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• Hibernate Communications Link Failure in Restlet-Hibernate Based Java application powered by MySQL

  - by Vatsala

  Let me describe my question - I have a Java application - Hibernate as the DB interfacing layer over MySQL. I get the communications link failure error in my application. The occurence of this error is a very specific case. I get this error , When I leave mysql server unattended for more than approximately 6 hours (i.e. when there are no queries issued to MySQL for more than approximately 6 hours). I am pasting a top 'exception' level description below, and adding a pastebin link for a detailed stacktrace description. javax.persistence.PersistenceException: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: org.hibernate.exception.JDBCConnectionException: Cannot open connection - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: com.mysql.jdbc.exceptions.jdbc4.CommunicationsException: Communications link failure - The last packet successfully received from the server was 1,274,868,181,212 milliseconds ago. The last packet sent successfully to the server was 0 milliseconds ago. - Caused by: java.net.ConnectException: Connection refused: connect the link to the pastebin for further investigation - http://pastebin.com/4KujAmgD What I understand from these exception statements is that MySQL is refusing to take in any connections after a period of idle/nil activity. I have been reading up a bit about this via google search, and came to know that one of the possible ways to overcome this is to set values for c3p0 properties as c3p0 comes bundled with Hibernate. Specifically, I read from here http://www.mchange.com/projects/c3p0/index.html that setting two properties idleConnectionTestPeriod and preferredTestQuery will solve this for me. But these values dont seem to have had an effect. Is this the correct approach to fixing this? If not, what is the right way to get over this? The following are related Communications Link Failure questions at stackoverflow.com, but I've not found a satisfactory answer in their answers. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2121829/java-db-communications-link-failure http://stackoverflow.com/questions/298988/how-to-handle-communication-link-failure Note 1 - i dont get this error when I am using my application continuosly. Note 2 - I use JPA with Hibernate and hence my hibernate.dialect,etc hibernate properties reside within the persistence.xml in the META-INF folder (does that prevent the c3p0 properties from working?)

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• Stored procedure performance randomly plummets; trivial ALTER fixes it. Why?

  - by gWiz

  I have a couple of stored procedures on SQL Server 2005 that I've noticed will suddenly take a significantly long time to complete when invoked from my ASP.NET MVC app running in an IIS6 web farm of four servers. Normal, expected completion time is less than a second; unexpected anomalous completion time is 25-45 seconds. The problem doesn't seem to ever correct itself. However, if I ALTER the stored procedure (even if I don't change anything in the procedure, except to perhaps add a space to the script created by SSMS Modify command), the completion time reverts to expected completion time. IIS and SQL Server are running on separate boxes, both running Windows Server 2003 R2 Enterprise Edition. SQL Server is Standard Edition. All machines have dual Xeon E5450 3GHz CPUs and 4GB RAM. SQL Server is accessed using its TCP/IP protocol over gigabit ethernet (not sure what physical medium). The problem is present from all web servers in the web farm. When I invoke the procedure from a query window in SSMS on my development machine, the procedure completes in normal time. This is strange because I was under the impression that SSMS used the same SqlClient driver as in .NET. When I point my development instance of the web app to the production database, I again get the anomalous long completion time. If my SqlCommand Timeout is too short, I get System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. Question: Why would performing ALTER on the stored procedure, without actually changing anything in it, restore the completion time to less than a second, as expected? Edit: To clarify, when the procedure is running slow for the app, it simultaneously runs fine in SSMS with the same parameters. The only difference I can discern is login credentials (next time I notice the behavior, I'll be checking from SSMS with the same creds). The ultimate goal is to get the procs to sustainably run with expected speed without requiring occasional intervention. Resolution: I wanted to to update this question in case others are experiencing this issue. Following the leads of the answers below, I was able to consistently reproduce this behavior. In order to test, I utilize sp_recompile and pass it one of the susceptible sprocs. I then initiate a website request from my browser that will invoke the sproc with atypical parameters. Lastly, I initiate a website request to a page that invokes the sproc with typical parameters, and observe that the request does not complete because of a SQL timeout on the sproc invocation. To resolve this on SQL Server 2005, I've added OPTIMIZE FOR hints to my SELECT. The sprocs that were vulnerable all have the "all-in-one" pattern described in this article. This pattern is certainly not ideal but was a necessary trade-off given the timeframe for the project.

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• Why i get everytime the error-message that i've already sent the headers

  - by mikep

  Hey, i've another question about web-programming. I programmed a login script, but everytime when i try to login it says that i've send the header informations already. Here are the 2 files: <?php if($_GET['logout'] == 1) { setcookie('authorized', 1, time()-3600); } ?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Login - photoAdminSite</title> </head> <style type="text/css"> body { text-align: center; font-family: helvetica; } #loginForm { padding: 1em; background: #e3e3e3; width: 260px; margin: 3em auto 0; text-align: left; } </style> <body> <div id="loginForm"> <form method="post" action="confirm_login_credentials.php"> <h2>LOGIN</h2> <p>Username: <input type="text" name="username" /></p> <p>Password: <input type="password" name="password" /></p> <p><input type="submit" value="Login" name="submit" /></p> </form> </div> </body> </html> <?php $username = $_POST['username']; $password = $_POST['password']; require 'database.php'; $q = "SELECT id FROM users_photoadminsite WHERE user_name = '$username' AND password = '$password'"; $result = $mysqli->query($q) or die(mysqli_error()); if (mysqli_num_rows($result) == 1) { setcookie('authorized', 1, 0); header("Location: index.php"); } else { header("Location: login.php"); } ?> i would be really happy about some helpful answers.

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• Using JavaScript to parse an XML file

  - by Chris Clouten

  I am new to Stack OverFlow and coding in general. I am trying to take an XML file and render it in the browser using JavaScript. I have looked around at some sample code of how to do this and came up with the following code: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <body> <script> if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.open("GET","social.xml",false); xmlhttp.send(); xmlDoc=xmlhttp.responseXML; document.write("<table border='1'>"); var x=xmlDoc.getElementsByTagName("CD"); for (i=0;i<x.length;i++) { document.write("<tr><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("c_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td><td>"); document.write(x[i].getElementsByTagName("facebook_id")[0].childNodes[0].nodeValue); document.write("</td></tr>"); } document.write("</table>"); </script> </body> </html> Anyway, when I run this on my local server none of the data that I am trying to display in the table appears. My .html file and .xml file are in the same folder, so I believe I have the correct file pathway. I could just be making a rookie mistake here, but I can't for the life of me figure out why a table listing the c_id and facebook_id values is not being created. I looked around for answers and haven't been able to find any. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks!

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• Nested Execution Flow Control

  - by chris

  I've read tens of answers related to callbacks, promises and other ways to control flow, but I can't still wrap my head around this task, obviously due to my lack of competence. I have a nested problem: In test_1() (and the other functions) I would like to ensure that the rows are added to the table according to the order in which the elements are in the object; I would like to execute either test_2 or test_3 (or both after each other) only after test_1 has finished completely. Actually the right sequence will only be known at runtime (there will be a switch with the possible sequences, like 1,2,3 or 1,3,2 or 1,2,1,3 or 1,3,3,2, etc...) Code: $(function () { // create table tbl = document.createElement('table'); tbl.className = "mainTbl"; $("body").append(tbl); }); function test_1() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_2() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } function test_3() { $.each(obj, function () { var img = new Image(); img.onload = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "loaded"; }; img.onerror = function () { // add row of data to table var row = tbl.insertRow(-1); var c1 = row.insertCell(0); c1.innerHTML = "not loaded"; }; img.src = this.url; }); } I know that calling the functions in sequence doesn't work as they don't wait for each other... I think promises are they way to go but I can't find the right combination and the documentation is way too complex for my skills. What's the best way to structure the code so that it's executed in the right order?

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• How much time should it take to find the sum of all prime numbers less than 2 million?

  - by Shahensha

  I was trying to solve this Project Euler Question. I implemented the sieve of euler as a helper class in java. It works pretty well for the small numbers. But when I input 2 million as the limit it doesn't return the answer. I use Netbeans IDE. I waited for a lot many hours once, but it still didn't print the answer. When I stopped running the code, it gave the following result Java Result: 2147483647 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 2,097 minutes 43 seconds) This answer is incorrect. Even after waiting for so much time, this isn't correct. While the same code returns correct answers for smaller limits. Sieve of euler has a very simple algo given at the botton of this page. My implementation is this: package support; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; /** * * @author admin */ public class SieveOfEuler { int upperLimit; List<Integer> primeNumbers; public SieveOfEuler(int upperLimit){ this.upperLimit = upperLimit; primeNumbers = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 2 ; i <= upperLimit ; i++) primeNumbers.add(i); generatePrimes(); } private void generatePrimes(){ int currentPrimeIndex = 0; int currentPrime = 2; while(currentPrime <= Math.sqrt(upperLimit)){ ArrayList<Integer> toBeRemoved = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = currentPrimeIndex ; i < primeNumbers.size() ; i++){ int multiplier = primeNumbers.get(i); toBeRemoved.add(currentPrime * multiplier); } for(Integer i : toBeRemoved){ primeNumbers.remove(i); } currentPrimeIndex++; currentPrime = primeNumbers.get(currentPrimeIndex); } } public List getPrimes(){ return primeNumbers; } public void displayPrimes(){ for(double i : primeNumbers) System.out.println(i); } } I am perplexed! My questions is 1) Why is it taking so much time? Is there something wrong in what I am doing? Please suggest ways for improving my coding style, if you find something wrong.

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• Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

  - by MikeH

  I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

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• SQL Server 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

  - by JMTyler

  I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but SQL Server does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

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• Python and displaying HTML

  - by Tyler Seymour

  I've gotten pretty comfortable with Python and now I'm looking to make a rudimentary web application. I was somewhat scared of Django and the other Python frameworks so I went caveman on it and decided to generate the HTML myself using another Python script. Maybe this is how you do it anyways - but I'm just figuring this stuff out. I'm really looking for a tip-off on, well, what to do next. My Python script PRINTS the HTML (is this even correct? I need it to be on a webpage!), but now what? Thanks for your continued support during my learning process. One day I will post answers! -Tyler Here's my code: from SearchPhone import SearchPhone phones = ["Iphone 3", "Iphone 4", "Iphone 5","Galaxy s3", "Galaxy s2", "LG Lucid", "LG Esteem", "HTC One S", "Droid 4", "Droid RAZR MAXX", "HTC EVO", "Galaxy Nexus", "LG Optimus 2", "LG Ignite", "Galaxy Note", "HTC Amaze", "HTC Rezound", "HTC Vivid", "HTC Rhyme", "Motorola Photon", "Motorola Milestone", "myTouch slide", "HTC Status", "Droid 3", "HTC Evo 3d", "HTC Wildfire", "LG Optimus 3d", "HTC ThunderBolt", "Incredible 2", "Kyocera Echo", "Galaxy S 4g", "HTC Inspire", "LG Optimus 2x", "Samsung Gem", "HTC Evo Shift", "Nexus S", "LG Axis", "Droid 2", "G2", "Droid x", "Droid Incredible" ] print """<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>table of phones</title> </head> <body> </body> </html> """ #table print '<table width="100%" border="1">' for x in phones: y = SearchPhone(x) print "\t<tr>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[0]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[1]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[2]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[3]) + "</td>" print "\t\t<td>" + str(y[4]) + "</td>" print "\t</tr>" print "</table>

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• Race condition for thread startup

  - by Ozzah

  A similar question was asked here, but the answers generally all seem to relate to the lambda notation. I get a similar result without the lambda so I thought I'd ask for some clarification: Say I have something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); One would expect the following output: Thread 0 Thread 1 Thread 2 Thread 3 Thread 4 Now I realise that the threads aren't started in any particular order, so let's just assume that the above lines can come out in any order. But that is not what happens. What instead happens: Thread 3 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 Thread 4 or something similar, which leads me to believe that rather than passing the value if i, it is passing the reference. (Which is weird, since an int is a value type). Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { int j = i; Console.WriteLine("Thread " + j); }))).Start(); does not help either, even though we have made a copy of i. I am assuming the reason is that it hasn't made a copy of i in time. Doing something like this: for (int i = 0; i < 5; i++) { (new Thread(new ThreadStart(delegate() { Console.WriteLine("Thread " + i); }))).Start(); Thread.Sleep(50); } seems to fix the problem, however it is extremely undesirable as we're wasting 50ms on each iteration, not to mention the fact that if the computer is heavily loaded then maybe 50ms may not be enough. Here is a sample with my current, specific problem: Thread t = new Thread(new ThreadStart(delgate() { threadLogic(param1, param2, param3, param4); })); t.Start(); param1 = param2 = param3 = param4 = null; with: void threadLogic(object param1, object param2, object param3, object param4) { // Do some stuff here... } I want threadLogic() to run in its own thread, however the above code gives a null reference exception. I assume this is because the values are set to null before the thread has had a chance to start. Again, putting a Thread.Sleep(100) works, but it is an awful solution from every aspect. What do you guys recommend for this particular type of race condition?

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• BufferedReader no longer buffering after a while?

  - by BobTurbo

  Sorry I can't post code but I have a bufferedreader with 50000000 bytes set as the buffer size. It works as you would expect for half an hour, the HDD light flashing every two minutes or so, reading in the big chunk of data, and then going quiet again as the CPU processes it. But after about half an hour (this is a very big file), the HDD starts thrashing as if it is reading one byte at a time. It is still in the same loop and I think I checked free ram to rule out swapping (heap size is default). Probably won't get any helpful answers, but worth a try. OK I have changed heap size to 768mb and still nothing. There is plenty of free memory and java.exe is only using about 300mb. Now I have profiled it and heap stays at about 200MB, well below what is available. CPU stays at 50%. Yet the HDD starts thrashing like crazy. I have.. no idea. I am going to rewrite the whole thing in c#, that is my solution. Here is the code (it is just a throw-away script, not pretty): BufferedReader s = null; HashMap<String, Integer> allWords = new HashMap<String, Integer>(); HashSet<String> pageWords = new HashSet<String>(); long[] pageCount = new long[78592]; long pages = 0; Scanner wordFile = new Scanner(new BufferedReader(new FileReader("allWords.txt"))); while (wordFile.hasNext()) { allWords.put(wordFile.next(), Integer.parseInt(wordFile.next())); } s = new BufferedReader(new FileReader("wikipedia/enwiki-latest-pages-articles.xml"), 50000000); StringBuilder words = new StringBuilder(); String nextLine = null; while ((nextLine = s.readLine()) != null) { if (a.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (b.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (c.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } else if (d.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { nextLine = s.readLine(); if (e.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { if (f.matcher(s.readLine()).matches()) { pageWords.addAll(Arrays.asList(words.toString().toLowerCase().split("[^a-zA-Z]"))); words.setLength(0); pages++; for (String word : pageWords) { if (allWords.containsKey(word)) { pageCount[allWords.get(word)]++; } else if (!word.isEmpty() && allWords.containsKey(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))) { pageCount[allWords.get(word.substring(0, word.length() - 1))]++; } } pageWords.clear(); } } } else if (g.matcher(nextLine).matches()) { continue; } words.append(nextLine); words.append(" "); }

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• Select latest group by in nhibernate

  - by Kendrick

  I have Canine and CanineHandler objects in my application. The CanineHandler object has a PersonID (which references a completely different database), an EffectiveDate (which specifies when a handler started with the canine), and a FK reference to the Canine (CanineID). Given a specific PersonID, I want to find all canines they're currently responsible for. The (simplified) query I'd use in SQL would be: Select Canine.* from Canine inner join CanineHandler on(CanineHandler.CanineID=Canine.CanineID) inner join (select CanineID,Max(EffectiveDate) MaxEffectiveDate from caninehandler group by CanineID) as CurrentHandler on(CurrentHandler.CanineID=CanineHandler.CanineID and CurrentHandler.MaxEffectiveDate=CanineHandler.EffectiveDate) where CanineHandler.HandlerPersonID=@PersonID Edit: Added mapping files below: <class name="CanineHandler" table="CanineHandler" schema="dbo"> <id name="CanineHandlerID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="EffectiveDate" type="DateTime" precision="16" not-null="true" /> <property name="HandlerPersonID" type="Int64" precision="19" not-null="true" /> <many-to-one name="Canine" class="Canine" column="CanineID" not-null="true" access="field.camelcase-underscore" /> </class> <class name="Canine" table="Canine"> <id name="CanineID" type="Int32"> <generator class="identity" /> </id> <property name="Name" type="String" length="64" not-null="true" /> ... <set name="CanineHandlers" table="CanineHandler" inverse="true" order-by="EffectiveDate desc" cascade="save-update" access="field.camelcase-underscore"> <key column="CanineID" /> <one-to-many class="CanineHandler" /> </set> <property name="IsDeleted" type="Boolean" not-null="true" /> </class> I haven't tried yet, but I'm guessing I could do this in HQL. I haven't had to write anything in HQL yet, so I'll have to tackle that eventually anyway, but my question is whether/how I can do this sub-query with the criterion/subqueries objects. I got as far as creating the following detached criteria: DetachedCriteria effectiveHandlers = DetachedCriteria.For<Canine>() .SetProjection(Projections.ProjectionList() .Add(Projections.Max("EffectiveDate"),"MaxEffectiveDate") .Add(Projections.GroupProperty("CanineID"),"handledCanineID") ); but I can't figure out how to do the inner join. If I do this: Session.CreateCriteria<Canine>() .CreateCriteria("CanineHandler", "handler", NHibernate.SqlCommand.JoinType.InnerJoin) .List<Canine>(); I get an error "could not resolve property: CanineHandler of: OPS.CanineApp.Model.Canine". Obviously I'm missing something(s) but from the documentation I got the impression that should return a list of Canines that have handlers (possibly with duplicates). Until I can make this work, adding the subquery isn't going to work... I've found similar questions, such as http://stackoverflow.com/questions/747382/only-get-latest-results-using-nhibernate but none of the answers really seem to apply with the kind of direct result I'm looking for. Any help or suggestion is greatly appreciated.

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• c++ global operator not playing well with template class

  - by John

  ok, i found some similar posts on stackoverflow, but I couldn't find any that pertained to my exact situation and I was confused with some of the answers given. Ok, so here is my problem: I have a template matrix class as follows: template <typename T, size_t ROWS, size_t COLS> class Matrix { public: template<typename, size_t, size_t> friend class Matrix; Matrix( T init = T() ) : _matrix(ROWS, vector<T>(COLS, init)) { /*for( int i = 0; i < ROWS; i++ ) { _matrix[i] = new vector<T>( COLS, init ); }*/ } Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & operator+=( const T & value ) { for( vector<T>::size_type i = 0; i < this->_matrix.size(); i++ ) { for( vector<T>::size_type j = 0; j < this->_matrix[i].size(); j++ ) { this->_matrix[i][j] += value; } } return *this; } private: vector< vector<T> > _matrix; }; and I have the following global function template: template<typename T, size_t ROWS, size_t COLS> Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> operator+( const Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & lhs, const Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> & rhs ) { Matrix<T, ROWS, COLS> returnValue = lhs; return returnValue += lhs; } To me, this seems to be right. However, when I try to compile the code, I get the following error (thrown from the operator+ function): binary '+=' : no operator found which takes a right-hand operand of type 'const matrix::Matrix<T,ROWS,COLS>' (or there is no acceptable conversion) I can't figure out what to make of this. Any help if greatly appreciated!

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• Are there any platforms where using structure copy on an fd_set (for select() or pselect()) causes p

  - by Jonathan Leffler

  The select() and pselect() system calls modify their arguments (the 'struct fd_set *' arguments), so the input value tells the system which file descriptors to check and the return values tell the programmer which file descriptors are currently usable. If you are going to call them repeatedly for the same set of file descriptors, you need to ensure that you have a fresh copy of the descriptors for each call. The obvious way to do that is to use a structure copy: struct fd_set ref_set_rd; struct fd_set ref_set_wr; struct fd_set ref_set_er; ... ...code to set the reference fd_set_xx values... ... while (!done) { struct fd_set act_set_rd = ref_set_rd; struct fd_set act_set_wr = ref_set_wr; struct fd_set act_set_er = ref_set_er; int bits_set = select(max_fd, &act_set_rd, &act_set_wr, &act_set_er, &timeout); if (bits_set > 0) { ...process the output values of act_set_xx... } } My question: Are there any platforms where it is not safe to do a structure copy of the struct fd_set values as shown? I'm concerned lest there be hidden memory allocation or anything unexpected like that. (There are macros/functions FD_SET(), FD_CLR(), FD_ZERO() and FD_ISSET() to mask the internals from the application.) I can see that MacOS X (Darwin) is safe; other BSD-based systems are likely to be safe, therefore. You can help by documenting other systems that you know are safe in your answers. (I do have minor concerns about how well the struct fd_set would work with more than 8192 open file descriptors - the default maximum number of open files is only 256, but the maximum number is 'unlimited'. Also, since the structures are 1 KB, the copying code is not dreadfully efficient, but then running through a list of file descriptors to recreate the input mask on each cycle is not necessarily efficient either. Maybe you can't do select() when you have that many file descriptors open, though that is when you are most likely to need the functionality.) There's a related SO question - asking about 'poll() vs select()' which addresses a different set of issues from this question.

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• Best practices for displaying large number of images as thumbnails in c#

  - by andySF

  I got to a point where it's very difficult to get answers by debugging and tracing object, so i need some help. What I'm trying to do: A history form for my screen capture pet project. The history must list all images as thumbnails (ex: picasa). What I've done: I created a HistoryItem:UserControl. This history item has a few buttons, a check box, a label and a picture box. The buttons are for delete/edit/copy image. The check box is used for selecting one or more images and the label is for some info text. The picture box is getting the image from a public property that is a path and a method creates a proportional thumbnail to display it when the control has been loaded. This user control has two public events. One for deleting the image and one for bubbling the events for mouse enter and mouse leave trough all controls. For this I use EventBroadcastProvider. The bubbling is useful because wherever I move the mouse over the control, the buttons appear. The dispose method has been extended and I manually remove the events. All images are loaded by looping a xml file that contains the path of all images. For each image in this XML I create a new HitoryItem that is added (after a little coding to sort and limit the amount of images loaded) to a flow layout panel. The problem: When I lunch the history form, and the flow layout panel is populated with my HistoryItem custom control, my memory usage increases drastically.From 14Mb to around 100MB with 100 images loaded. By closing the history form and disposing whatever I could dispose and even trying to call GC.Collect() the memory increase remain. I search for any object that could not be disposed properly like an image or event but wherever I used them they are disposed. The problem seams to be from multiple sources. One is that the events for bubbling are not disposing properly, and the other is from the picture box itself. All of this i could see by commenting all the code to a limited version when only the custom control without any image processing and even events is loaded. Without the events the memory consumption is reduced by axiomatically 20%. So my real question is if this logic, flow layout panels and custom controls with picture boxes, is the best solution for displaying large amounts of images as thumbnails. Thank you!

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• Why is this statement treated as a string instead of its result?

  - by reve_etrange

  I am trying to perform some composition-based filtering on a large collection of strings (protein sequences). I wrote a group of three subroutines in order to take care of it, but I'm running into trouble in two ways - one minor, one major. The minor trouble is that when I use List::MoreUtils 'pairwise' I get warnings about using $a and $b only once and them being uninitialized. But I believe I'm calling this method properly (based on CPAN's entry for it and some examples from the web). The major trouble is an error "Can't use string ("17/32") as HASH ref while "strict refs" in use..." It seems like this can only happen if the foreach loop in &comp is giving the hash values as a string instead of evaluating the division operation. I'm sure I've made a rookie mistake, but can't find the answer on the web. The first time I even looked at perl code was last Wednesday... use List::Util; use List::MoreUtils; my @alphabet = ( 'A', 'R', 'N', 'D', 'C', 'Q', 'E', 'G', 'H', 'I', 'L', 'K', 'M', 'F', 'P', 'S', 'T', 'W', 'Y', 'V' ); my $gapchr = '-'; # Takes a sequence and returns letter = occurrence count pairs as hash. sub getcounts { my %counts = (); foreach my $chr (@alphabet) { $counts{$chr} = ( $[0] =~ tr/$chr/$chr/ ); } $counts{'gap'} = ( $[0] =~ tr/$gapchr/$gapchr/ ); return %counts; } # Takes a sequence and returns letter = fractional composition pairs as a hash. sub comp { my %comp = getcounts( $[0] ); foreach my $chr (@alphabet) { $comp{$chr} = $comp{$chr} / ( length( $[0] ) - $comp{'gap'} ); } return %comp; } # Takes two sequences and returns a measure of the composition difference between them, as a scalar. # Originally all on one line but it was unreadable. sub dcomp { my @dcomp = pairwise { $a - $b } @{ values( %{ comp( $[0] ) } ) }, @{ values( %{ comp( $[1] ) } ) }; @dcomp = apply { $_ ** 2 } @dcomp; my $dcomp = sqrt( sum( 0, @dcomp ) ) / 20; return $dcomp; } Much appreciation for any answers or advice!

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• How can a C/C++ program put itself into background?

  - by Larry Gritz

  What's the best way for a running C or C++ program that's been launched from the command line to put itself into the background, equivalent to if the user had launched from the unix shell with '&' at the end of the command? (But the user didn't.) It's a GUI app and doesn't need any shell I/O, so there's no reason to tie up the shell after launch. But I want a shell command launch to be auto-backgrounded without the '&' (or on Windows). Ideally, I want a solution that would work on any of Linux, OS X, and Windows. (Or separate solutions that I can select with #ifdef.) It's ok to assume that this should be done right at the beginning of execution, as opposed to somewhere in the middle. One solution is to have the main program be a script that launches the real binary, carefully putting it into the background. But it seems unsatisfying to need these coupled shell/binary pairs. Another solution is to immediately launch another executed version (with 'system' or CreateProcess), with the same command line arguments, but putting the child in the background and then having the parent exit. But this seems clunky compared to the process putting itself into background. Edited after a few answers: Yes, a fork() (or system(), or CreateProcess on Windows) is one way to sort of do this, that I hinted at in my original question. But all of these solutions make a SECOND process that is backgrounded, and then terminate the original process. I was wondering if there was a way to put the EXISTING process into the background. One difference is that if the app was launched from a script that recorded its process id (perhaps for later killing or other purpose), the newly forked or created process will have a different id and so will not be controllable by any launching script, if you see what I'm getting at. Edit #2: fork() isn't a good solution for OS X, where the man page for 'fork' says that it's unsafe if certain frameworks or libraries are being used. I tried it, and my app complains loudly at runtime: "The process has forked and you cannot use this CoreFoundation functionality safely. You MUST exec()." I was intrigued by daemon(), but when I tried it on OS X, it gave the same error message, so I assume that it's just a fancy wrapper for fork() and has the same restrictions. Excuse the OS X centrism, it just happens to be the system in front of me at the moment. But I am indeed looking for a solution to all three platforms.

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• Problem with pointers and getstring function

  - by volting

  I am trying to write a function to get a string from the uart1. Its for an embedded system so I don't want to use malloc. The pointer that is passed to the getstring function seems to point to garbage after the gets_e_uart1() is called. I don't use pointers too often so I'm sure it is something really stupid and trivial that Im doing wrong. Regards, V int main() { char *ptr = 0; while(1) { gets_e_uart1(ptr, 100); puts_uart1(ptr); } return 0; }*end main*/ //------------------------------------------------------------------------- //gets a string and echos it //returns 0 if there is no error char getstring_e_uart1(char *stringPtr_, const int SIZE_) { char buffer_[SIZE_]; stringPtr_ = buffer_; int start_ = 0, end_ = SIZE_ - 1; char errorflag = 0; /*keep geting chars until newline char recieved*/ while((buffer_[start_++] = getchar_uart1())!= 0x0D) { putchar_uart1(buffer_[start_]);//echo it /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(start_ == end_) { start_ = 0; errorflag = 1; } } putchar_uart1('\n'); putchar_uart1('\r'); /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(start_ == end_) { buffer_[0] = '\0'; errorflag = 1; } else { buffer_[start_++] = '\0'; } return errorflag; } Update: I decided to go with approach of passing a pointer an array to the function. This works nicely, thanks to everyone for the informative answers. Updated Code: //------------------------------------------------------------------------- //argument 1 should be a pointer to an array, //and the second argument should be the size of the array //gets a string and echos it //returns 0 if there is no error char getstring_e_uart1(char *stringPtr_, const int SIZE_) { char *startPtr_ = stringPtr_; char *endPtr_ = startPtr_ + (SIZE_ - 1); char errorflag = 0; /*keep geting chars until newline char recieved*/ while((*stringPtr_ = getchar_uart1())!= 0x0D) { putchar_uart1(*stringPtr_);//echo it stringPtr_++; /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(stringPtr_ == endPtr_) { stringPtr_ = startPtr_; errorflag = 1; } } putchar_uart1('\n'); putchar_uart1('\r'); /*check for end of buffer wraparound if neccesary*/ if(stringPtr_ == endPtr_) { stringPtr_ = startPtr_; *stringPtr_ = '\0'; errorflag = 1; } else { *stringPtr_ = '\0'; } return errorflag; }

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• How to handle very frequent updates to a Lucene index

  - by fsm

  I am trying to prototype an indexing/search application which uses very volatile indexing data sources (forums, social networks etc), here are some of the performance requirements, Very fast turn-around time (by this I mean that any new data (such as a new message on a forum) should be available in the search results very soon (less than a minute)) I need to discard old documents on a fairly regular basis to ensure that the search results are not dated. Last but not least, the search application needs to be responsive. (latency on the order of 100 milliseconds, and should support at least 10 qps) All of the requirements I have currently can be met w/o using Lucene (and that would let me satisfy all 1,2 and 3), but I am anticipating other requirements in the future (like search relevance etc) which Lucene makes easier to implement. However, since Lucene is designed for use cases far more complex than the one I'm currently working on, I'm having a hard time satisfying my performance requirements. Here are some questions, a. I read that the optimize() method in the IndexWriter class is expensive, and should not be used by applications that do frequent updates, what are the alternatives? b. In order to do incremental updates, I need to keep committing new data, and also keep refreshing the index reader to make sure it has the new data available. These are going to affect 1 and 3 above. Should I try duplicate indices? What are some common approaches to solving this problem? c. I know that Lucene provides a delete method, which lets you delete all documents that match a certain query, in my case, I need to delete all documents which are older than a certain age, now one option is to add a date field to every document and use that to delete documents later. Is it possible to do range queries on document ids (I can create my own id field since I think that the one created by lucene keeps changing) to delete documents? Is it any faster than comparing dates represented as strings? I know these are very open questions, so I am not looking for a detailed answer, I will try to treat all of your answers as suggestions and use them to inform my design. Thanks! Please let me know if you need any other information.

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• Code Golf: Countdown Number Game

  - by Noldorin

  Challenge Here is the task, inspired by the well-known British TV game show Countdown. The challenge should be pretty clear even without any knowledge of the game, but feel free to ask for clarifications. And if you fancy seeing a clip of this game in action, check out this YouTube clip. It features the wonderful late Richard Whitely in 1997. You are given 6 numbers, chosen at random from the set {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 9, 10, 25, 50, 75, 100}, and a random target number between 100 and 999. The aim is to make use the six given numbers and the four common arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, division; all over the rational numbers) to generate the target - or as close as possible either side. Each number may only be used once at most, while each arithmetic operator may be used any number of times (including zero.) Note that it does not matter how many numbers are used. Write a function that takes the target number and set of 6 numbers (can be represented as list/collection/array/sequence) and returns the solution in any standard numerical notation (e.g. infix, prefix, postfix). The function must always return the closest-possible result to the target, and must run in at most 1 minute on a standard PC. Note that in the case where more than one solution exists, any single solution is sufficient. Examples: {50, 100, 4, 2, 2, 4}, target 203 e.g. 100 * 2 + 2 + (4 / 4) e.g. (100 + 50) * 4 * 2 / (4 + 2) {25, 4, 9, 2, 3, 10}, target 465 e.g. (25 + 10 - 4) * (9 * 2 - 3) {9, 8, 10, 5, 9, 7), target 241 e.g. ((10 + 9) * 9 * 7) + 8) / 5 Rules Other than mentioned in the problem statement, there are no further restrictions. You may write the function in any standard language (standard I/O is not necessary). The aim as always is to solve the task with the smallest number of characters of code. Saying that, I may not simply accept the answer with the shortest code. I'll also be looking at elegance of the code and time complexity of the algorithm! My Solution I'm attempting an F# solution when I find the free time - will post it here when I have something! Format Please post all answers in the following format for the purpose of easy comparison: Language Number of characters: ??? Fully obfuscated function: (code here) Clear (ideally commented) function: (code here) Any notes on the algorithm/clever shortcuts it takes.

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• iPhone memory management (with specific examples/questions)

  - by donkim

  Hey all. I know this question's been asked but I still don't have a clear picture of memory management in Objective-C. I feel like I have a pretty good grasp of it, but I'd still like some correct answers for the following code. I have a series of examples that I'd love for someone(s) to clarify. Setting a value for an instance variable. Say I have an NSMutableArray variable. In my class, when I initialize it, do I need to call a retain on it? Do I do fooArray = [[[NSMutableArray alloc] init] retain]; or fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Does doing [[NSMutableArray alloc] init] already set the retain count to 1, so I wouldn't need to call retain on it? On the other hand, if I called a method that I know returns an autoreleased object, I would for sure have to call retain on it, right? Like so: fooString = [[NSString stringWithFormat:@"%d items", someInt] retain]; Properties. I ask about the retain because I'm a bit confused about how @property's automatic setter works. If I had set fooArray to be a @property with retain set, Objective-C will automatically create the following setter, right? - (void)setFooArray:(NSMutableArray *)anArray { [fooArray release]; fooArray = [anArray retain]; } So, if I had code like this: self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; (which I believe is valid code), Objective-C creates a setter method that calls retain on the value assigned to fooArray. In this case, will the retain count actually be 2? Correct way of setting a value of a property. I know there are questions on this and (possibly) debates, but which is the right way to set a @property? This? self.fooArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; Or this? NSMutableArray *anArray = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; self.fooArray = anArray; [anArray release]; I'd love to get some clarification on these examples. Thanks!

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• Custom cell in list in Flash AS3

  - by Stian Flatby

  I am no expert in Flash, and I need some quick help here, without needing to learn everything from scratch. Short story, I have to make a list where each cell contains an image, two labels, and a button. List/Cell example: img - label - label - button img - label - label - button As a Java-programmer, I have tried to quicly learn the syntax and visualness of Flash and AS3, but with no luck so far. I have fairly understood the basics of movie clips etc. I saw a tutorial on how to add a list, and add some text to it. So I dragged in a list, and in the code went list.addItem({label:"hello"}); , and that worked ofc. So i thought if I double-clicked the MC of the list, i would get to tweak some things. In there I have been wandering around different halls of cell-renderers etc. I have now come to the point that I entered the CellRenderer_skinUp or something, and customized it to my liking. When this was done, I expected i could use list.addItem(); and get an empty "version" of my cell, with the img, labels and the button. But AS3 expects an input in addItem. From my object-oriented view, I am thinking that i have to create an object of the cell i have made, but i have no luck reaching it.. I tried to go var test:CellRenderer = list.listItem; list.addItem(test); ..But with no luck. This is just for funsies, but I really want to make this work, however not so much that I am willing to read up on ALOT of Flash and AS3. I felt that I was closing in on the prize, but the compiler expected a semicolon after the variable (list.addItem({test:something});). Note: If possible, I do NOT want this: list.addItem({image:"src",label:"text",label"text",button:"text"}); Well.. It actually is what I want, but I would really like to custom-draw everything. Does anyone get what I am trying to do, and has any answers for me? Am I approaching this the wrong way? I have searched the interwebs for custom list-cells, but with no luck. Please, any guiding here is appreciated! Sti

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• How should I ethically approach user password storage for later plaintext retrieval?

  - by Shane

  As I continue to build more and more websites and web applications I am often asked to store user's passwords in a way that they can be retrieved if/when the user has an issue (either to email a forgotten password link, walk them through over the phone, etc.) When I can I fight bitterly against this practice and I do a lot of ‘extra’ programming to make password resets and administrative assistance possible without storing their actual password. When I can’t fight it (or can’t win) then I always encode the password in some way so that it at least isn’t stored as plaintext in the database—though I am aware that if my DB gets hacked that it won’t take much for the culprit to crack the passwords as well—so that makes me uncomfortable. In a perfect world folks would update passwords frequently and not duplicate them across many different sites—unfortunately I know MANY people that have the same work/home/email/bank password, and have even freely given it to me when they need assistance. I don’t want to be the one responsible for their financial demise if my DB security procedures fail for some reason. Morally and ethically I feel responsible for protecting what can be, for some users, their livelihood even if they are treating it with much less respect. I am certain that there are many avenues to approach and arguments to be made for salting hashes and different encoding options, but is there a single ‘best practice’ when you have to store them? In almost all cases I am using PHP and MySQL if that makes any difference in the way I should handle the specifics. Additional Information for Bounty I want to clarify that I know this is not something you want to have to do and that in most cases refusal to do so is best. I am, however, not looking for a lecture on the merits of taking this approach I am looking for the best steps to take if you do take this approach. In a note below I made the point that websites geared largely toward the elderly, mentally challenged, or very young can become confusing for people when they are asked to perform a secure password recovery routine. Though we may find it simple and mundane in those cases some users need the extra assistance of either having a service tech help them into the system or having it emailed/displayed directly to them. In such systems the attrition rate from these demographics could hobble the application if users were not given this level of access assistance, so please answer with such a setup in mind. Thanks to Everyone This has been a fun questions with lots of debate and I have enjoyed it. In the end I selected an answer that both retains password security (I will not have to keep plain text or recoverable passwords), but also makes it possible for the user base I specified to log into a system without the major drawbacks I have found from normal password recovery. As always there were about 5 answers that I would like to have marked correct for different reasons, but I had to choose the best one--all the rest got a +1. Thanks everyone!

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• Is MySQL Replication Appropriate in this case?

  - by MJB

  I have a series of databases, each of which is basically standalone. It initially seemed like I needed a replication solution, but the more I researched it, the more it felt like replication was overkill and not useful anyway. I have not done MySQL replication before, so I have been reading up on the online docs, googling, and searching SO for relevant questions, but I can't find a scenario quite like mine. Here is a brief description of my issue: The various databases almost never have a live connection to each other. They need to be able to "sync" by copying files to a thumb drive and then moving them to the proper destination. It is OK for the data to not match exactly, but they should have the same parent-child relationships. That is, if a generated key differs between databases, no big deal. But the visible data must match. Timing is not critical. Updates can be done a week later, or even a month later, as long as they are done eventually. Updates cannot be guaranteed to be in the proper order, or in any order for that matter. They will be in order from each database; just not between databases. Rather than a set of master-slave relationships, it is more like a central database (R/W) and multiple remote databases (also R/W). I won't know how many remote databases I have until they are created. And the central DB won't know that a database exists until data arrives from it. (To me, this implies I cannot use the method of giving each its own unique identity range to guarantee uniqueness in the central database.) It appears to me that the bottom line is that I don't want "replication" so much as I want "awareness". I want the central database to know what happened in the remote databases, but there is no time requirement. I want the remote databases to be aware of the central database, but they don't need to know about each other. WTH is my question? It is this: Does this scenario sound like any of the typical replication scenarios, or does it sound like I have to roll my own? Perhaps #7 above is the only one that matters, and given that requirement, out-of-the-box replication is impossible. EDIT: I realize that this question might be more suited to ServerFault. I also searched there and found no answers to my questions. And based on the replication questions I did find both on SO and SF, it seemed that the decision was 50-50 over where to put my question. Sorry if I guessed wrong.

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• Maximum nametable char count exceeded

  - by doc

  I'm having issues with the maximum nametable char count quota, I followed a couple of answers here and it solved the problem for a while, but now I'm having the same issue. My Server side config is as follows: <system.serviceModel> <bindings> <netTcpBinding> <binding name="GenericBinding" maxBufferPoolSize="2147483647" maxBufferSize="2147483647" maxReceivedMessageSize="2147483647"> <readerQuotas maxDepth="2147483647" maxStringContentLength="2147483647" maxArrayLength="2147483647" maxBytesPerRead="2147483647" maxNameTableCharCount="2147483647" /> <security mode="None" /> </binding> </netTcpBinding> </bindings> <behaviors> <serviceBehaviors> <behavior> <serviceMetadata httpGetEnabled="false" /> <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> <dataContractSerializer maxItemsInObjectGraph="1000000" /> </behavior> </serviceBehaviors> </behaviors> <services> <service name="REMWCF.RemWCFSvc"> <endpoint address="" binding="netTcpBinding" contract="REMWCF.IRemWCFSvc" bindingConfiguration="GenericBinding" /> <endpoint address="mex" binding="mexTcpBinding" contract="IMetadataExchange" /> <host> <baseAddresses> <add baseAddress="net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc" /> </baseAddresses> </host> </service> </services> </system.serviceModel> I also have the same tcp binding on the devenv configuration. Have I reached the limit of contracts supported? Is there a way to turn off that quota? EDIT Error Message: Error: Cannot obtain Metadata from net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex If this is a Windows (R) Communication Foundation service to which you have access, please check that you have enabled metadata publishing at the specified address. For help enabling metadata publishing, please refer to the MSDN documentation at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=65455.WS-Metadata Exchange Error URI: net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex Metadata contains a reference that cannot be resolved: 'net.tcp://localhost:9081/RemWCFSvc/mex'. There is an error in the XML document. The maximum nametable character count quota (16384) has been exceeded while reading XML data. The nametable is a data structure used to store strings encountered during XML processing - long XML documents with non-repeating element names, attribute names and attribute values may trigger this quota. This quota may be increased by changing the MaxNameTableCharCount property on the XmlDictionaryReaderQuotas object used when creating the XML reader. I'm getting that error when trying to run the WCF (which is hosted in a windows service app).

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