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• php -Merging an Array

  - by Vidhu Shresth Bhatnagar

  I have two array which i want to merge in a specific way in php. So i need your help in helping me with it as i tried and failed. So say i have two arrays: $array1= array( "foo" => 3, "bar" => 2, "random1" => 4, ); $array2= array( "random2" => 3, "random3" => 4, "foo" => 6, ); Now when during merging i would like the common key's values to be added. So like foo exists in array1 and in array2 so when merging array1 with array 2 i should get "foo" => "9" I better illustration would be the final array which looks like this: $array1= array( "foo" => 9, "bar" => 2, "random1" => 4, "random2" => 3, "random3" => 4, ); So again i would like the values of the common keys to be added together and non common keys to be added to array or a new array I hope i was clear enough Thanks, Vidhu

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• magento payment process.. how it works in general

  - by spirytus

  hi everyone, got a question and I hope this is right place to ask :).. don’t quite understand how payment works in magento. client goes to checkout and lets say wants to pay as a guest, so provides address etc. and finally gets to payment methods. Then I want clients to pay thru credit card. Already have module installed for gateway (bank?) of my choice. At that point I would expect users to be redirected to 3rd party page (bank hosted) where they giving all the details, only after being returned to my magento site with appropriate message. In magento however it seems like they need to provide cc numbers and details on magento checkout page. I don’t understand if I (or the payment module I installed) need to transfer then all the credit card details to bank? I would have to have checkout page on ssl connection and static ip right? The thing is I want to avoid touching CC numbers at any point and would love to have it done by a bank page. I like the idea of magento interface all the way without redirecting to another page though, the only problem is not sure if would be able to set it all up properly. If anyone could explain to me possible options, what is the common way to do it and how the whole process works that would be very much appreciated. I did my research and looked all over google and various forums still need someones help though. Please let me know if some parts of my question are not quite clear, will try to better explain if necessary.

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• Case class copy() method abstraction.

  - by Joa Ebert

  I would like to know if it is possible to abstract the copy method of case classes. Basically I have something like sealed trait Op and then something like case class Push(value: Int) extends Op and case class Pop() extends Op. The first problem: A case class without arguments/members does not define a copy method. You can try this in the REPL. scala> case class Foo() defined class Foo scala> Foo().copy() <console>:8: error: value copy is not a member of Foo Foo().copy() ^ scala> case class Foo(x: Int) defined class Foo scala> Foo(0).copy() res1: Foo = Foo(0) Is there a reason why the compiler makes this exception? I think it is rather unituitive and I would expect every case class to define a copy method. The second problem: I have a method def ops: List[Op] and I would like to copy all ops like ops map { _.copy() }. How would I define the copy method in the Op trait? I get a "too many arguments" error if I say def copy(): this.type. However, since all copy() methods have only optional arguments: why is this incorrect? And, how do I do that correct? By making another method named def clone(): this.type and write everywhere def clone() = copy() for all the case classes? I hope not.

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• mod_rewrite if file exists

  - by Mathieu Parent

  Hi everyone, I already have two rewrite rules that work correctly for now but some more code has to be added to work perfectly. I have a website hosted at mydomain.com and all subdom.mydomain.com are rewrited to mydomain.com/subs/subdom . My CMS has to handle the request if the file being reached does not exist, the rewrite is done like so: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/index.php?page=$1 [L] My CMS handles the next part of the parsing as usual. The problem is if a file really exists, I need to link to it without passing through my CMS, I managed to do it like this: RewriteCond $1 !^subs/ RewriteCond %{HTTP_HOST} ^([^.]+)\.mydomain\.com$ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -f [OR] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ subs/%1/$1 [L] So far it seems to work like a charm. Now I am being picky and I need to have default files that are stored in subs/default/. If the file exists in the subdomain folder, we should grab this one but if not, we need to get the file from the default subdomain. And if the file does not exist anywhere, we should be using the 404 page from the current subdomain unless there is none. I hope it describes well enough. Thank you for your time!

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• Validation L2S question

  - by user158020

  This may be a bit winded because I am new to wpf. I have created a partial class for an entity in my L2S class that is primarily used for validation. It implements the onchanging and onvalidate methods. I am trying to use the MVVM pattern, and in a window/view I have set the datacontext in the xaml: <Window.DataContext> <vm:StartViewModel /> </Window.DataContext> when a user leaves a required field in the view blank, the onchanging event of the partial class is fired when I close the form, not when I save the data. So, if a user leaves the textbox blank, the old value is retained and the onchaging method is fired, but I have no idea how to alert the user of the resulting error. here is my onchanging code in the partial class: partial void Ondocument_titleChanging(string value) { if (value.Length == 0) throw new Exception("Document title is required."); if (value.Length > 256) throw new Exception("Document title cannot be longer than 256 characters."); } throwing an exception doesn't notify the user of the error. it just allows the form to close and rejects the changes to the textbox. hope this makes sense... edit: this example was taken from Scott Guthries article here: http://aspalliance.com/1427_LINQ_to_SQL_Part_5__Binding_UI_using_the_ASPLinqDataSource_Control.5

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• Sync Framework Considerations for Smart Client app

  - by DarkwingDuck

  Microsoft Sync Framework with SQL 2005? Is it possible? It seems to hint that the OOTB providers use SQL2008 functionality. I'm looking for some quick wins in relation to a sync project. The client app will be offline for a number of days. There will be a central server that MUST be SQL Server 2005. I can use .net 3.5. Basically the client app could go offline for a week. When it comes back online it needs to sync its data. But the good thing is that the data only needs to push to the server. The stuff that syncs back to the client will just be lookup data which the client never changes. So this means I don't care about sync collisions. To simplify the scenario for you, this smart client goes offline and the user surveys data about some observations. They enter the data into the system. When the laptop is reconnected to the network, it syncs back all that data to the server. There will be other clients doing the same thing too, but no one ever touches each other's data. Then there are some reports on the server for viewing the data that has been pushed to the server. This also needs to use ClickOnce. My biggest concern is that there is an interim release while a client is offline. This release might require a new field in the database, and a new field to fill in on the survey. Obviously that new field will be nullable because we can't update old data, that's fine to set as an assumption. But when the client connects up and its local data schema and the server schema don't match, will sync framework be able to handle this? After the data is pushed to the server it is discarded locally. Hope my problem makes sense.

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• Using recursion to to trim a binary tree based on a given min and max value

  - by Justin

  As the title says, I have to trim a binary tree based on a given min and max value. Each node stores a value, and a left/right node. I may define private helper methods to solve this problem, but otherwise I may not call any other methods of the class nor create any data structures such as arrays, lists, etc. An example would look like this: overallRoot _____[50]____________________ / \ __________[38] _______________[90] / \ / _[14] [42] [54]_____ / \ \ [8] [20] [72] \ / \ [26] [61] [83] trim(52, 65); should return: overallRoot [54] \ [61] My attempted solution has three methods: public void trim(int min, int max) { rootFinder(overallRoot, min, max); } First recursive method finds the new root perfectly. private void rootFinder(IntTreeNode node, int min, int max) { if (node == null) return; if (overallRoot.data < min) { node = overallRoot = node.right; rootFinder(node, min, max); } else if (overallRoot.data > max) { node = overallRoot = node.left; rootFinder(node, min, max); } else cutter(overallRoot, min, max); } This second method should eliminate any further nodes not within the min/max, but it doesn't work as I would hope. private void cutter(IntTreeNode node, int min, int max) { if (node == null) return; if (node.data <= min) { node.left = null; } if (node.data >= max) { node.right = null; } if (node.data < min) { node = node.right; } if (node.data > max) { node = node.left; } cutter(node.left, min, max); cutter(node.right, min, max); } This returns: overallRoot [54]_____ \ [72] / [61] Any help is appreciated. Feel free to ask for further explanation as needed.

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• Need some help with a MySQL subquery count

  - by Ferdy

  I'm running into my own limits of MySQL query skills, so I hope some SQL guru can help out on this one. The situation is as follow: I have images that can be tagged. As you might expect this is stored in three tables: Image Tag Tag_map (maps images to tags) I have a SQL query that calculates the related tags based on a tag id. The query basically checks what other tags were used for images for images using that tag. Example: Image1 tagged as "Bear" Image2 tagged as "Bear" and "Canada" If I throw "Bear" (or its tag id) at the query, it will return "Canada". This works fine. Here's the query: SELECT tag.name, tag.id, COUNT(tag_map.id) as cnt FROM tag_map,tag WHERE tag_map.tag_id = tag.id AND tag.id != '185' AND tag_map.image_id IN (SELECT tag_map.image_id FROM tag_map INNER JOIN tag ON tag_map.tag_id = tag.id WHERE tag.id = '185') GROUP BY tag_map.id LIMIT 0,100 The part I'm stuck with is the count. For each related tag returned, I want to know how many images are in that tag. Currently it always returns 1, even if there are for example 3. I've tried counting different columns all resulting in the same output, so I guess there is a flaw in my thinking.

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• C# Hiding, overriding and calling function from base class.

  - by Lukasz Lysik

  I'm learning C# and I encountered the following problem. I have two classes: base and derived: class MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyBase::MyMethod()"); } } class MyDerived: MyBase { public void MyMethod() { Console.WriteLine("MyDerived::MyMethod()"); } } For now, without virtual and override key words. When I compile this I get the warning (which is of course expected) that I try to hide MyMethod from MyBase class. What I want to do is to call the method from the base class having an instance of derived class. I do this like this: MyDerived myDerived = new MyDerived(); ((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod(); It works fine when I do not specify any virtual, etc. keywords in the methods. I tried to put combination of the keywords and I got the following results: | MyBase::MyMethod | MyDerived::MyMethod | Result printed on the console | | -----------------|---------------------|-------------------------------| | - | - | MyBase::MyMethod() | | - | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | new | MyBase::MyMethod() | | virtual | override | MyDerived::MyMethod() | I hope the table is clear to you. I have two questions: Is it the correct way to call the function from the base class (((MyBase)myDerived).MyMethod();)? I know about base keyword, but it can be called only from the inside of the derived class. Is it right? Why in the last case (with virtual and override modifiers) the method which was called came from the derived class? Would you please explain that?

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• Is this the right way to organize my database tables?

  - by Moss

  So I'm making a website that allows users to build contact lists. So their are users, the users have lists, and the lists have contacts. It seems to me that I need 3 tables for this but I just want to make sure. There would be a User table of course, and then a "List of Lists" table that has the username, and listname, as primary key along with whatever other info we want to attach to the lists as a whole. Finally, for lack of a better word, the List table which would again have the username/listname p.k., then the contact ID and notes and such that the user attaches to that contact on that specific list. I hope that is a clear explanation. For some reason I feel unsure about this arrangement. For one thing if the website becomes popular the List table could swell to billions of rows. And it also feels a little weird that everybody's list info is all jumbled up in the same table. I suppose I could create separate tables for each user and even for each list but that seems like a bad idea for other reasons. My db explanation assumes I can use foreign keys on my tables which at the moment isn't actually an option. If I can't get InnoDB tables enabled I will probably use ID's for the lists instead of depending on a compound key. Maybe I should do this anyway?

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• What's keeping this timer in scope? The anonymous method?

  - by Andy

  Ok, So I have a method which fires when someone clicks on our Icon in a silverlight application, seen below: private void Logo_MouseLeftButtonUp(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { e.Handled = true; ShowInfo(true); DispatcherTimer autoCloseTimer = new DispatcherTimer(); autoCloseTimer.Interval = new TimeSpan(0, 0, 10); autoCloseTimer.Tick +=new EventHandler((timerSender,args) => { autoCloseTimer.Stop(); ShowInfo(false); }); autoCloseTimer.Start(); } Whats meant to happen is that the method ShowInfo() opens up a box with the company info in and the dispatch timer auto closes it after said timespan. And this all works... But what I'm not sure about is because the dispatch timer is a local var, after the Logo_MouseLeftButtonUp method finishes, what is there to keep the dispatch timer referenced and not availible for GC collection before the anonymous method is fired? Is it the reference to the ShowInfo() method in the anonymous method? Just feels like some thing I should understand deeper as I can imagine with using events etc it can be very easy to create a leak with something like this. Hope this all makes sense! Andy.

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• is it possible to write a method which creates a method?

  - by Alan Bennett

  hey guys, this might seem like a no brainer but hopefully after i explain my problem you might understand why i am asking this. is it possible to have a method which creates a method and its arguements? the problem: in my current project i have to many times call different sql statements which arent all that different. for example i have one where i inserts some new rows but only has 2 columns and another which also inserts new rows but has 12 columns. i have created a class called utils.cs and in there i have sorted many "handy" methods, such as validation methods which check for numeric input to text boxes etc. so i thought well instead of having sql writing methods everywhere ill make one in there and call it when i need to so i have but it currently looks like this: public static string getInsertSQL(string tablename, string colOne, string colTwo, string colThree, string colFour, string colFive, string colSix, string colSeven, string colEight, string colNine, string colTen, string colEleven, string colTwelve,bool active, string valueOne, string valueTwo, string valueThree, string valueFour, string valueFive, string valueSix, string valueSeven, string valueEight, string valueNine, string valueTen, string valueEleven) { string strSQL = ""; strSQL += "INSERT INTO " + tablename; strSQL += "(" + colOne + " " + colTwo + " " + colThree + " " + colFour + " " + colFive + " " + colSix + " " + colSeven + " " + colEight + " " + colNine + " " + colTen + " " + colEleven + " " + colTwelve + " )"; strSQL += " values ("+active+", " + valueOne + " " + valueTwo + " " + valueThree + " " + valueFour + " " + valueFive + " " + valueSix + " " + valueSeven + " " + valueEight + " " + valueNine + " " + valueTen + " " + valueEleven + " )"; return strSQL; } as you can see thats quite a mess so i wondered if it was at all possible to write a method which would take an arguement of how many colums needed to be inserted and then could create a method with that many arguements. i hope you can see what i am getting at and dont just sound like a plep! thanks in advance

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• Black outline around map polygons (IE)

  - by user146780

  This only happens in some IE's. Here: http://animactions.ca/Animactions/volet_entreprise.php You may notice that when you click and drag on one of the circles, you will get something similar to this: http://img534.imageshack.us/img534/7578/errorra.png I cannot figure it out. Here is my image map: <p class="style2"> <map id="FPMap0" name="FPMap0"> <area coords="405, 8, 375, 10, 353, 13, 322, 30, 317, 48, 327, 69, 344, 75, 370, 84, 401, 86, 428, 81, 454, 69, 466, 56, 468, 37, 452, 19, 419, 9" href="le_developpement_des_equipes_de_travail.php" shape="poly" style="outline:0" target="_blank" /> <area coords="95, 164, 65, 166, 43, 174, 21, 186, 16, 206, 27, 225, 48, 237, 76, 241, 99, 241, 129, 236, 151, 228, 165, 214, 167, 194, 154, 177, 130, 168, 105, 165" href="le_developpement_operationnel.php" shape="poly" style="outline:0" target="_blank" /> <area coords="138, 17, 115, 7, 95, 8, 63, 8, 41, 20, 21, 35, 23, 60, 42, 74, 77, 83, 117, 86, 144, 76, 164, 62, 173, 40, 156, 21, 137, 12" href="coaching_strategique_de_cadre.php" shape="poly" style="border-width:0" target="_blank" /> </map> <img alt="services entreprise" height="258" src="Images/service_ent.PNG" width="490" usemap="#FPMap0" /></p> I really hope someone can figure this out because I'v tried everything... Thanks

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• a question related to URL

  - by Robert

  Dear all,Now i have this question in my java program,I think it should be classified as URL problem,but not 100% sure.If you think I am wrong,feel free to recategorize this problem,thanks. I would state my problem as simply as possible. I did a search on the famouse Chinese search engine baidu.com for a Chinese key word "???" (Obama in English),and the way I do that is to pass a URL (in a Java Program)to the browser like: http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=??? and it works perfectly just like I input the "???”keyword in the text field on baidu.com. However,now my advisor wants another thing.Since he can not read the Chinese webpages,but he wants to make sure the webpages I got from Baidu.com is related to "Obama",he asked me to google translate it back,i.e,using google translate and translate the Chinese webpage to English one. This sounds straightforward.However,I met my problem here. If I simply pass the URL "http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" into Google Translate and tick "Chinese to English" translating option,the result looks awful.(I don't know the clue here,maybe related to Chinese character encoding). Alternatively,if now my browser opens ""http://news.baidu.com/ns?word=???" webpage,but I click on the "????" button (that simply means "search"),you will notice the URL will get changed,now if I pass this URL into the Google translate and do the same thing,the result works much better. I hope I am not making this problem sound too complicated,and I appologize for some Chinese words invovled,but I really need your guys' help here.Becasue I did all this in a Java program,I couldn't figure out how to realize that "????"(pressing search button) step then get the new URL.If I could get that new URL,things are easy,I could just call Google translate in my Java code,and pops out the new window to show my advisor. Please share any of your idea or thougts here.Thanks a lot. Robert

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• Android Video Layout and backbutton to activity

  - by Marcjc

  I have an application where you can click on a button, this takes you to a new activity with four new buttons, listen, bio, ringtone, and watch. My watch button kicks off the following code: Button cmd_watchme = (Button)this.findViewById(R.id.watch); cmd_watchme.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { public void onClick(View view) { setContentView(R.layout.tvvideo); VideoView video=(VideoView)findViewById(R.id.VideoView); MediaController mediaController = new MediaController(andy.this); mediaController.setAnchorView(video); video.setMediaController(mediaController); video.setVideoURI(videopath); video.start(); } }); After the video is displayed I am trying to get the backbutton on the phone itself to take the user back to the four button selection activity, listen, bio, ringtone, and watch. Question is, how do i do this? I was figuring if there was a way to change the ContentView after the video is displayed back to the main one for the four button page but could not figure it out. When I press the backbutton on the device, it takes me two levels up to the main selection activity not the four button activity. I hope this was somewhat clear. Thanks for any help.

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• Enum and Dictionary<Enum, Action>

  - by Selcuk

  I hope I can explain my problem in a way that it's clear for everyone. We need your suggestions on this. We have an Enum Type which has more than 15 constants defined. We receive a report from a web service and translate its one column into this Enum type. And based on what we receive from that web service, we run specific functions using Dictionary Why am I asking for ideas? Let's say 3 of these Enum contants meet specific functions in our Dictionary but the rest use the same function. So, is there a way to add them into our Dictionary in a better way rather than adding them one by one? I also want to keep this structure because when it's time, we might have specific functions in the future for the ones that I described as "the rest". To be more clear here's an example what we're trying to do: Enum: public enum Reason{ ReasonA, ReasonB, ReasonC, ReasonD, ReasonE, ReasonF, ReasonG, ReasonH, ReasonI, ReasonJ, ReasonK } Defining our Dictionary: public Dictionary<Reason, Action<CustomClassObj, string>> ReasonHandlers = new Dictionary<Reason, Action<CustomClassObj, string>>{ { Reason.ReasonA, HandleReasonA }, { Reason.ReasonB, HandleReasonB }, { Reason.ReasonC, HandleReasonC }, { Reason.ReasonD, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonE, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonF, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonG, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonH, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonI, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonJ, HandleReasonGeneral }, { Reason.ReasonK, HandleReasonGeneral } }; So basically what I'm asking is, is there a way to add Reason, Function pair more intelligently? Because as you can see after ReasonC, all other reasons use the same function. Thank you for your suggestions.

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• WPF create a list of controls that can be scrolled via the mouse but still remain functional

  - by Mark

  I have a list of controls that I am displaying via a WrapPanel and it horizontally oriented. I have implemented a "Click and Drag" scrolling technique so that the user scrolls with the mouse via clicking and dragging. Like so: <Canvas x:Name="ParentCanvas" PreviewMouseDown="Canvas_MouseDown" MouseMove="Canvas_MouseMove"> <WrapPanel> <WrapPanel.RenderTransform> <TranslateTransform /> </WrapPanel.RenderTransform> <!-- controls are all in here ... --> </WrapPanel> </Canvas> Then in the code behind: private Point _mousePosition; private Point _lastMousePosition; private void Canvas_MouseDown(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { _lastMousePosition = e.GetPosition(ParentCanvas); e.Handled = true; } private void Canvas_MouseMove(object sender, MouseEventArgs e) { _mousePosition = e.GetPosition(ParentCanvas); var delta = _mousePosition - _lastMousePosition; if(e.LeftButton == MouseButtonState.Pressed && delta.X != 0) { var transform = ((TranslateTransform)_wrapPanel.RenderTransform).Clone(); transform.X += delta.X; _wrapPanel.RenderTransform = transform; _lastMousePosition = _mousePosition; } } This all works fine But what I want to do is make it so that when a users clicks to drag, the items within the WrapPanel dont respond (i.e. the user is only browsing), but when the user clicks (as in a full click) then they do respond to the click. Just like how the iphone works, when you press and drag directly on an app, it does not open the app, but rather scrolls the screen, but when you tap the app, it starts... I hope this makes sense. Cheers, Mark

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• Analyze log files from many languages using a single tool. And recommendations of logging frameworks

  - by Binary255

  We have a system build on lots of languages. The ones we are interested in logging, in order of priority, are: C/C++ PHP C# Bash Java Wish list: If it is possible, we would like logging to be achieved from the above languages in such a way that we may use a single log viewing tool for all of them. Ideally they would be in the same format, but next to that in as few formats as possible and readable from as many log file viewers as possible. If it is possible logging to a single log file or a set of log files would be nice. With a possibility to filter based on the source language that is being logged. We would like to copy the log files (or should be log to a database and copy it instead?) from multiple servers to a single location. So that we can analyze the log files from many servers at the same time (to see if any of our servers execute a certain piece legacy code for example). Being able to change logging level at runtime would be nice. Thank you for reading! It's quite a complex problem, I hope someone has wrestled with it before and has some valuable information!

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• Implementing a 1 to many relationship with SQLite

  - by Patrick

  I have the following schema implemented successfully in my application. The application connects desk unit channels to IO unit channels. The DeskUnits and IOUnits tables are basically just a list of desk/IO units and the number of channels on each. For example a desk could be 4 or 12 channel. CREATE TABLE DeskUnits (Name TEXT, NumChannels NUMERIC); CREATE TABLE IOUnits (Name TEXT, NumChannels NUMERIC); CREATE TABLE RoutingTable (DeskUnitName TEXT, DeskUnitChannel NUMERIC, IOUnitName TEXT, IOUnitChannel NUMERIC); The RoutingTable 'table' then connects each DeskUnit channel to an IOUnit channel. For example the DeskUnit called "Desk1" channel 1 may route to IOunit name "IOUnit1" channel 2, etc. So far I hope this is pretty straightforward and understandable. The problem is, however, this is a strictly 1 to 1 relationship. Any DeskUnit channel can route to only 1 IOUnit channel. Now, I need to implement a 1 to many relationship. Where any DeskUnit channel can connect to multiple IOUnit channels. I realise I may have to rearrange the tables completely, but I am not sure the best way to go about this. I am fairly new to SQLite and databases in general so any help would be appreciated. Thanks Patrick

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• Free solution for automatic updates with .NET/C#?

  - by a2h

  Yes, from searching I can see this has been asked time and time again. Here's a backstory. I'm an individual hobbyist developer with zero budget. A program I've been developing has been in need of constant bugfixes, and me and users are getting tired of having to manually update. Me, because my current solution of Manually FTP to my website Update a file "newest.txt" with the newest version Update index.html with a link to the newest version Hope for people to see the "there's an update" message Have them manually download the update sucks, and whenever I screw up an update, I get pitchforks. Users, because, well, "Are you ever going to implement auto-update?" "Will there ever be an auto-update feature?" Over the past few hours I have looked into: http://windowsclient.net/articles/appupdater.aspx - I can't comprehend the documentation http://www.codeproject.com/KB/vb/Auto_Update_Revisited.aspx - Doesn't appear to support anything other than working with files that aren't in use http://wyday.com/wyupdate/ - wyBuild isn't free, and the file specification is simply too complex. Maybe if I was under a company paying me I could spend the time, but then I may as well pay for wyBuild. http://www.kineticjump.com/update/default.aspx - Ditto. ClickOnce - Workarounds for implementing launching on startup are massive, horrendous and not worth it for such a simple feature. Publishing is a pain; manual FTP and replace of all files is required for servers without FrontPage Extensions. I'm pretty much ready to throw in the towel right now and strangle myself. And then I think about Sparkle...

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• how can a Win32 App plugin load its DLL in its own directory

  - by Jean-Denis Muys

  My code is a plugin for a specific Application, written in C++ using Visual Studio 8. It uses two DLL from an external provider. Unfortunately, my plugin fails to start because the DLLs are not found (I put them in the same directory as the plugin itself). When I manually move or copy the DLLs to the host application directory, then the plugin loads fine. This moving was deemed unacceptably cumbersome for the end user, and I am looking for a way for my plugin to load its DLLs transparently. What can I do? Relevant details: the host Application plugins are located in a directory mandated by the host application. That directory is not in the DLL search path and I don't control it. The plugin is itself packaged as a subdirectory of the plugin directory, holding the plugin code itself, but also any resource associated with the plugin (eg images, configuration files…). I control what's inside that subdirectory, called a "bundle", but not where it's located. the common plugin installation idiom for that App is for the end user to copy the plugin bundle to the plugin directory. This plugin is a port from the Macintosh version of the plugin. On the Mac there is no issue because each binary contains its own dynamic library search path, which I set as I needed to for my plugin binary. To set that on the Mac simply involves a project setting in the Xcode IDE. This is why I would hope for something similar in Visual Studio, but I could not find anything relevant. Moreover, Visual Studio's help was anything but, and neither was Google. A possible workaround would be for my code to explicitly tell Windows where to find the DLL, but I don't know how, and in any case, since my code is not even started, it hasn't got the opportunity to do so. As a Mac developer, I realize that I may be asking for something very elementary. If such is the case, I apologize, but I have run out of hair to pull out.

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• javascript innerHTML without childNodes?

  - by John Doe

  hi all im having a firefox issue where i dont see the wood for the trees using ajax i get html source from a php script this html code contains a tag and within the tbody some more tr/td's now i want to append this tbody plaincode to an existing table. but there is one more condition: the table is part of a form and thus contains checkboxe's and drop down's. if i would use table.innerHTML += content; firefox reloads the table and reset's all elements within it which isnt very userfriendly as id like to have what i have is this // content equals transport.responseText from ajax request function appendToTable(content){ var wrapper = document.createElement('table'); wrapper.innerHTML = content; wrapper.setAttribute('id', 'wrappid'); wrapper.style.display = 'none'; document.body.appendChild(wrapper); // get the parsed element - well it should be wrapper = document.getElementById('wrappid'); // the destination table table = document.getElementById('tableid'); // firebug prints a table element - seems right console.log(wrapper); // firebug prints the content ive inserted - seems right console.log(wrapper.innerHTML); var i = 0; // childNodes is iterated 2 times, both are textnode's // the second one seems to be a simple '\n' for(i=0;i<wrapper.childNodes.length;i++){ // firebug prints 'undefined' - wth!?? console.log(wrapper.childNodes[i].innerHTML); // firebug prints a textnode element - <TextNode textContent=" "> console.log(wrapper.childNodes[i]); table.appendChild(wrapper.childNodes[i]); } // WEIRD: firebug has no problems showing the 'wrappid' table and its contents in the html view - which seems there are the elements i want and not textelements } either this is so trivial that i dont see the problem OR its a corner case and i hope someone here has that much of expirience to give an advice on this - anyone can imagine why i get textnodes and not the finally parsed dom elements i expect? btw: btw i cant give a full example cause i cant write a smaller non working piece of code its one of those bugs that occure in the wild and not in my testset thx all

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• CM and Agile validation process of merging to the Trunk?

  - by LoneCM

  Hello All, We are a new Agile shop and we are encountering an issue that I hope others have seen. In our process, the Trunk is considered an integration branch; it does not have to be releasable, but it does have to be stable and functional for others to branch off of. We create Feature branches of the Trunk for new development. All work and testing occurs in these branches. An individual branch pulls up as needed to stay integrated with the Trunk as other features that are accepted and are committed. But now we have numerous feature branches. Each are focused, have a short life cycle, and are pushed to the trunk as they are completed, so we not debating the need for the branches and trying very much to be Agile. My issue comes in here: I require that the branches pull up from the Trunk at the end of their life cycle and complete the validation, regression testing and handle all configuration issues before pushing to the trunk. Once reintegrated into the Trunk, I ask for at least a build and an automated smoke test. However, I am now getting push back on the Trunk validation. The argument is that the developers can merge the code and not need the QA validation steps because they already complete the work in the feature branch. Therefore, the extra testing is not needed. I have attempted to remind management of the numerous times "brainless" merges have failed. Thier solution is to instead of build and regression testing to have the developer diff the Feature branch and the newly merged Trunk. That process in thier mind would replace the regression testing I asked for. So what do you require when you reintegrate back to the Trunk? What are the issues that we will encounter if we remove this step and replace with the diff? Is the cost of staying Agile the additional work of the intergration of the branches? Thanks for any input. LoneCM

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• AJAX contact form in CodeIgniter

  - by Ross

  Few questions: I'm using CI and JQuery AJAX. In my code below, I assemble dataString, which by default, is appended to the URL as a query string. I've changed the AJAX "type" to POST, so my question is - how do I access dataString in my CI app? It would seem I still have to use $name=$this->input->post('name') Which to me, makes setting dataString redundant? -- I've tried searching but can't really find anything concrete. Would it be possible to still make use of CIs validation library and AJAX? if($this->form_validation->run() == FALSE) { // what can i return so that my CI app shows errors? } Normally you would reload the contact form or redirect the user. In an ideal world I would like the error messages to be shown to the user. Jquery: $(document).ready(function($){ $("#submit_btn").click(function(){ var name = $("input#name").val(); var company = $("input#company").val(); var email = $("input#email").val(); var phone = $("input#phone").val(); var message = $("textarea#message").val(); var dataString = 'name=' + name + '&message=' + message + '&return_email=' + email + '&return_phone=' + phone + '&company=' + company; var response = $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "newsite/contact_ajax/", data: dataString }).responseText; //$('#contact').hide(); //$('#contact').html('<h5>Form submitted! Thank you!</h5><h4>We will be in touch with you soon.</h4>'); //$('#contact').fadeIn('slow'); return false; }); }); hope i've been clear enough - if anyone has a decent example of a CI contact form that would be great. there's mixed stuff on the internet but nothing that hits all the boxes. thanks

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• Delphi - Help calling threaded dll function from another thread

  - by cloudstrif3

  I'm using Delphi 2006 and have a bit of a problem with an application I'm developing. I have a form that creates a thread which calls a function that performs a lengthy operation, lets call it LengthyProcess. Inside the LengthyProcess function we also call several Dll functions which also create threads of their own. The problem that I am having is that if I don't use the Synchronize function of my thread to call LengthyProcess the thread stops responding (the main thread is still responding fine). I don't want to use Synchronize because that means the main thread is waiting for LengthyProcess to finish and therefore defeats the purpose of creating a separate thread. I have tracked the problem down to a function inside the dll that creates a thread and then calls WaitFor, this is all done using TThread by the way. WaitFor checks to see if the CurrentThreadID is equal to the MainThreadID and if it is then it will call CheckSychronization, and all is fine. So if we use Synchronize then the CurrentThreadID will equal the MainThreadID however if we do not use Synchronize then of course CurrentThreadID < MainThreadID, and when this happens WaitFor tells the current thread (the thread I created) to wait for the thread created by the DLL and so CheckSynchronization never gets called and my thread ends up waiting forever for the thread created in the dll. I hope this makes sense, sorry I don't know any better way to explain it. Has anyone else had this issue and knows how to solve it please?

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