlessly in browsers (FF & IE) running *_07 Does not work in browsers (FF & IE) running *_16 Works running as stand alone app in *_16 JNLP set to 1.5+ Clients are mixed *_07, *_16, and other version of 1.6 Things I have tried: Forcing the JVM to use version 1.6.0_07. This requires the user to download *_07. In my situation this is not an option, unfortunately. Ran the app on *_16 as a standalone app. This works fine, but this needs to run as an applet. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • Django formset unit test

    - by Py
    I can't running Unit Test with formset. I try to do a test: class NewClientTestCase(TestCase): def setUp(self): self.c = Client() def test_0_create_individual_with_same_adress(self): post_data = { 'ctype': User.CONTACT_INDIVIDUAL, 'username': 'dupond.f', 'email': '[email protected]', 'password': 'pwd', 'password2': 'pwd', 'civility': User.CIVILITY_MISTER, 'first_name': 'François', 'last_name': 'DUPOND', 'phone': '+33 1 34 12 52 30', 'gsm': '+33 6 34 12 52 30', 'fax': '+33 1 34 12 52 30', 'form-0-address1': '33 avenue Gambetta', 'form-0-address2': 'apt 50', 'form-0-zip_code': '75020', 'form-0-city': 'Paris', 'form-0-country': 'FRA', 'same_for_billing': True, } response = self.c.post(reverse('client:full_account'), post_data, follow=True) self.assertRedirects(response, '%s?created=1' % reverse('client:dashboard')) and i have this error: ValidationError: [u'ManagementForm data is missing or has been tampered with'] My view : def full_account(request, url_redirect=''): from forms import NewUserFullForm, AddressForm, BaseArticleFormSet fields_required = [] fields_notrequired = [] AddressFormSet = formset_factory(AddressForm, extra=2, formset=BaseArticleFormSet) if request.method == 'POST': form = NewUserFullForm(request.POST) objforms = AddressFormSet(request.POST) if objforms.is_valid() and form.is_valid(): user = form.save() address = objforms.forms[0].save() if url_redirect=='': url_redirect = '%s?created=1' % reverse('client:dashboard') logon(request, form.instance) return HttpResponseRedirect(url_redirect) else: form = NewUserFullForm() objforms = AddressFormSet() return direct_to_template(request, 'clients/full_account.html', { 'form':form, 'formset': objforms, 'tld_fr':False, }) and my form file : class BaseArticleFormSet(BaseFormSet): def clean(self): msg_err = _('Ce champ est obligatoire.') non_errors = True if 'same_for_billing' in self.data and self.data['same_for_billing'] == 'on': same_for_billing = True else: same_for_billing = False for i in [0, 1]: form = self.forms[i] for field in form.fields: name_field = 'form-%d-%s' % (i, field ) value_field = self.data[name_field].strip() if i == 0 and self.forms[0].fields[field].required and value_field =='': form.errors[field] = msg_err non_errors = False elif i == 1 and not same_for_billing and self.forms[1].fields[field].required and value_field =='': form.errors[field] = msg_err non_errors = False return non_errors class AddressForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = Address address1 = forms.CharField() address2 = forms.CharField(required=False) zip_code = forms.CharField() city = forms.CharField() country = forms.ChoiceField(choices=CountryField.COUNTRIES, initial='FRA')

    Read the article

  • Architecture for data layer that uses both localStorage and a REST remote server

    - by Zack
    Anybody has any ideas or references on how to implement a data persistence layer that uses both a localStorage and a REST remote storage: The data of a certain client is stored with localStorage (using an ember-data indexedDB adapter). The locally stored data is synced with the remote server (using ember-data RESTadapter). The server gathers all data from clients. Using mathematical sets notation: Server = Client1 ? Client2 ? ... ? ClientN where, in general, a record may not be unique to a certain client. Here are some scenarios: A client creates a record. The id of the record can not set on the client, since it may conflict with a record stored on the server. Therefore a newly created record needs to be committed to the server - receive the id - create the record in localStorage. A record is updated on the server, and as a consequence the data in localStorage and in the server go out of sync. Only the server knows that, so the architecture needs to implement a push architecture (?) Would you use 2 stores (one for localStorage, one for REST) and sync between them, or use a hybrid indexedDB/REST adapter and write the sync code within the adapter? Can you see any way to avoid implementing push (Web Sockets, ...)?

    Read the article

  • Database for Python Twisted

    - by Will
    There's an API for Twisted apps to talk to a database in a scalable way: twisted.enterprise.dbapi The confusing thing is, which database to pick? The database will have a Twisted app that is mostly making inserts and updates and relatively few selects, and then other strictly-read-only clients that are accessing the database directly making selects. (The read-only users are not necessarily selecting the data that the Twisted app is inserting; its not as though the database is being used as a message-queue) My understanding - which I'd like corrected/adviced - is that: Postgres is a great DB, but all the Python bindings - and there is a confusing maze of them - are abandonware There is psycopg2, but that makes a lot of noise about doing its own connection-pooling and things; does this co-exist gracefully/usefully/transparently with the Twisted async database connection pooling and such? SQLLite is a great database for little things but if used in a multi-user way it does whole-database locking, so performance would suck in the usage pattern I envisage MySQL - after the Oracle takeover, who'd want to adopt it now or adopt a fork? Is there anything else out there?

    Read the article

  • How does the socket API accept() function work?

    - by Eli Bendersky
    The socket API is the de-facto standard for TCP/IP and UDP/IP communications (that is, networking code as we know it). However, one of its core functions, accept() is a bit magical. To borrow a semi-formal definition: accept() is used on the server side. It accepts a received incoming attempt to create a new TCP connection from the remote client, and creates a new socket associated with the socket address pair of this connection. In other words, accept returns a new socket through which the server can communicate with the newly connected client. The old socket (on which accept was called) stays open, on the same port, listening for new connections. How does accept work? How is it implemented? There's a lot of confusion on this topic. Many people claim accept opens a new port and you communicate with the client through it. But this obviously isn't true, as no new port is opened. You actually can communicate through the same port with different clients, but how? When several threads call recv on the same port, how does the data know where to go? I guess it's something along the lines of the client's address being associated with a socket descriptor, and whenever data comes through recv it's routed to the correct socket, but I'm not sure. It'd be great to get a thorough explanation of the inner-workings of this mechanism.

    Read the article

  • Replace low level web-service reference call transport with custom one

    - by hoodoos
    I'm not sure if title sounds right actually, so I will give more explanation here. I will begin from very beginning :) I'm using c# and .net for my development. I have an application that makes requests to some soap web-service and for each user request it produces 3 to 10 requests for web-service, they should all run async to finish in one time, so I use Async method of the web-service generated reference and then wait for result on callback. But it seems like it starts a thread (or takes it from pool) for every async call I make, so if I have 10 clients I got to spawn 30 to 100 threads and it sounds terrible even for my 16 cores server :) So i wanted to replace low level transport implementation with my own which uses non-blocking sockets and can handle at least 50 sockets run parallel in one thread with not much overhead. But I actually dunno where to put my override best. I analyzed System.Web.Services.Protocols.SoapHttpClientProtocol class and see that it has some GetWebRequest method which I actually could use. If only I could somehow interupt the object it creates and get a http request with all headers and body from there and then send it with my own sockets.. Any ideas what approach to use? Or maybe there's something built in the framework I can use?

    Read the article

  • C# TCP socket with session

    - by Zé Carlos
    Is there any way of dealing with sessions with sockets in C#? Example of my problem: I have a server with a socket listening on port 5672. TcpListener socket = new TcpListener(localAddr, 5672); socket.Start(); Console.Write("Waiting for a connection... "); // Perform a blocking call to accept requests. TcpClient client = socket.AcceptTcpClient(); Console.WriteLine("Connected to client!"); And i have two clients that will send one byte. Client A send 0x1 and client B send 0x2. From the server side, i read this data like this: Byte[] bytes = new Byte[256]; String data = null; NetworkStream stream = client.GetStream(); while ((stream.Read(bytes, 0, bytes.Length)) != 0) { byte[] answer = new ... stream.Write(answer , 0, answer.Length); } Then client A sends 0x11. I need a way to know that this client is the same that sent "0x1" before.

    Read the article

  • [WEB] Local/Dev/Live deployment - best workflow

    - by Adam Kiss
    Hello, situation We our little company with 3 people, each has a localhost webserver and most projects (previous and current) are on one PC network shared disk. We have virtual server, where some of our clients' sites and our site. Our standard workflow is: Coder PC ? Programmer localhost ? dev domain (client.company.com) ? live version (client.com) It often happens, that there are two or three guys working on same projects at the same time - one is on dev version, two are on localhost. When finished, we try to synchronize the files on dev version and ideally not to mess (thanks ILMV:]) up any files, which *knock knock * doesn't happen often. And then one of us deploys dev version on live webserver. question we are looking for a way to simplify this workflow while updating websites - ideally some sort of diff uploader or VCS probably (Git/SVN/VCS/...), but we are not completely sure where to begin or what way would be ideal, therefore I ask you, fellow stackoverflowers for your experience with website / application deployment and recommended workflow. We probably will also need to use Mac in process, so if it won't be a problem, that would be even better. Thank you

    Read the article

  • Different EF Property DataType than Storage Layer Possible?

    - by dj_kyron
    Hi, I am putting together a WCF Data Service for PatientEntities using Entity Framework. My solution needs to address these requirements: Property DateOfBirth of entity Patient is stored in SQL Server as string. It would be ideal if the entity class did not also use the "string" type but rather a DateTime type. (I would expect this to be possible since we're abstracting away from the storage layer). Where could a conversion mechanism be put in place that would convert to and from DateTime/string so that the entity and SQL Server are in sync?. I cannot change the storage layer's structure, so I have to work around it. WCF Data Services (Read-only, so no need for saving changes) need to be used since clients will be able to use LINQ expressions to consume the service. They can generate results based on any given query scenario they need and not be constrained by a single method such as GetPatient(int ID). I've tried to use DTOs, but run into problem of mapping the ObjectContext to a DTO, I don't think that is theoretically possible...or too complicated if it is. I've tried to use Self Tracking Entities but they require the metadata from the .edmx file if I'm correct, and this isn't allowing a different property data type. I also want to add customizations to my Entity getter methods so that a property "MRN" of type "string" needs to have .Replace("MR~", string.Empty) performed before it is returned. I can add this to the getter methods but the problem with that is Entity Framework will overwrite that next time it refreshes the entity classes. Is there a permanent place I can put these? Should I use POCO instead? How would that work with WCF Data Services? Where would the service grab the metadata?

    Read the article

  • HATEOAS - Discovery and URI Templating

    - by Paul Kirby
    I'm designing a HATEOAS API for internal data at my company, but have been having troubles with the discovery of links. Consider the following set of steps for someone to retrieve information about a specific employee in this system: User sends GET to http://coredata/ to get all available resources, returns a number of links including one tagged as rel = "http://coredata/rels/employees" User follows HREF on the rel from the first request, performing a GET at (for example) http://coredata/employees The data returned from this last call is my conundrum and a situation where I've heard mixed suggestions. Here are some of them: That GET will return all employees (with perhaps truncated data), and the client would be responsible for picking the one it wants from that list. That GET would return a number of URI templated links describing how to query / get one employee / get all employees. Something like: "_links": { "http://coredata/rels/employees#RetrieveOne": { "href": "http://coredata/employees/{id}" }, "http://coredata/rels/employees#Query": { "href": "http://coredata/employees{?login,firstName,lastName}" }, "http://coredata/rels/employees#All": { "href": "http://coredata/employees/all" } } I'm a little stuck here with what remains closest to HATEOAS. For option 1, I really do not want to make my clients retrieve all employees every time for the sake of navigation, but I can see how using URI templating in example two introduces some out-of-band knowledge. My other thought was to use the RetrieveOne, Query, and All operations as my cool URLs, but that seems to violate the concept that you should be able to navigate to the resources you want from one base URI. Has anyone else managed to come up with a good way to handle this? Navigation is dead simple once you've retrieved one resource or a set of resources, but it seems very difficult to use for discovery.

    Read the article

  • TransactionScope question - how can I keep the DTC from getting involved in this?

    - by larryq
    (I know the circumstances surrounding the DTC and promoting a transaction can be a bit mysterious to those of us not in the know, but let me show you how my company is doing things, and if you can tell me why the DTC is getting involved, and if possible, what I can do to avoid it, I'd be grateful.) I have code running on an ASP.Net webserver. We have one database, SQL 2008. Our data access code looks something like this-- We have a data access layer that uses a wrapper object for SQLConnections and SQLCommands. Typical use looks like this: void method1() { objDataObject = new DataAccessLayer(); objDataObject.Connection = SomeConnectionMethod(); SqlCommand objCommand = DataAccessUtils.CreateCommand(SomeStoredProc); //create some SqlParameters, add them to the objCommand, etc.... objDataObject.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.ReadCommitted); objDataObject.ExecuteNonQuery(objCommand); objDataObject.CommitTransaction(); objDataObject.CloseConnection(); } So indeed, a very thin wrapper around SqlClient, SqlConnection etc. I want to run several stored procs in a transaction, and the wrapper class doesn't allow me access to the SqlTransaction so I can't pass it from one component to the next. This led me to use a TransactionScope: using (TransactionScope tx1 = new TransactionScope(TransactionScope.RequiresNew)) { method1(); method2(); method3(); tx1.Complete(); } When I do this, the DTC gets involved, and unfortunately our webservers don't have "allow remote clients" enabled in the MSDTC settings-- getting IT to allow that will be a fight. I'd love to avoid DTC becoming involved but can I do it? Can I leave out the transactional calls in methods1-3() and just let the TransactionScope figure it all out?

    Read the article

  • mysql and trigger usage question

    - by dhruvbird
    I have a situation in which I don't want inserts to take place (the transaction should rollback) if a certain condition is met. I could write this logic in the application code, but say for some reason, it has to be written in MySQL itself (say clients written in different languages will be inserting into this MySQL InnoDB table) [that's a separate discussion]. Table definition: CREATE TABLE table1(x int NOT NULL); The trigger looks something like this: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN NEW.x = NULL; END IF; END; I am guessing it could also be written as(untested): CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 FOR EACH ROW IF (condition) THEN ROLLBACK; END IF; END; But, this doesn't work: CREATE TRIGGER t1 BEFORE INSERT ON table1 ROLLBACK; You are guaranteed that: Your DB will always be MySQL Table type will always be InnoDB That NOT NULL column will always stay the way it is Question: Do you see anything objectionable in the 1st method?

    Read the article

  • Do I have to bind an UDP socket in my client program, to receive data? (I always get WASEINVAL)...

    - by Incubbus
    Hey There, I have the following problem: I am starting WSA, then I am creating a UDP socket (AF_INET, SOCK_DGRAM, IPPROTO_UDP) and try to recvfrom on this socket, but it always returns -1 and I get WSAEINVAL (10022)... I don´t know why?... When I bind the port, that does not happen... But it is very lame to bind the clients socket... (As far as I remember, i never had this problem before:/ )... Anyone knows why this happens?... (I am sending data to my server, which anwsers[ or at least, tries to^^])... Inc::STATS CConnection::_RecvData(sockaddr* addr, std::string &strData) { int ret, len, fromlen; //return code / length of the data / sizeof(sockaddr) char *buffer; //will hold the data char c; //recv length of the message fromlen = sizeof(sockaddr); ret = recvfrom(m_InSock, &c, 1, 0, addr, &fromlen); if(ret != 1) { #ifdef __MYDEBUG__ std::stringstream ss; ss << WSAGetLastError(); MessageBox(NULL, ss.str().c_str(), "", MB_ICONERROR | MB_OK); #endif return Inc::ERECV; }...

    Read the article

  • Caching Authentication Data

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I'm currently implementing a REST web service using CouchDB and RESTlet. The RESTlet layer is mainly for authentication and some minor filtering of the JSON data served by CouchDB: Clients <= HTTP = [ RESTlet <= HTTP = CouchDB ] I'm using CouchDB also to store user login data, because I don't want to add an additional database server for that purpose. Thus, each request to my service causes two CouchDB requests conducted by RESTlet (auth data + "real" request). In order to keep the service as efficent as possible, I want to reduce the number of requests, in this case redundant requests for login data. My idea now is to provide a cache (i.e.LRU-Cache via LinkedHashMap) within my RESTlet application that caches login data, because HTTP caching will probabily not be enough. But how do I invalidate the cache data, once a user changes the password, for instance. Thanks to REST, the application might run on several servers in parallel, and I don't want to create a central instance just to cache login data. Currently, I save requested auth data in the cache and try to auth new requests by using them. If a authentication fails or there is now entry available, I'll dispatch a GET request to my CouchDB storage in order to obtain the actual auth data. So in a worst case, users that have changed their data will perhaps still be able to login with their old credentials. How can I deal with that? Or what is a good strategy to keep the cache(s) up-to-date in general? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Slow Python HTTP server on localhost

    - by Abiel
    I am experiencing some performance problems when creating a very simple Python HTTP server. The key issue is that performance is varying depending on which client I use to access it, where the server and all clients are being run on the local machine. For instance, a GET request issued from a Python script (urllib2.urlopen('http://localhost/').read()) takes just over a second to complete, which seems slow considering that the server is under no load. Running the GET request from Excel using MSXML2.ServerXMLHTTP also feels slow. However, requesting the data Google Chrome or from RCurl, the curl add-in for R, yields an essentially instantaneous response, which is what I would expect. Adding further to my confusion is that I do not experience any performance problems for any client when I am on my computer at work (the performance problems are on my home computer). Both systems run Python 2.6, although the work computer runs Windows XP instead of 7. Below is my very simple server example, which simply returns 'Hello world' for any get request. from BaseHTTPServer import BaseHTTPRequestHandler, HTTPServer class MyHandler(BaseHTTPRequestHandler): def do_GET(self): print("Just received a GET request") self.send_response(200) self.send_header("Content-type", "text/html") self.end_headers() self.wfile.write('Hello world') return def log_request(self, code=None, size=None): print('Request') def log_message(self, format, *args): print('Message') if __name__ == "__main__": try: server = HTTPServer(('localhost', 80), MyHandler) print('Started http server') server.serve_forever() except KeyboardInterrupt: print('^C received, shutting down server') server.socket.close() Note that in MyHandler I override the log_request() and log_message() functions. The reason is that I read that a fully-qualified domain name lookup performed by one of these functions might be a reason for a slow server. Unfortunately setting them to just print a static message did not solve my problem. Also, notice that I have put in a print() statement as the first line of the do_GET() routine in MyHandler. The slowness occurs prior to this message being printed, meaning that none of the stuff that comes after it is causing a delay.

    Read the article

  • JBoss Clustered Service that sends emails from txt file

    - by michael lucas
    I need a little push in the right direction. Here's my problem: I have to create an ultra-reliable service that sends email messages to clients whose addresses are stored in txt file on FTP server. Single txt file may contain unlimited number of entries. Most often the file contains about 300,000 entries. Service exposes interface with just two simple methods: TaskHandle sendEmails(String ftpFilePath); ProcessStatus checkProcessStatus(TaskHandle taskHandle); Method sendEmails() returns TaskHandle by which we can ask for ProcessStatus. For such a service to be reliable clustering is necessary. Processing single txt file might take a long time. Restarting one node in a cluster should have no impact on sending emails. We use JBoss AS 4.2.0 which comes with a nice HASingletonController that ensure one instance of service is running at given time. But once a fail-over happens, the second service should continue work from where the first one stopped. How can I share state between nodes in a cluster in such a way that leaves no possibility of sending some emails twice?

    Read the article

  • Password hashing, salt and storage of hashed values

    - by Jonathan Leffler
    Suppose you were at liberty to decide how hashed passwords were to be stored in a DBMS. Are there obvious weaknesses in a scheme like this one? To create the hash value stored in the DBMS, take: A value that is unique to the DBMS server instance as part of the salt, And the username as a second part of the salt, And create the concatenation of the salt with the actual password, And hash the whole string using the SHA-256 algorithm, And store the result in the DBMS. This would mean that anyone wanting to come up with a collision should have to do the work separately for each user name and each DBMS server instance separately. I'd plan to keep the actual hash mechanism somewhat flexible to allow for the use of the new NIST standard hash algorithm (SHA-3) that is still being worked on. The 'value that is unique to the DBMS server instance' need not be secret - though it wouldn't be divulged casually. The intention is to ensure that if someone uses the same password in different DBMS server instances, the recorded hashes would be different. Likewise, the user name would not be secret - just the password proper. Would there be any advantage to having the password first and the user name and 'unique value' second, or any other permutation of the three sources of data? Or what about interleaving the strings? Do I need to add (and record) a random salt value (per password) as well as the information above? (Advantage: the user can re-use a password and still, probably, get a different hash recorded in the database. Disadvantage: the salt has to be recorded. I suspect the advantage considerably outweighs the disadvantage.) There are quite a lot of related SO questions - this list is unlikely to be comprehensive: Encrypting/Hashing plain text passwords in database Secure hash and salt for PHP passwords The necessity of hiding the salt for a hash Clients-side MD5 hash with time salt Simple password encryption Salt generation and Open Source software I think that the answers to these questions support my algorithm (though if you simply use a random salt, then the 'unique value per server' and username components are less important).

    Read the article

  • Wait on multiple condition variables on Linux without unnecessary sleeps?

    - by Joseph Garvin
    I'm writing a latency sensitive app that in effect wants to wait on multiple condition variables at once. I've read before of several ways to get this functionality on Linux (apparently this is builtin on Windows), but none of them seem suitable for my app. The methods I know of are: Have one thread wait on each of the condition variables you want to wait on, which when woken will signal a single condition variable which you wait on instead. Cycling through multiple condition variables with a timed wait. Writing dummy bytes to files or pipes instead, and polling on those. #1 & #2 are unsuitable because they cause unnecessary sleeping. With #1, you have to wait for the dummy thread to wake up, then signal the real thread, then for the real thread to wake up, instead of the real thread just waking up to begin with -- the extra scheduler quantum spent on this actually matters for my app, and I'd prefer not to have to use a full fledged RTOS. #2 is even worse, you potentially spend N * timeout time asleep, or your timeout will be 0 in which case you never sleep (endlessly burning CPU and starving other threads is also bad). For #3, pipes are problematic because if the thread being 'signaled' is busy or even crashes (I'm in fact dealing with separate process rather than threads -- the mutexes and conditions would be stored in shared memory), then the writing thread will be stuck because the pipe's buffer will be full, as will any other clients. Files are problematic because you'd be growing it endlessly the longer the app ran. Is there a better way to do this? Curious for answers appropriate for Solaris as well.

    Read the article

  • JBoss Client-Cert Authentication: Hot to setup UsersRolesLoginModule in login-config.xml

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I am looking that chapter 8 of the RedHat, JBoss documentation. I am trying to setup Certificate Authentication as described on this page . On the page it says that the login-config file should have this in it: <application-policy name="jmx-console"> <authentication> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.BaseCertLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="securityDomain">java:/jaas/jmx-console</module-option> </login-module> <login-module code="org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule" flag="required"> <module-option name="password-stacking">useFirstPass</module-option> <module-option name="usersProperties">jmx-console-users.properties</module-option> <module-option name="rolesProperties">jmx-console-roles.properties</module-option> </login-module> </authentication> </application-policy> I think that the BaseCertLoginModule chekcs the clients server and the UsersRolesloginModule assigns the client to role (using the file jmx-console-roles.properties). However I am completely bewildered as to what should be in this file: jmx-console-users.properties. Normally that file stores user/password pairs (source) but when using client-cert I don't think that there should be passwords in there. Right now I am leaving that file empty but I am getting this exception: [org.jboss.security.auth.spi.UsersRolesLoginModule.initialize:135] Failed to load users/passwords/role files java.io.IOException: No properties file: users.properties or defaults: defaultUsers.properties found ... What should be in that file? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Rolling back file moves, folder deletes and mysql queries

    - by Workoholic
    This has been bugging me all day and there is no end in sight. When the user of my php application adds a new update and something goes wrong, I need to be able to undo a complex batch of mixed commands. They can be mysql update and insert queries, file deletes and folder renaming and creations. I can track the status of all insert commands and undo them if an error is thrown. But how do I do this with the update statements? Is there a smart way (some design pattern?) to keep track of such changes both in the file structure and the database? My database tables are MyISAM. It would be easy to just convert everything to InnoDB, so that I can use transactions. That way I would only have to deal with the file and folder operations. Unfortunately, I cannot assume that all clients have InnoDB support. It would also require me to convert many tables in my database to InnoDB, which I am hesitant to do.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 197 198 199 200 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208  | Next Page >