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• Weird MySQL behavior, seems like a SQL bug

  - by Daniel Magliola

  I'm getting a very strange behavior in MySQL, which looks like some kind of weird bug. I know it's common to blame the tried and tested tool for one's mistakes, but I've been going around this for a while. I have 2 tables, I, with 2797 records, and C, with 1429. C references I. I want to delete all records in I that are not used by C, so i'm doing: select * from i where id not in (select id_i from c); That returns 0 records, which, given the record counts in each table, is physically impossible. I'm also pretty sure that the query is right, since it's the same type of query i've been using for the last 2 hours to clean up other tables with orphaned records. To make things even weirder... select * from i where id in (select id_i from c); DOES work, and brings me the 1297 records that I do NOT want to delete. So, IN works, but NOT IN doesn't. Even worse: select * from i where id not in ( select i.id from i inner join c ON i.id = c.id_i ); That DOES work, although it should be equivalent to the first query (i'm just trying mad stuff at this point). Alas, I can't use this query to delete, because I'm using the same table i'm deleting from in the subquery. I'm assuming something in my database is corrupt at this point. In case it matters, these are all MyISAM tables without any foreign keys, whatsoever, and I've run the same queries in my dev machine and in the production server with the same result, so whatever corruption there might be survived a mysqldump / source cycle, which sounds awfully strange. Any ideas on what could be going wrong, or, even more importantly, how I can fix/work around this? Thanks! Daniel

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• Classic ASP application-wide initializations and object caching

  - by slack3r

  In classic ASP (which I am forced to use), I have a few factory functions, that is, functions that return classes. I use JScript. In one include file I use these factory functions to create some classes that are used throughout the application. This include file is included with the #include directive in all pages. These factory functions do some "heavy lifting" and I don't want them to be executed on every page load. So, to make this clear I have something like this: // factory.inc function make_class(arg1, arg2) { function klass() { //... } // ... Some heavy stuff return klass; } // init.inc, included everywhere <!-- #include FILE="factory.inc" --> // ... MyClass1 = make_class(myarg01, myarg02); MyClass2 = make_class(myarg11, myarg12); //... How can I achieve the same effect without calling make_class on every page load? I know that I can't cache the classes in the Application object I can't use the Application_OnStart hook in Global.asa I could probably create a scripting component, but I really don't want to do that So, is there something else I can do? Maybe some way to achieve caching of these classes, which are really objects in JScript. PS: [further clarification] In the above code "heavy stuff" is not so heavy, but I just want to know if there's a way to avoid it being executed all the time. It reads database meta information, builds a table of the primary keys in the database and another table that resolves strings to classes, etc.

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• Parse a CSV file using python (to make a decision tree later)

  - by Margaret

  First off, full disclosure: This is going towards a uni assignment, so I don't want to receive code. :). I'm more looking for approaches; I'm very new to python, having read a book but not yet written any code. The entire task is to import the contents of a CSV file, create a decision tree from the contents of the CSV file (using the ID3 algorithm), and then parse a second CSV file to run against the tree. There's a big (understandable) preference to have it capable of dealing with different CSV files (I asked if we were allowed to hard code the column names, mostly to eliminate it as a possibility, and the answer was no). The CSV files are in a fairly standard format; the header row is marked with a # then the column names are displayed, and every row after that is a simple series of values. Example: # Column1, Column2, Column3, Column4 Value01, Value02, Value03, Value04 Value11, Value12, Value13, Value14 At the moment, I'm trying to work out the first part: parsing the CSV. To make the decisions for the decision tree, a dictionary structure seems like it's going to be the most logical; so I was thinking of doing something along these lines: Read in each line, character by character If the character is not a comma or a space Append character to temporary string If the character is a comma Append the temporary string to a list Empty string Once a line has been read Create a dictionary using the header row as the key (somehow!) Append that dictionary to a list However, if I do things that way, I'm not sure how to make a mapping between the keys and the values. I'm also wondering whether there is some way to perform an action on every dictionary in a list, since I'll need to be doing things to the effect of "Everyone return their values for columns Column1 and Column4, so I can count up who has what!" - I assume that there is some mechanism, but I don't think I know how to do it. Is a dictionary the best way to do it? Would I be better off doing things using some other data structure? If so, what?

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• Can I delay the keyup event for jquery?

  - by Paul

  I'm using the rottentomatoes movie API in conjunction with twitter's typeahead plugin using bootstrap 2.0. I've been able to integerate the API but the issue I'm having is that after every keyup event the API gets called. This is all fine and dandy but I would rather make the call after a small pause allowing the user to type in several characters first. Here is my current code that calls the API after a keyup event: var autocomplete = $('#searchinput').typeahead() .on('keyup', function(ev){ ev.stopPropagation(); ev.preventDefault(); //filter out up/down, tab, enter, and escape keys if( $.inArray(ev.keyCode,[40,38,9,13,27]) === -1 ){ var self = $(this); //set typeahead source to empty self.data('typeahead').source = []; //active used so we aren't triggering duplicate keyup events if( !self.data('active') && self.val().length > 0){ self.data('active', true); //Do data request. Insert your own API logic here. $.getJSON("http://api.rottentomatoes.com/api/public/v1.0/movies.json?callback=?&apikey=MY_API_KEY&page_limit=5",{ q: encodeURI($(this).val()) }, function(data) { //set this to true when your callback executes self.data('active',true); //Filter out your own parameters. Populate them into an array, since this is what typeahead's source requires var arr = [], i=0; var movies = data.movies; $.each(movies, function(index, movie) { arr[i] = movie.title i++; }); //set your results into the typehead's source self.data('typeahead').source = arr; //trigger keyup on the typeahead to make it search self.trigger('keyup'); //All done, set to false to prepare for the next remote query. self.data('active', false); }); } } }); Is it possible to set a small delay and avoid calling the API after every keyup?

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• What should the name of this class be?

  - by Tim Murphy

  Naming classes is sometimes hard. What do you think name of the class should be? I originally created the class to use as a cache but can see its may have other uses. Example code to use the class. Dim cache = New NamePendingDictionary(Of String, Sample) Dim value = cache("a", Function() New Sample()) And here is the class that needs a name. ''' <summary> ''' Enhancement of <see cref="System.Collections.Generic.Dictionary"/>. See the Item property ''' for more details. ''' </summary> ''' <typeparam name="TKey">The type of the keys in the dictionary.</typeparam> ''' <typeparam name="TValue">The type of the values in the dictionary.</typeparam> Public Class NamePendingDictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Inherits Dictionary(Of TKey, TValue) Delegate Function DefaultValue() As TValue ''' <summary> ''' Gets or sets the value associated with the specified key. If the specified key does not exist ''' then <paramref name="createDefaultValue"/> is invoked and added to the dictionary. The created ''' value is then returned. ''' </summary> ''' <param name="key">The key of the value to get.</param> ''' <param name="createDefaultValue"> ''' The delegate to invoke if <paramref name="key"/> does not exist in the dictionary. ''' </param> ''' <exception cref="T:System.ArgumentNullException"><paramref name="key" /> is null.</exception> Default Public Overloads ReadOnly Property Item(ByVal key As TKey, ByVal createDefaultValue As DefaultValue) As TValue Get Dim value As TValue If createDefaultValue Is Nothing Then Throw New ArgumentNullException("createValue") End If If Not Me.TryGetValue(key, value) Then value = createDefaultValue.Invoke() Me.Add(key, value) End If Return value End Get End Property End Class

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• Checking multiple conditions in Ruby (within Rails, which may not matter)

  - by Ev

  Hello rubyists and railers, I have a method which checks over a params hash to make sure that it contains certain keys, and to make sure that certain values are set within a certain range. This is for an action that responds to a POST query by an iPhone app. Anyway, this method is checking for about 10 different conditions - any of which will result in an HTTP error being returned (I'm still considering this, but possibly a 400: bad request error). My current syntax is basically this (paraphrased): def invalid_submission_params?(params) [check one] or [check two] or [check three] or [check four] etc etc end Where each of the check statements returns true if that particular parameter check results in an invalid parameter set. I call it as a before filter with params[:submission] as the argument. This seems a little ugly (all the strung together or statements). Is there a better way? I have tried using case but can't see a way to make it more elegant. Or, perhaps, is there a rails method that lets me check the incoming params hash for certain conditions before handing control off to my action method?

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• How to write a good PHP database insert using an associative array

  - by Tom

  In PHP, I want to insert into a database using data contained in a associative array of field/value pairs. Example: $_fields = array('field1'=>'value1','field2'=>'value2','field3'=>'value3'); The resulting SQL insert should look as follows: INSERT INTO table (field1,field2,field3) VALUES ('value1','value2','value3'); I have come up with the following PHP one-liner: mysql_query("INSERT INTO table (".implode(',',array_keys($_fields)).") VALUES (".implode(',',array_values($_fields)).")"); It separates the keys and values of the the associative array and implodes to generate a comma-separated string . The problem is that it does not escape or quote the values that were inserted into the database. To illustrate the danger, Imagine if $_fields contained the following: $_fields = array('field1'=>"naustyvalue); drop table members; --"); The following SQL would be generated: INSERT INTO table (field1) VALUES (naustyvalue); drop table members; --; Luckily, multiple queries are not supported, nevertheless quoting and escaping are essential to prevent SQL injection vulnerabilities. How do you write your PHP Mysql Inserts? Note: PDO or mysqli prepared queries aren't currently an option for me because the codebase already uses mysql extensively - a change is planned but it'd take alot of resources to convert?

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• NHibernate One to One Foreign Key ON DELETE CASCADE

  - by xll

  I need to implement One-to-one association between Project and ProjecSettings using fluent NHibernate: public class ProjectMap : ClassMap<Project> { public ProjectMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .UniqueKey(MapUtils.Col<Project>(x => x.Id)) .GeneratedBy.HiLo("NHHiLoIdentity", "NextHiValue", "1000", string.Format("[EntityName] = '[{0}]'", MapUtils.Table<Project>())) .Not.Nullable(); HasOne(x => x.ProjectSettings) .PropertyRef(x => x.Project); } } public class ProjectSettingsMap : ClassMap<ProjectSettings> { public ProjectSettingsMap() { Id(x => x.Id) .UniqueKey(MapUtils.Col<ProjectSettings>(x => x.Id)) .GeneratedBy.HiLo("NHHiLoIdentity", "NextHiValue", "1000", string.Format("[EntityName] = '[{0}]'", MapUtils.Table<ProjectSettings>())); References(x => x.Project) .Column(MapUtils.Ref<ProjectSettings, Project>(p => p.Project, p => p.Id)) .Unique() .Not.Nullable(); } } This results in the following sql for Project Settings: CREATE TABLE ProjectSettings ( Id bigint PRIMARY KEY NOT NULL, Project_Project_Id bigint NOT NULL UNIQUE, /* Foreign keys */ FOREIGN KEY (Project_Project_Id) REFERENCES Project() ON DELETE NO ACTION ON UPDATE NO ACTION ); What I am trying to achieve is to have ON DELETE CASCADE for the FOREIGN KEY (Project_Project_Id), so that when the project is deleted through sql query, it's settings are deleted too. How can I achieve this ? EDIT: I know about Cascade.Delete() option, but it's not what I need. Is there any way to intercept the FK statement generation?

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• Using Subsonic 3.0 Advanced Templates

  - by umit

  Hi all, I've been trying to use Subsonic Advanced Templates in a project for a while but most of the time I find myself writing a Stored Procedure as I can't find a proper way of doing it in code. Subsonic created corresponding objects for my DB tables and for foreign keys it created IQueryable fields inside each object. These fields are not loaded by default and a new SQL query is executed when you access them. 1- Is there a way to get all data in one query (deep load)? Also these fields can not be assigned. So when I want to create an object in a maintenance page, I can't put all the data into this object before saving it in DB: Post post = new Post(); //get photos for this post IList<PostPhoto> postPhotos = GetPostPhotos(); post.PostPhotos = postPhotos; 2- Is it possible to have one Post object with all fields set from user input? Think of the Post object above and assume I've successfully assigned its fields. Now I need to save it to the DB. 3- Is using BatchQuery the only way to do it in one query? If I have 4 photos in PostPhotos field; 2 of them previously saved and 2 of them new, can I use the Update method to handle both the adding and updating of these photos? Any ideas or links are appreciated. Cheers...

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• implementing cryptographic algorithms, specifically the key expansion part

  - by masseyc

  Hey, recently I picked up a copy of Applied Cryptography by Bruce Schneier and it's been a good read. I now understand how several algorithms outlined in the book work, and I'd like to start implementing a few of them in C. One thing that many of the algorithms have in common is dividing an x-bit key, into several smaller y-bit keys. For example, blowfish's key, X, is 64-bits, but you are required to break it up into two 32-bit halves; Xl and Xr. This is where I'm getting stuck. I'm fairly decent with C, but I'm not the strongest when it comes to bitwise operators and the like. After some help on IRC, I managed to come up with these two macros: #define splitup(a, b, c) {b = a >> 32; c = a & 0xffffffff; } #define combine(a, b, c) {a = (c << 32) | a;} Where a is 64 bits and b and c are 32 bits. However, the compiler warns me about the fact that I'm shifting a 32 bit variable by 32 bits. My questions are these: what's bad about shifting a 32-bit variable 32 bits? I'm guessing it's undefined, but these macros do seem to be working. Also, would you suggest I go about this another way? As I said, I'm fairly familiar with C, but bitwise operators and the like still give me a headache.

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• How to build a simulation of a login hardware token in .Net

  - by Michel

  Hi, i have a hardware token for remote login to some citrix environment. When i click the button on the device, i get an id and i can use that to login to the citrix farm. I can click the button as much as i like, and every time a new code gets generated, and they all work. Now i want to secure my private website likewise, but not with the hardware token, but with a 'token app' on my phone. So i run an app on my phone, generate a key, and use that to (partly) authenticate myself on the server. But here's the point: i don't know how it works! How can i generate 1, 2 or 100 keys at one time which i can see (on the server) are all valid, but without the server and the phone app having contact (the hardware token also is an 'offline' solution). Can you help me with a hint how i would do this? This is what i thought of so far: the phone app and the server app know (hardcoded) the same encryption key. The phone app encrypts the current time. The server app decrypts the string to the current time and if the diff between that time and the actual server time is less than 10 minutes it's an ok. Difficult for other users to fake a key, but encryption gives such nasty strings to enter, and the hardware token gives me nice things like 'H554TU8' And this is probably not how the real hardware token works, because the server and the phone app must 'know' the same encryption key. Michel

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• VB.NET: Dialog exits when enter pressed?

  - by Camilo Martin

  Hi all; My problem seems to be quite simple, but it's not working the intuitive way. I'm designing a Windows Forms Application, and there is a dialog that should NOT exit when the enter key is pressed, instead it has to validate data first, in case enter was pressed after changing the text of a ComboBox. I've tried by telling it what to do on KeyPress event of the ComboBox if e is the Enter key: Private Sub ComboBoxSizeChoose_KeyPress(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.KeyPressEventArgs) Handles ComboBoxSizeChoose.KeyPress If e.KeyChar = Convert.ToChar(Keys.Enter) Then Try TamanhoDaNovaFonte = Single.Parse(ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text) Catch ex As Exception Dim Dialogo2 As New Dialog2 Dialog2.ShowDialog() ComboBoxSizeChoose.Text = TamanhoDaNovaFonte End Try End If End Sub But no success so far. When the Enter key is pressed, even with the ComboBox on focus, the whole dialog is closed, returning to the previous form. The validation is NOT done at all, and it has to be done before exiting. In fact, I don't even want to exit on the form's enter KeyPress, the only purpose of the enter key on the whole dialog is to validate the ComboBox (but only when in focus, for the sake of an intuitive UI). I've also tried appending the validation to the KeyPress event of the whole dialog's form, if the key is Enter. NO SUCCESS! It's like my code wasn't there at all. What should I do? (Visual Studio 2008, VB.NET)

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• Efficiently Serving Dynamic Content in Google App Engine

  - by awegawef

  My app on google app engine returns content items (just text) and comments on them. It works like this (pseudo-ish code): query: get keys of latest content #query to datastore for each item in content if item_dict in memcache: use item_dict else: build_item_dict(item) #by fetching from datastore store item_dict in memcache send all item_dicts to template Sorry if the code isn't understandable. I get all of the content dictionaries and send them to the template, which uses them to create the webpage. My problem is that if the memcache has expired, for each item I want to display, I have to (1) lookup item in memcache, (2) since no memcache exists I must fetch item from the datastore, and (3) store the item in memcache. These calls build up quickly. I don't set an expire time for the entries to the memcache, so this really only happens once in the morning, but the webpage takes long enough to load (~1 sec) that the browser reports it as not existing. Regularly, my webpages take about 50ms to load. This approach works decently for frequent visits, but it has its flaws as shown above. How can I remedy this? The entries are dynamic enough that I don't think it would be in my best interest to cache my initial request. Thanks in advance

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• EF 4.0 Code only assocation from abstract to derived

  - by Jeroen

  Using EF 4.0 Code only i want to make an assocation between an abstract and normal class. I have class 'Item', 'ContentBase' and 'Test'. 'ContentBase' is abstract and 'Test' derives from it. 'ContentBase' has a property 'Item' that links to an instance of 'Item'. So that 'Test.Item' or any class that derives from 'ContentBase' has an 'Item' navigation property. In my DB every record for Test has a matching record for Item. public class Item { public int Id { get; set;} } public abstract class ContentBase { public int ContentId { get; set;} public int Id { get; set;} public Item Item { get; set;} } public class Test : ContentBase { public string Name { get; set;} } now some init code public void SomeInitFunction() { var itemConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Item>(); itemConfig.HasKey(p => p.Id); itemConfig.Property(p => p.Id).IsIdentity(); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(itemConfig); var testConfig = new EntityConfiguration<Test>(); testConfig.HasKey(p => p.ContentId); testConfig.Property(p => p.ContentId).IsIdentity(); // the problem testConfig.Relationship(p => p.Item).HasConstraint((p, q) => p.Id == q.Id); this.ContextBuilder.Configurations.Add(testConfig); } This gives an error: A key is registered for the derived type 'Test'. Keys must be registered for the root type 'ContentBase'. anyway i try i get an error. What am i a doing wrong?

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• keyUp event heard?: Overridden NSView method

  - by Old McStopher

  UPDATED: I'm now overriding the NSView keyUp method from a NSView subclass set to first responder like below, but am still not seeing evidence that it is being called. @implementation svsView - (BOOL)acceptsFirstResponder { return YES; } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- NSLog(@"key up'd!"); } @end --ORIGINAL POST-- I'm new to Cocoa and Obj-C and am trying to do a (void)keyUp: from within the implementation of my controller class (which itself is of type NSController). I'm not sure if this is the right place to put it, though. I have a series of like buttons each set to a unique key equivalent (IB button attribute) and each calls my (IBAction)keyInput method which then passes the identity of each key onto another object. This runs just fine, but I also want to track when each key is released. --ORIGINAL [bad] EXAMPLE-- @implementation svsController //init //IBActions - (IBAction)keyInput:(id)sender { //--do key down stuff-- } - (void)keyUp:(NSEvent *)event { //--do key up stuff-- } @end Upon fail, I also tried the keyUp as an IBAction (instead of void), like the user-defined keyInput is, and hooked it up to the appropriate buttons in Interface Builder, but then keyUp was only called when the keys were down and not when released. (Which I kind of figured would happen.) Pardon my noobery, but should I be putting this method in another class or doing something differently? Wherever it is, though, I need it be able to access objects owned by the controller class. Thanks for any insight you may have.

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• In a combobox, how do I determine the highlighted item (not selected item)?

  - by Harold Bamford

  First, fair warning: I am a complete newbie with C# and WPF. I have a combobox (editable, searchable) and I would like to be able to intercept the Delete key and remove the currently highlighted item from the list. The behavior I'm looking for is like that of MS Outlook when entering in email addresses. When you give a few characters, a dropdown list of potential matches is displayed. If you move to one of these (with the arrow keys) and hit Delete, that entry is permanently removed. I want to do that with an entry in the combobox. Here is the XAML (simplified): <ComboBox x:Name="Directory" KeyUp="Directory_KeyUp" IsTextSearchEnabled="True" IsEditable="True" Text="{Binding Path=CurrentDirectory, Mode=TwoWay}" ItemsSource="{Binding Source={x:Static self:Properties.Settings.Default}, Path=DirectoryList, Mode=TwoWay}" / The handler is: private void Directory_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { ComboBox box = sender as ComboBox; if (box.IsDropDownOpen && (e.Key == Key.Delete)) { TrimCombobox("DirectoryList", box.HighlightedItem); // won't compile! } } When using the debugger, I can see box.HighlightedItem has the value I want but when I try and put in that code, it fails to compile with: System.Windows.Controls.ComboBox' does not contain a definition for 'HighlightedItem'... So: how do I access that value? Keep in mind that the item has not been selected. It is merely highlighted as the mouse hovers over it. Thanks for your help.

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• WPF Usercontrol with textboxes

  - by benPearce

  I have a WPF user control with a number of textboxes, this is hosted on a WPF window. The textboxes are not currently bound but I cannot type into any of them. I have put a breakpoint in the KeyDown event of one of the textboxes and it hits it fine and I can see the key I pressed. The textboxes are declared as <TextBox Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="4" x:Name="PostcodeSearch" Style="{StaticResource SearchTextBox}" KeyDown="PostcodeSearch_KeyDown"/> The style is implemented as <Style x:Key="SearchTextBox" TargetType="{x:Type TextBox}"> <Setter Property="Control.Margin" Value="2"/> <Setter Property="Height" Value="20"/> <Setter Property="Width" Value="140"/> <Setter Property="HorizontalAlignment" Value="Left"/> </Style> I am hoping I have overlooked something obvious. EDIT: I only added the KeyDown and KeyUp events just to prove that the keys presses were getting through. I do not have any custom functionality.

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• "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

  - by JackLocke

  Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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• Request-local storage in ASP.NET (accessible to the code from IHttpModule implementation)

  - by IgorK

  I need to have some object hanging around between two events I'm interested in: PreRequestHandlerExecute (where I create an instance of my object and want to save it) and PostRequestHandlerExecute (where I want to get to the object). After the second event the object is not needed for my purposes and should be discarded either by storage or my explicit action. So the ideal context where my object should be stored is per request (with guaranteed no sharing issues when different threads are serving requests... or processes/servers :) ) Take into account that actual implementation I can do is being made from a HttpModule and is supposed to be a pluggable solution for already written web apps (so the option to provide some state using static/instance variables in Global.asax doesn't look good - I will have to modify Global.asax on every web application). Cache seems to be too broad for this use. I tried to see whether httpContext.Application (of type HttpApplicationState) is good for me or not, but cannot get whether it is exactly per HttpApplication instance or not (AFAIK you can have several instances of HttpApplications used on different threads and therefore serving several requests simultaneously - then using storage shared between threads will not work correctly; otherwise I would use it because one HttpApplication instance serves exactly one request at a time). Something could be done with storing state on the HttpModule instances if I know for sure that it's exactly bound 1-to-1 with every HttpApplication instance running (but again I need a proof that HttpApplication instance is 1-to-1 with my HttpModule's instance). Any valuable and reputable links on these topics are much appreciated... Would be great to find something particularly well-suited for per request situation (because otherwise I may end up with something ulgy... probably either some 'broader' scoped storage and some hacks to have different keys in the storage for different requests, OR using a thread-local thing and in this way commit to the theory that IIS/ASP.NET will not ever serve first event from one thread and the second event from the other thread and so on)

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• Distinct Value Array for View Controller Index Using Core Data

  - by b.dot

  Hi, I'm trying to create an index representing the first letter value of each record in a Core Data store to be used in a table view controller. I'm using a snippet of the code from Apple's documentation. I would simply like to produce an array or dictionary of distinct values as the result. My store already has the character defined within each record object. Questions: 1) I'm having a problem understanding NSDictionaryResultType. Where does the resulting dictionary object get received so that I can assign it's keys to the view controller? The code seems to only return an array. 2) If I include the line containing NSDictionaryResultType, I get no returns. 3) I realize that I could do this in a loop, but I'm hoping this will work. Thanks! NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"People" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:entity]; [request setResultType:NSDictionaryResultType]; // This line causes no no results. [request setReturnsDistinctResults:YES]; [request setPropertiesToFetch :[NSArray arrayWithObject:@"alphabetIndex"]]; NSError *error; NSArray *objects = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:request error:&error];

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• Java: Generics, Class.isaAssignableFrom, and type casting

  - by bguiz

  This method that uses method-level generics, that parses the values from a custom POJO, JXlistOfKeyValuePairs (which is exactly that). The only thing is that both the keys and values in JXlistOfKeyValuePairs are Strings. This method wants to taken in, in addition to the JXlistOfKeyValuePairs instance, a Class<T> that defines which data type to convert the values to (assume that only Boolean, Integer and Float are possible). It then outputs a HashMap with the specified type for the values in its entries. This is the code that I have got, and it is obviously broken. private <T extends Object> Map<String, T> fromListOfKeyValuePairs(JXlistOfKeyValuePairs jxval, Class<T> clasz) { Map<String, T> val = new HashMap<String, T>(); List<Entry> jxents = jxval.getEntry(); T value; String str; for (Entry jxent : jxents) { str = jxent.getValue(); value = null; if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Float.class)) { value = (T)(Float.parseFloat(str)); } else { logger.warn("Unsupporteded value type encountered in key-value pairs, continuing anyway: " + clasz.getName()); } val.put(jxent.getKey(), value); } return val; } This is the bit that I want to solve: if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Boolean.class)) { value = (T)(Boolean.parseBoolean(str)); } else if (clasz.isAssignableFrom(Integer.class)) { value = (T)(Integer.parseInt(str)); } I get: Inconvertible types required: T found: Boolean Also, if possible, I would like to be able to do this with more elegant code, avoiding Class#isAssignableFrom. Any suggestions? Sample method invocation: Map<String, Boolean> foo = fromListOfKeyValuePairs(bar, Boolean.class);

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• (PHP) Converting an array of arrays from one format into another

  - by Richard Carter

  Hi, I currently have an array, created from a database, an example of which looks like the following: Array( [0] => Array ( objectid => 2, name => title, value => apple ), [1] => Array ( objectid => 2, name => colour, value => red ), [2] => Array ( objectid => 3, name => title, value => pear ), [3] => Array ( objectid => 3, name => colour, value => green ) ) What I would like to do is group all the items in the array by their objectid, and convert the 'name' values into keys and 'value' values into values of an associative array....like below: Array ( [0] => Array ( objectid => 2, title => apple, colour => red ), [1] => Array ( objectid => 3, title => pear, colour => green ) ) I've tried a few things but haven't really got anywhere.. Any ideas? Thanks in advance

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• What is the corrrect way to increment a field making up part of a composit key

  - by Tr1stan

  I have a bunch of tables whose primary key is made up of the foreign keys of other tables (Composite key). Therefore for example the attributes (as a very cut down version) might look like this: A[aPK, SomeFields] 1:M B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields] 1:M C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields] as data this could look like: A[aPK, SomeFields]: 1, Foo 2, Bar B[bPK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, FooData1 2, 1, FooData2 1, 2, BarData1 2, 2, BarData2 C[cPK, bFK, aFK, SomeFields]: 1, 1, 1, FooData1More 2, 1, 1, FooData1More 1, 2, 1, FooData2More 2, 2, 1, FooData2More 1, 1, 2, BarData1More 2, 1, 2, BarData1More 1, 2, 2, BarData2More 2, 2, 2, BarData2More I've got this running in a MSSQL DBMS and I'm looking for the best way to increment the left most column, in each table when a new tuple is added to it. I can't use the Auto Increment Identity Specification option as that has no idea that it is part of a composite key. I also don't want to use any aggregate function such as: MAX(field)+1 as this will have adverse affects with multiple users inputting data, rolling back etc. There might however be a nice trigger based option here, but I'm not sure. This must be a common issue so I'm hoping that someone has a lovely solution. As a side which may or may not affect the answer, I'm using Entity Framework 1.0 as my ORM, within a c# MVC application.

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• Database localization

  - by Don

  Hi, I have a number of database tables that contain name and description columns which need to be localized. My initial attempt at designing a DB schema that would support this was something like: product ------- id name description local_product ------- id product_id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale However, this solution requires a new local_ table for every table that contains name and description columns that require localization. In an attempt to avoid this overhead I redesigned the schema so that only a single localization table is needed product ------- id localization_id localization ------- id local_name local_description locale_id locale ------ id locale Here's an example of the data which would be stored in this schema when there are 2 tables (product and country) requiring localization: country id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 5 product id, localization_id ----------------------- 1, 2 localization id, local_name, local_description, locale_id ------------------------------------------------------ 2, apple, a delicious fruit, 2 2, pomme, un fruit délicieux, 3 2, apfel, ein köstliches Obst, 4 5, ireland, a small country, 2 5, irlande, un petite pay, 3 locale id, locale -------------- 2, en 3, fr 4, de Notice that the compound primary key of the localization table is (id, locale_id), but the foreign key in the product table only refers to the first element of this compound PK. This seems like 'a bad thing' from the POV of normalization. Is there any way I can fix this problem, or alternatively, is there a completely different schema that supports localization without creating a separate table for each localizable table? Update: A number of respondents have proposed a solution that requires creating a separate table for each localizable table. However, this is precisely what I'm trying to avoid. The schema I've proposed above almost solves the problem to my satisfaction, but I'm unhappy about the fact that the localization_id foreign keys only refer to part of the corresponding primary key in the localization table. Thanks, Don

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• Render multiple Form instances

  - by vorpyg

  I have a simple application where users are supposed to bet on outcome of a match. A match consists of two teams, a result and a stake. Matches with teams are created in the Django admin, and participants are to fill in result and stake. The form must be generated dynamically, based on the matches in the database. My idea is to have one (Django) Form instance for each match and pass these instances to the template. It works fine when I do it from django shell, but the instances aren't rendered when I load my view. The form looks like this: class SuggestionForm(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): try: match = kwargs.pop('match') except KeyError: pass super(SuggestionForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) label = match self.fields['result'] = forms.ChoiceField(label=label, required=True, choices=CHOICES, widget=forms.RadioSelect()) self.fields['stake'] = forms.IntegerField(label='', required=True, max_value=50, min_value=10, initial=10) My (preliminary) view looks like this: def suggestion_form(request): matches = Match.objects.all() form_collection = {} for match in matches: f = SuggestionForm(request.POST or None, match=match) form_collection['match_%s' % match.id] = f return render_to_response('app/suggestion_form.html', { 'forms': form_collection, }, context_instance = RequestContext(request) ) My initial thought was that I could pass the form_collection to the template and the loop throught the collection like this, but id does not work: {% for form in forms %} {% for field in form %} {{ field }} {% endfor %} {% endfor %} (The output is actually the dict keys with added spaces in between each letter - I've no idea why…) It works if I only pass one Form instance to the template and only runs the inner loop. Suggestions are greatly appreciated.

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