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  • Help with editing data in entity framework.

    - by Levelbit
    Title of this question is simple because there is no an easy explanation for what I'm trying to ask you. I hope you'll understand in the end :). I have to tables in my database: Company and Location (relationship:one to many) and corresponding entity sets. In my wpf application I have some datagrid which I want to fill with locations and to be able to edit every row in separate window as some form of details view (so I don't want to edit my data in datagrid). I did this by accessing Location entity from selected row and creating a new Location entity and then I copy properties from original entity to newly created. Something like cloning the object. After editing if I press OK changed data is copied to original object back, and if I press Cancel nothing happens. Of course, you probably thinking I could use NoTracking option and AttachAsModified method as was mentioned as solution in some earlier questions(see:http://stackoverflow.com/questions/803022/changing-entities-in-the-entityframework) by Alex James, but lets say I had some problems about that and I have my own reasons for doing this. Finally, because navigation property(Company) of my location entity is assigned to newly created location object(during cloning) from some reason in object context additional object as copy of object I want to edit from datagrid is created without my will(similar problem :http://blogs.msdn.com/alexj/archive/2009/12/02/tip-47-how-fix-up-can-make-it-hard-to-change-relationships.aspx). So, when I do ObjectContext.SaveChanges it inserts additional row of data into my database table Location, the same as the one i wanted to edit. I read about sth like this, but I don't quite understand why is that and how to block or override this. I hope I was clear as I could. Please, solutions or some other ideas.

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  • Optional route parameters in ASP.NET 4 RTM no longer work as before

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I upgraded my project to ASP.NET 4 RTM with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM today. I was previously using ASP.NET 3.5 with ASP.NET MVC 2.0 RTM. Some of my routes don't work suddenly and I don't know why. I'm not sure if something changed between 3.5 and 4.0 - or if this was a regression type issue in the 4.0 RTM. (I never previously tested my app with 4.0). I like to use Url.RouteUrl("route-name", routeParams) to avoid ambiguity when generating URLs. Here's my route definition for a gallery page. I want imageID to be optional (you get a thumbnail page if you don't specify it). // gallery id routes.MapRoute( "gallery-route", "gallery/{galleryID}/{imageID}/{title}", new { controller = "Gallery", action = "Index", galleryID = (string) null, imageID = (string) null, title = (string) null} ); In .NET 3.5 / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => /gallery/cats Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles In .NET 4.0 RTM / ASP.NET 2.0 RTM / IIS7 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats") => null Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4) => /gallery/cats/4 Url.RouteUrl("gallery-route", "cats", 4, "tiddles") => /gallery/cats/4/tiddles Previously I could supply only the galleryID and everything else would be ignored in the generated URL. But now it's looking like I need to specify all the parameters up until title - or it gives up in determining the URL. Incoming URLs work fine for /gallery/cats and that is correctly mapped through this rule with imageID and title both being assigned null in my controller. I also tested the INCOMING routes with http://haacked.com/archive/2008/03/13/url-routing-debugger.aspx and they all work fine.

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  • Binding a DropDownList inside a DetailsView

    - by annelie
    Hello, I'm having problems trying to populate a dropdownlist from the database. When I'm trying to set the datasource I can't find the dropdown control, it's in a DetailsView so I think it might have something to do with it only being created when it's in edit mode. It still says it's in current mode when I'm editing though, so not sure what's going on there. Here's the code from the aspx file: <asp:DetailsView id="DetailsView1" runat="server" AutoGenerateRows="false" DataSourceID="myMySqlDataSrc" DataKeyNames="id" AutoGenerateDeleteButton="True" AutoGenerateEditButton="True" AutoGenerateInsertButton="False" > <Fields> <snip> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Region"> <ItemTemplate><%# Eval("region_name") %></ItemTemplate> <EditItemTemplate> <asp:DropDownList ID="RegionDropdownList" runat="server" SelectedValue='<%# Bind("region_id")%>'> </asp:DropDownList> </EditItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Fields> </asp:DetailsView> And this is from the code behind: ArrayList regionsList = BPBusiness.getRegions(); if (DetailsView1.CurrentMode == DetailsViewMode.Edit) { DropDownList ddlRegions = (DropDownList)DetailsView1.FindControl("RegionDropdownList"); if (ddlRegions != null) { ddlRegions.DataSource = regionsList; ddlRegions.DataBind(); } } It's .net 2.0 if that helps. Thanks, Annelie

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  • Use a resource dictionary as theme in Silverlight

    - by SaphuA
    Hello, I have developed an application which allows the user to switch between themes. I'm doing this by including the xaml file as a resource in my project and using the following code: MainTheme.ThemeUri = new Uri("SilverlightApplication1;component/Themes/[ThemeName]/Theme.xaml", UriKind.Relative); This worked well, untill I found these themes: http://timheuer.com/blog/archive/2010/05/17/silverlight-4-tools-released-and-new-application-templates.aspx The difference is that these themes consist of multiple files. So I made a Theme.xaml file that only includes MergedDictionaries so I could still use the code above. This is the Theme.xaml file for the Cosmopolitan theme. <ResourceDictionary xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml"> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="CoreStyles.xaml"/> <ResourceDictionary Source="SDKStyles.xaml"/> <ResourceDictionary Source="Styles.xaml"/> <ResourceDictionary Source="ToolkitStyles.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> However, when I run the c# code above I get the following exception: System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: Failed to assign to property 'System.Windows.ResourceDictionary.Source'. Just to be clear, using the MergedDictionaries method does work when I set it in my App.xaml: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="Themes/Cosmopolitan/Theme.xaml"/> </ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> </ResourceDictionary> </Application.Resources> What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

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  • using jquery in asp.net to hide div tag

    - by Eyla
    Greetings, I have asp.net check box control and asp.net dropdownlist control inside div tag. I want to hid the div when I check the box and unhide it when I unchecked the box. I tried few ways with jquery but I could not do it. Here is my code please look at it and tell me what is wrong with it. <%@ Page Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" Title="Untitled Page" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1-vsdoc.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function ModifyOccup() { $('myOccup').removeClass('display1'); $('myOccup').removeClass('display1'); $('myOccup').removeClass('display'); $('myOccup').removeClass('display'); if ($('#<%=chkOccup.ClientID %>').is(':checked')) { $('myOccup').addClass('display1'); } else { $('myOccup').addClass('display'); } } </script> <asp:CheckBox ID="chkOccup" runat="server" Style="top: 1055px; left: 355px; position: absolute; height: 22px; width: 126px" Text="Check to modify" onclick=" ModifyOccup()"/> <div id ="myOccup" > <asp:DropDownList ID="cmbWorkField" runat="server" Style="top: 1090px; left: 350px; position: absolute; height: 22px; width: 126px"> </asp:DropDownList> </div> </asp:Content> ...................... Style.css File .......................... .display { display: none; } .display1 { display: inherit; }

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  • Daylight Savings Handling in DateDiff() in MS Access?

    - by PowerUser
    I am fully aware of DateDiff()'s inability to handle daylight savings issues. Since I often use it to compare the number of hours or days between 2 datetimes several months apart, I need to write up a solution to handle DST. This is what I came up with, a function that first subtracts 60 minutes from a datetime value if it falls within the date ranges specified in a local table (LU_DST). Thus, the usage would be: datediff("n",Conv_DST_to_Local([date1]),Conv_DST_to_Local([date2])) My question is: Is there a better way to handle this? I'm going to make a wild guess that I'm not the first person with this question. This seems like the kind of thing that should have been added to one of the core reference libraries. Is there a way for me to access my system clock to ask it if DST was in effect at a certain date & time? Function Conv_DST_to_Local(X As Date) As Date Dim rst As DAO.Recordset Set rst = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("LU_DST") Conv_DST_to_Local = X While rst.EOF = False If X > rst.Fields(0) And X < rst.Fields(1) Then Conv_DST_to_Local = DateAdd("n", -60, X) rst.MoveNext Wend End Function Notes I have visited and imported the BAS file of http://www.cpearson.com/excel/TimeZoneAndDaylightTime.aspx. I spent at least an hour by now reading through it and, while it may do its job well, I can't figure out how to modify it to my needs. But if you have an answer using his data structures, I'll take a look. Timezones are not an issue since this is all local time.

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  • Writing to a new window with javascript... get access denied

    - by Søren
    Hello gurus :) I have been struggling with this for a while now, and decided it was time to ask for help. I am trying to create a print function on an aspx page, and I am using javascript to do this: function PrintContentCell() { var display_setting = "toolbar=yes, location=no, directories=yes, menubar=yes,"; display_setting += "scrollbars=yes, width=750, height=600, left=100, top=25"; var content_innerhtml = document.getElementById("testTable").innerHTML; var document_print = window.open("Loading.htm", "", display_setting); document_print.document.open(); document_print.document.write('<html><head><title>Print</title></head>'); document_print.document.write('<body style="font-family:verdana; font-size:12px;" onLoad="self.print();self.close();" >'); document_print.document.write(content_innerhtml); document_print.document.write('</body></html>'); document_print.print(); document_print.document.close(); return false; } I get "Access Denied" when the script tries to write to the new window. The Loading.htm file is just a very slim html document writing out the text "Loading...". I had hoped this would work after reading this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/735136/ie-6-7-access-denied-trying-to-access-a-popup-window-document Anybody can help?

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  • Access SSAS cube from across domains without direct database connection

    - by SuperKing
    Hello, I'm working with SQL Server Analysis Services for the first time and have the dilemma of working on a project in which users must be able to access SSAS Cubes (via a custom web dashboard) that live across different servers and domains, but without having access to the other server's SSAS database connection strings. So Organization A and Organization B will have their own cubes on their own servers, but Organization A users must be able to view Organization B's cubes, and Organization B users must be able to view Organization A's cubes, but neither organization should have access to the connection string. I've read about allowing HTTP access to the SSAS server and cube from the link below, but that requires setting up users for authentication or allowing anonymous access to one organization's server for users of another organization, and I'm not sure this would be acceptable for this situation, or if this is the preferred way to do this. Is performance acceptable here? http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc917711.aspx I also wonder if perhaps it makes sense to run a nightly/weekly process that accesses the other organization's SSAS database via a web service or something, and pull that data into a database on the organization's server, and then rebuild the cube. Then that cube would be queried without having to go and connect to the other organization server when viewing the cube. Has anyone else attempted to accomplish something similar? Is HTTP access the standard way to go for this? Or any other possible options? Thanks, and please let me know if you need more info, still unclear on how some of this works.

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  • Using embedded standard HTML forms with ASP.NET

    - by RM
    I have a standard aspx page with which I need to add another standard HTML form into and have it submit to another location (external site), however whenever I press the submit button the page seems to do a post back rather than using the sub-forms action url. A mock up of what the form relationships is below. Note in the real deployment the form will be part of a content area of a master page layout, so the form needs to submit independantly from the master page form. <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <form id="subscribe_form" method="post" action="https://someothersite.com" name="em_subscribe_form" > <input type="text" id="field1" name="field1" /> <input id="submitsubform" type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </div> </form> </body> </html>

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  • Constant error in compiler using C#'s provided objects

    - by dotnetdev
    I have used the built in C# methods to write a compiler, like the following: CodeDomProvider codeProvider = CodeDomProvider.CreateProvider("CSharp"); string Output = "Out.exe"; Button ButtonObject = (Button)sender; this.RadTextBox1.Text = string.Empty; System.CodeDom.Compiler.CompilerParameters parameters = new CompilerParameters(); //Make sure we generate an EXE, not a DLL parameters.GenerateExecutable = true; parameters.OutputAssembly = Output; CompilerResults results = codeProvider.CompileAssemblyFromSource(parameters, RadTextBox1.Text); if (results.Errors.Count > 0) { RadTextBox2.ForeColor = Color.Red; foreach (CompilerError CompErr in results.Errors) { RadTextBox2.Text = RadTextBox2.Text + "Line number " + CompErr.Line + ", Error Number: " + CompErr.ErrorNumber + ", '" + CompErr.ErrorText + ";" + Environment.NewLine + Environment.NewLine; } } else { //Successful Compile RadTextBox2.ForeColor = Color.Blue; Guid guid = Guid.NewGuid(); string PathToExe = Server.MapPath(Path.Combine(@"\Compiled" , Output)); FileStream fs = System.IO.File.Create(PathToExe); using (StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(fs)) { sw.Write(RadTextBox1.Text); } Response.WriteFile(PathToExe); When I run this code and write a Main method (such as the code sample in http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms228506(VS.80).aspx, I get this error: Line number 0, Error Number: CS5001, 'Program 'c:\Program Files\Microsoft Visual Studio 9.0\Common7\IDE\Out.exe' does not contain a static 'Main' method suitable for an entry point; The code above is used as the basis of a compiler on my site (not yet live). So you type in code and generate an .exe assembly. But when I enter code into the textbox for code writing (Radtextbox1), even with a main method, I get the error. What gives? Thanks

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  • Generate exe in .Net

    - by rwallace
    In .Net, you can generate byte code in memory, and presumably save the resulting program to a .exe file. To do the first step, I have the following test code adapted from http://www.code-magazine.com/Article.aspx?quickid=0301051 var name = new AssemblyName(); name.Name = "MyAssembly"; var ad = Thread.GetDomain(); var ab = ad.DefineDynamicAssembly(name, AssemblyBuilderAccess.Run); var mb = ab.DefineDynamicModule("MyModule"); var theClass = mb.DefineType("MathOps", TypeAttributes.Public); var retType = typeof(System.Int32); var parms = new Type[2]; parms[0] = typeof(System.Int32); parms[1] = typeof(System.Int32); var meb = theClass.DefineMethod("ReturnSum", MethodAttributes.Public, retType, parms); var gen = meb.GetILGenerator(); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_1); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ldarg_2); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Add_Ovf); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Stloc_0); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Br_S); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ldloc_0); gen.Emit(OpCodes.Ret); theClass.CreateType(); How do you do the second step, and save the result to a .exe?

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  • Why do properties behave this way?

    - by acidzombie24
    from http://csharpindepth.com/Articles/Chapter8/PropertiesMatter.aspx using System; struct MutableStruct { public int Value { get; set; } public void SetValue(int newValue) { Value = newValue; } } class MutableStructHolder { public MutableStruct Field; public MutableStruct Property { get; set; } } class Test { static void Main(string[] args) { MutableStructHolder holder = new MutableStructHolder(); // Affects the value of holder.Field holder.Field.SetValue(10); // Retrieves holder.Property as a copy and changes the copy holder.Property.SetValue(10); Console.WriteLine(holder.Field.Value); Console.WriteLine(holder.Property.Value); } } 1) Why is a copy (of Property?) being made? 2) When changing the code to holder.Field.value and holder.Property.value = 10 i get the error below. That just blew my mind Error 1 Cannot modify the return value of 'MutableStructHolder.Property' because it is not a variable Why would i ever not be allowed to assign a value inside of a property!?! both property are get/set! and finally WHY would you EVER want behavior mentioned in 1 and 2. (It never came up for me, i always used get only properties). Please explain well, i cant imagine ever wanting the 2nd much less then the first. It is just so weird to me.

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  • xVal and Regular Expression Match

    - by gmcalab
    I am using xVal to validate my forms in asp.net MVC 1.0 Not sure why my regular expression isn't validating correctly. It validates with the value of "12345" It validates with the value of "12345 " It validates with the value of "12345 -" It validates with the value of "12345 -1" It validates with the value of "12345 -12" ... etc For a zip code I expect one of the two patterns: 12345 or 12345 -1234 Here are the two regex I tried: (\d{5})((( -)(\d{4}))?) (\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4}) Here is my MetaData class for xVal [MetadataType(typeof(TIDServiceMetadata))] public class TIDServiceStep : TIDDetail { public class TIDServiceMetadata { [Required(ErrorMessage = " [Required] ")] [RegularExpression(@"(\d{5})|(\d{5} -\d{4})", ErrorMessage = " Invalid Zip ")] public string Zip { get; set; } } } Here is my aspx page: <% Html.BeginForm("Edit", "Profile", FormMethod.Post); %> <table border="0" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td> <h6>Zip:</h6> </td> <td> <%= Html.TextBox("Profile.Zip")%> </td> </tr> <tr> <td> <input type="submit"/> </td> </tr> </table> <% Html.EndForm(); %> <% Html.Telerik().ScriptRegistrar() .OnDocumentReady(() => { %> <%= Html.ClientSideValidation<TIDProfileStep>("Profile").SuppressScriptTags() %> <% }); %>

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  • Bibliography behaves strange in lyx.

    - by Orjanp
    Hi! I have created a Bibliography section in my document written in lyx. It uses a book layout. For some reason it did start over again when I added some more entries. The new entries was made some time later than the first ones. I just went down to key-27 and hit enter. Then it started on key-1 again. Does anyone know why it behaves like this? The lyx code is below. \begin{thebibliography}{34} \bibitem{key-6}Lego mindstorms, http://mindstorms.lego.com/en-us/default.aspx \bibitem{key-7}C.A.R. Hoare. Communicating sequential processes. Communications of the ACM, 21(8):666-677, pages 666\textendash{}677, August 1978. \bibitem{key-8}C.A.R. Hoare. Communicating sequential processes. Prentice-Hall, 1985. \bibitem{key-9}CSPBuilder, http://code.google.com/p/cspbuilder/ \bibitem{key-10}Rune Møllegård Friborg and Brian Vinter. CSPBuilder - CSP baset Scientific Workflow Modelling, 2008. \bibitem{key-11}Labview, http://www.ni.com/labview \bibitem{key-12}Robolab, http://www.lego.com/eng/education/mindstorms/home.asp?pagename=robolab \bibitem{key-13}http://code.google.com/p/pycsp/ \bibitem{key-14}Paparazzi, http://paparazzi.enac.fr \bibitem{key-15}Debian, http://www.debian.org \bibitem{key-16}Ubuntu, http://www.ubuntu.com \bibitem{key-17}GNU, http://www.gnu.org \bibitem{key-18}IVY, http://www2.tls.cena.fr/products/ivy/ \bibitem{key-19}Tkinter, http://wiki.python.org/moin/TkInter \bibitem{key-20}pyGKT, http://www.pygtk.org/ \bibitem{key-21}pyQT4, http://wiki.python.org/moin/PyQt4 \bibitem{key-22}wxWidgets, http://www.wxwidgets.org/ \bibitem{key-23}wxPython GUI toolkit, http://www.wxPython.org \bibitem{key-24}Python programming language, http://www.python.org \bibitem{key-25}wxGlade, http://wxglade.sourceforge.net/ \bibitem{key-26}http://numpy.scipy.org/ \bibitem{key-27}http://www.w3.org/XML/ \bibitem{key-1}IVY software bus, http://www2.tls.cena.fr/products/ivy/ \bibitem{key-2}sdas \bibitem{key-3}sad \bibitem{key-4}sad \bibitem{key-5}fsa \bibitem{key-6}sad \bibitem{key-7} \end{thebibliography}

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  • Extracting [] elements from form collection - mvc - should use icollection but have mix of types

    - by bergin
    hi there. have looked at Phil Haacks project on books at http://haacked.com/archive/2008/10/23/model-binding-to-a-list.aspx which has been useful, but I have a mix of data types. I use a modelview so that i can have a mix of objects, in this case: Order (ie order.id, order.date etc), Customer, SoilSamplingOrder and a list of SoilSamplingSubJobs which is like this [0].id, [0].field, [1].id, [1].field etc Perhaps I should be using ICollection instead of List? I had problems getting UpdateModel to work so I used an extract from collection method. the first 4 method calls : orderRepository.FindOrder(id); etc give the model the original to be edited. but after this point i'm a little lost in how to update the subjobs. I hope i have delineated enough to make sense of the problem. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection collection) { Order order = orderRepository.FindOrder(id); Customer cust = orderRepository.FindCustomer(order.customer_id); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssj = orderRepository.FindSubOrders(id); SoilSamplingOrder sso = orderRepository.FindSoilSampleOrder(id); try { UpdateModel(order, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(cust, collection.ToValueProvider()); UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); IList<SoilSamplingSubJob> sssjs = orderRepository.extractSSSJ(collection); foreach (var sj in sssjs) UpdateModel(sso, collection.ToValueProvider()); orderRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id=order.order_id}); } catch { return View(); } }

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  • AutoCompleteExtender not suggesting search terms

    - by Phil
    My codebehind method: <System.Web.Services.WebMethodAttribute(), System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptMethodAttribute()> _ Public Shared Function GetCompletionList(ByVal prefixText As String, ByVal count As Integer, ByVal contextKey As String) As String() ' Create array of movies Dim movies() As String = {"Star Wars", "Star Trek", "Superman", "Memento", "Shrek", "Shrek II"} ' Return matching movies Return From m In movies Where (m.StartsWith(prefixText, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase)) Select m _ .Take(count).ToArray() End Function End Class Then in my aspx page I have: <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <asp:ToolkitScriptManager ID="ToolkitScriptManager1" runat="server"> </asp:ToolkitScriptManager> <br /> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> <asp:AutoCompleteExtender ID="TextBox1_AutoCompleteExtender" runat="server" DelimiterCharacters="" Enabled="True" ServiceMethod="GetCompletionList" ServicePath="" TargetControlID="TextBox1" UseContextKey="True" MinimumPrefixLength="2"> </asp:AutoCompleteExtender> </div> </form> When I run the page there are no errors, but there also are no auto complete suggestions. Please help!

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  • [ASP.NET] Difficulties using custom control - RichTextEditor

    - by Chris
    I am working on a school project that uses ASP.NET. I found this TextEditor control ( http://blogs.msdn.com/kirti/archive/2007/11/10/rich-text-editor-is-here.aspx ) that I am trying to include but it isn't working. The error I am getting is: Error Rendering Control - TextEditor. An unhandled exception has occurred. Index was out of range. Must be non-negative and less than the size of the collection. Parameter name: index. I see this error when I go Design part of the editor. I just don't understand this error at all. Also I am a lil bit confused as there is no parameter called index. :( What I have done is reference the binary in my project and then on the page I am trying to use it have registered its namespace and assembly with this line: <%@ Register Assembly="RichTextEditor" Namespace="AjaxControls" TagPrefix="rtt" %> I then go ahead and try to add the control to the page with this line of code: <rtt:richtexteditor ID="TextEditor" Theme="Blue" runat="server" /> Any help would be much appreciated. I haven't done anything like add a custom control before.

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  • Active Directory - Query Group for all machines

    - by Ben Cawley
    Hi, I'm trying to obtain a list of all Machines that are members of a known group. I have the group GUID and am constructing a query using the "memberof=" format and filtering by ObjectClass. This works fine but doesn't return machines if the PrimaryGroup attribute of a machine is set to be the known group. In this case, that machine won't be returned. I've found the explanation of why this is in the following link (See Joe Kaplan's response) http://www.eggheadcafe.com/software/aspnet/29773581/active-directory-query-c.aspx Unfortunately the outlined answer is how to obtain the list of groups from a given user. I'd like to do the reverse and from a given group obtain the list of machines. It seems that the PrimaryGroup information is stored on the Machine/User side so I'm not sure if what I want to do is even possible. I had thought I would be able to query the TokenGroup attribute of the known group and then construct a query to return all machines that have the TokenGroup attribute set but it seems that not all groups have this attribute. Does anyone have any ideas or suggestions? If any clarification is needed let me know! Cheers, Ben

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  • Javascript error when attempting to open a modal window in a modal window

    - by The Sheek Geek
    The application is running on a windows server 2003 box using asp.net 2.0 and is an IE specific web app. There is a button that opens a form in an iframe using showModalDialog(...) from a function call located in the javascript. Here is an example of the fucntion: function ShowBusinessHoursSubForm( source ) { var retval = window.showModalDialog("htm/" + locLocaleID + "/SubFormHostFrame.htm", source, "dialogWidth:265px;dialogHeight:261px;help:no;scroll:no;status:no;"); } The host frame is loading an aspx page which contains the actual form that is being used. On the form that is opened there is a button that, when clicked, submits changed to the form. However, if no changed were made before the form was submitted, another modal window pops up stating that there were no changed to the form. This modal window is opened through registration of some javascript in the button click event. The code is as follows (C#): string l_S_ErrorScript = "<script type='text/javascript' language='javascript'>window.showModalDialog('htm/" + l_S_Culture + "/NotChangedErrorDialog.htm', '../../" + l_S_SkinPath + "', 'dialogWidth:310px;dialogHeight:145px;scroll:no;help:no;status:no;');</script>"; if(!m_Page.ClientScript.IsStartupScriptRegistered("ErrorScript")) { m_Page.ClientScript.RegisterStartupScript(this.GetType(), "ErrorScript", l_S_ErrorScript); } When the button is clicked and this dialog needs to appear the following javascript error appears: Error: Object doesn't support this property or method The weird thing is, if I access the application locally and try it everything works fine, but accessing from another computer causes the error. Also, depending on what server (we have many servers for testing all with windows server 2003) the error may not occur on another computer either. These computers are running the same software version using the same version of IE with the same settings. I'm inclined to believe that there is some configuration issue somewhere, but with the settings being the same it is hard to tell. I cannot really change how the app works or the technologies used either. Anyone have any ideas as to what may be causing this?

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  • Authentication Error 401.2

    - by priya2010
    I have an application buit partially in classic asp and in c#. The authentication used as per the config file is windows. This is perfectly working. Now I have to authenticate the users against active directory. (ie. if any AD users requesting my application, it should authenticate the user (on login page load) and redirect to the application home page instead of showing login page) The login page is an asp page and I created an aspx page where the login.asp page will be redirected during page load to autheticate with Active Directory. I hav e disabled anonymous access in IIS and currently used only Integrated Windows Authentication. Also given permission to "Authenticated Users" in Permissions. While trying to access the login.asp page I am getting the following error. You do not have permission to view this directory or page using the credentials that you supplied because your Web browser is sending a WWW-Authenticate header field that the Web server is not configured to accept. Please try the following: Contact the Web site administrator if you believe you should be able to view this directory or page. Click the Refresh button to try again with different credentials. HTTP Error 401.2 - Unauthorized: Access is denied due to server configuration. Internet Information Services (IIS) Kindly help me to fix this issue. Thanks, Priya

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  • How to build a GridView like DataBound Templated Custom ASP.NET Server Control

    - by Deyan
    I am trying to develop a very simple templated custom server control that resembles GridView. Basically, I want the control to be added in the .aspx page like this: <cc:SimpleGrid ID="SimpleGrid1" runat="server"> <TemplatedColumn>ID: <%# Eval("ID") %></ TemplatedColumn> <TemplatedColumn>Name: <%# Eval("Name") %></ TemplatedColumn> <TemplatedColumn>Age: <%# Eval("Age") %></ TemplatedColumn> </cc:SimpleGrid> and when providing the following datasource: DataTable table = new DataTable(); table.Columns.Add("ID", typeof(int)); table.Columns.Add("Name", typeof(string)); table.Columns.Add("Age", typeof(int)); table.Rows.Add(1, "Bob", 35); table.Rows.Add(2, "Sam", 44); table.Rows.Add(3, "Ann", 26); SimpleGrid1.DataSource = table; SimpleGrid1.DataBind(); the result should be a HTML table like this one. ------------------------------- | ID: 1 | Name: Bob | Age: 35 | ------------------------------- | ID: 2 | Name: Sam | Age: 44 | ------------------------------- | ID: 3 | Name: Ann | Age: 26 | ------------------------------- The main problem is that I cannot define the TemplatedColumn. When I tried to do it like this ... private ITemplate _TemplatedColumn; [PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerProperty)] [TemplateContainer(typeof(TemplatedColumnItem))] [TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Multiple)] public ITemplate TemplatedColumn { get { return _TemplatedColumn; } set { _TemplatedColumn = value; } } .. and subsequently instantiate the template in the CreateChildControls I got the following result which is not what I want: ----------- | Age: 35 | ----------- | Age: 44 | ----------- | Age: 26 | ----------- I know that what I want to achieve is pointless and that I can use DataGrid to achieve it, but I am giving this very simple example because if I know how to do this I would be able to develop the control that I need. Thank you.

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  • Events not sent to WPF based ActiveX control (COM interop) when using Reg-Free-COM

    - by embnut
    I have a WPF based ActiveX control (COM interop). I am able to use it correctly by registering the control. When I tried to Reg-Free-COM (using manifest files) the control seems to be activated, but the events (such as mouse click, RequestBringIntoView etc) dont respond. Interestingly, Double click and tab key works. I read in the this article http://blogs.msdn.com/karstenj/archive/2006/10/09/activex-wpf-gadget.aspx that " ... These upsides come with a price: the ActiveX control must be registered in the registry, which requires some kind of installation such as an .msi. The default gadget installation process cannot install ActiveX. The ActiveX control can't be access via reg-free COM. ..." Has anybody had a similar experience? Can anyone explain what is going on? Additional details: When the control is activated after it has been registered it appears as part of the COM client's UI. The control does not receive focus, its elements receive it. When using reg-free-com the control does not load correctly. 1) The control receives focus instead of its sub elements 2) The control has areas that are black instead of the windows default color 3) when I tab in and out of the control or double click it, it's subelements receive focus, the control starts receiving events and the black areas are replaced by the correct color

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  • Why not systematically attach event in WPF instead of using delegate ?

    - by user310291
    For a button to handle event, we can add a delegate to the click property of the button: this.button1.Click += new System.EventHandler(this.button1_Click); But in WPF contrary to Winform, you can also attach a handler http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/magazine/cc785480.aspx So why not do so for the button ? Is performance better in first case maybe ? Update: I mean this Attached Events In order to enable elements to handle events that are declared in a different element, WPF supports something called attached events. Attached events are routed events that support a hookup in XAML on elements other than the type on which the event is declared. For example, if you want the Grid element to listen for a Button.Click event to bubble past, you would simply hook it up like the following: <Grid Button.Click="myButton_Click"> <Button Name="myButton" >Click Me</Button> </Grid> The resulting code in the compile-time-generated partial class now looks like this: #line 5 "..\..\Window1.xaml" ((System.Windows.Controls.Grid)(target)).AddHandler( System.Windows.Controls.Primitives.ButtonBase.ClickEvent, new System.Windows.RoutedEventHandler(this.myButton_Click));

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  • Using SoapExtensionAttributes on client side with async web methods

    - by Maxim Polishchuk
    Hey, I have a simple question. I implemented custom soap extension and registered it into client application configuration file. It works fine. (I would like to implement progress bar functionality like http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa480520.aspx) But I don't like some thing - custom soap extension is invoked by every call of my web service. In order to fix this situation (call WS just by required methods) I implemented custom SoapExtensionAttribute like below: [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Method)] public class CustomSoapExtensionAttribute : SoapExtensionAttribute { public override int Priority { get; set; } public CustomSoapExtensionAttribute() : this (1) { } public CustomSoapExtensionAttribute(int priority) { Priority = priority; } public override Type ExtensionType { get { return typeof(CustomSoapExtension); } } } I added this attribute to required methods of web service proxy classes (and removed registration into client configuration file). My soap extension doesn't invoke when required web methods are calling. Can someone help me to solve this problem or select any other solution? Anotherone, I don't know it is important or not - my required methods are async web methods. Best regards, Maxim

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  • Writing a JMS Publisher without "public static void main"

    - by The Elite Gentleman
    Hi guys, Every example I've seen on the web, e.g. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/docview/jms_to_jms_bridge_activem.aspx, creates a publisher and subscriber with a public static void main method. I don't think that'll work for my web application. I'm learning JMS and I've setup Apache ActiveMQ to run on JBoss 5 and Tomcat 6 (with no glitches). I'm writing a messaging JMS service that needs to send email asynchronously. I've already written a JMS subscriber that receives the message (the class inherits MessageListener). My question is simple: How do I write a publisher that will so that my web applications can call it? Does it have to be published somewhere? My thought is to create a publisher with a no-attribute constructor (in there) and get the MessageQueue Factory, etc. from the JNDI pool (in the constructor). Is my idea correct? How do I subscribe my subscriber to the Queue Receiver? (So far, the subscriber has no constructor, and if I write a constructor, do I always subscribe myself to the Queue receiver?) Thanks for your help, sorry if my terminology is not up to scratch, there are too many java terminologies that I get lost sometimes (maybe a java GPS will do! :-) ) PS Is there a tutorial out there that explains how to write a "better" (better can mean anything, but in my case it's all about performance in high demand requests) JMS Publisher and Subscriber that I can run on Application Server such as JBoss or Glassfish? Don't forget that the JMS application will needs a "guarantee" uptime as many applications will use this.

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