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  • WCF publish/subscribe service, and ASP.NET MVC client

    - by d3j4vu
    I managed to develop a custom WCF service, using the publish / subscribe model, and hosted inside a managed windows service. Everything's working. I developed an interface as the service contract implementing a method definition marked as a non-one way operation contract (OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)]. This, to make possible returns an instance of a custom class derived from System.Web.Mvc.ActionResult. In the MVC app, event fires ok. It wraps inside an action method, (just the one defined in the interface), but, and this is my current problem, i believe that something relative to the execution context of the windows service (and the hosted wcf counterpart) blocks the execution of the action method in the MVC app. This is what i have until now (some pieces ripped off just to be more clear): /// Method definition for the contract's service. Maps to a MVC ActionMethod. [OperationContract(IsOneWay = false)] ActionResult Imagen(string data, CustomActionResult result); The class to hold an ActionResult derived class instance: public class ServiceEventArgsMvc : ServiceEventArgs { /// <summary> /// /// </summary> public CustomActionResult Result { get; set; } } And the code in the MVC client app: /// <summary> /// Just a simple class to hold an abstract ActionResult derived class instance. /// </summary> public ActionResult Image(string data, CustomActionResult result) { ViewData["data"] = data; return View(); } Ok. ActionMethod sucessfully executes...but when it's done (and usually expected obtain a reditection to a View named Image, like the action method), the WCF service throws a Timeout exception, making clear that he's still waiting for a response from the MVC client. The response never arrives, so the MVC app never finish his work (redirect to the "Image" view as expected). Any ideas?. Guess i'm missing something very simple, but i don't know what it could be. This is drivin' me nuts.

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  • Django: Create custom template tag -> ImportError

    - by Alexander Scholz
    I'm sorry to ask this again, but I tried several solutions from stack overflow and some tutorials and I couldn't create a custom template tag yet. All I get is ImportError: No module named test_tag when I try to start the server via python manage.py runserver. I created a very basic template tag (found here: django templatetag?) like so: My folder structure: demo manage.py test __init__.py settings.py urls.py ... templatetags __init__.py test_tag.py test_tag.py: from django import template register = template.Library() @register.simple_tag def test_tag(input): if "foo" == input: return "foo" if "bar" == input: return "bar" if "baz" == input: return "baz" return "" index.html: {% load test_tag %} <html> <head> ... </head> <body> {% cms_toolbar %} {% foobarbaz "bar" %} {% foobarbaz "elephant" %} {% foobarbaz "foo" %} </body> </html> and my settings.py: INSTALLED_APPS = ( ... 'test_tag', ... ) Please let me know if you need further information from my settings.py and what I did wrong so I can't even start my server. (If I delete 'test_tag' from installed apps I can start the server but I get the error that test_tag is not known, of course). Thanks

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  • Merging ILists to bind on datagridview to avoid using a database view

    - by P.Bjorklund
    In the form we have this where IntaktsBudgetsType is a poorly named enum that only specifies wether to populate the datagridview after customer or product (You do the budgeting either after product or customer) private void UpdateGridView() { bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = intaktsbudget.GetDataSource(this.comboBoxKundID.Text, IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund); dataGridViewIntaktPerKund.DataSource = bs; } This populates the datagridview with a database view that merge the product, budget and customer tables. The logic has the following method to get the correct set of IList from the repository which only does GetTable<T>.ToList<T> public IEnumerable<IntaktsBudgetView> GetDataSource(string id, IntaktsBudgetsType type) { IList<IntaktsBudgetView> list = repository.SelectTable<IntaktsBudgetView>(); switch (type) { case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerKund: return from i in list where i.kundId == id select i; case IntaktsBudgetsType.PerProdukt: return from i in list where i.produktId == id select i; } return null; } Now I don't want to use a database view since that is read-only and I want to be able to perform CRUD actions on the datagridview. I could build a class that acts as a wrapper for the whole thing and bind the different table values to class properties but that doesn't seem quite right since I would have to do this for every single thing that requires "the merge". Something pretty important (and probably basic) is missing the the thought process but after spending a weekend on google and in books I give up and turn to the SO community.

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  • HIbernate 3.5.1 - can I just drop in EHCache 2.0.1?

    - by caerphilly
    I'm using Hibernate 3.5.1, which comes with EHCache 1.5 bundled. If I want to use the latest EHCache release (2.0.1), is it just a matter of removing the ehcache-1.5.jar from my project, and replacing with ehcache-core-2.0.1.jar? Any issues to be aware of? Also - is a cache "region" in the Hibernate mapping file that same as a cache "name" in the ehcache configuration xml? What I want to do is define 2 named cache regions - one for read-only reference entities that won't change (lookup lists etc), and one for all other entities. So in ehcache I want to define two elements; <cache name="readonly"> ... </cache> <cache name="mutable"> ... </cache> And then in my Hibernate mapping files, I will specify the cache to be used for each entity: <hibernate-mapping> <class name="lookuplist"> <cache region="readonly" usage="read-only"/> <property> ... </property> </class> </hibernate-mapping> Will that work? Some of the documentation seems to imply that a separate region/cache gets created for each mapped class... Thanks.

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  • Can you override just part of a control template in silverlight

    - by mattmanser
    Is it possible to change or modify a specific part of a control template without having to recreate the entire control template of the control in the xaml? For example, I was trying to get rid of the border of a textbox, so I could throw together a basic search box with rounded corners (example xaml below). Setting the borderthickness to 0 works fine, until you mouse over the textbox and a pseudo border they added to the control flashes up. If I look at the controltemplate for the textbox, I can even see the visual state is named, but cannot think of how to disable it. Without overriding the control template of the TextBox, how would I stop the Visual State Manager firing the mouse over effect on the TextBox? <Border Background="White" CornerRadius="10" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" BorderThickness="3" BorderBrush="#88000000"> <Grid VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Width="200" Margin="5,0,0,0"> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition Width="16" /> <ColumnDefinition Width="*" /> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Path Height="13" Width="14" Stretch="Fill" Stroke="#FF000000" StrokeThickness="2" Data="M9.5,5 C9.5,7.4852815 7.4852815,9.5 5,9.5 C2.5147185,9.5 0.5,7.4852815 0.5,5 C0.5,2.5147185 2.5147185,0.5 5,0.5 C7.4852815,0.5 9.5,2.5147185 9.5,5 z M8.5,8.4999971 L13.5,12.499997" /> <TextBox GotFocus="TextBox_GotFocus" Background="Transparent" Grid.Column="1" BorderThickness="0" Text="I am searchtext" Margin="5,0,5,0" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" /> </Grid> </Border>

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  • GridView edit problem If primary key is editable (design problem)

    - by Nassign
    I would like to ask about the design of table based on it's editability in a Grid View. Let me explain. For example, I have a table named ProductCustomerRel. Method 1 CustomerCode varchar PK ProductCode varchar PK StoreCode varchar PK Quantity int Note text So the combination of the CustomerCode, StoreCode and ProductCode must be unique. The record is displayed on a gridview. The requirement is that you can edit the customer, product and storecode but when the data is saved, the PK constraint must still persist. The problem here is it would be natural for a grid to be able to edit the 3 primary key, you can only achieve the update operation of the grid view by first deleting the row and then inserting the row with the updated data. An alternative to this is to just update the table and add a SeqNo, and just enforce the unique constraint of the 3 columns when inserting and updating in the grid view. Method 2 SeqNo int PK CustomerCode varchar ProductCode varchar StoreCode varchar Quantity int Note text My question is which of the two method is better? or is there another way to do this?

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  • Member function overloading/template specialization issue

    - by Ferruccio
    I've been trying to call the overloaded table::scan_index(std::string, ...) member function without success. For the sake of clarity, I have stripped out all non-relevant code. I have a class called table which has an overloaded/templated member function named scan_index() in order to handle strings as a special case. class table : boost::noncopyable { public: template <typename T> void scan_index(T val, std::function<bool (uint recno, T val)> callback) { // code } void scan_index(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code } }; Then there is a hitlist class which has a number of templated member functions which call table::scan_index(T, ...) class hitlist { public: template <typename T> void eq(uint fieldno, T value) { table* index_table = db.get_index_table(fieldno); // code index_table->scan_index<T>(value, [&](uint recno, T n)->bool { // code }); } }; And, finally, the code which kicks it all off: hitlist hl; // code hl.eq<std::string>(*fieldno, p1.to_string()); The problem is that instead of calling table::scan_index(std::string, ...), it calls the templated version. I have tried using both overloading (as shown above) and a specialized function template (below), but nothing seems to work. After staring at this code for a few hours, I feel like I'm missing something obvious. Any ideas? template <> void scan_index<std::string>(std::string val, std::function<bool (uint recno, std::string val)> callback) { // code }

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  • Exemplars of large document-centric applications with COM/XPCOM/.NET interfaces.

    - by Warren P
    I am looking for exemplars (design examples) showing the use of interfaces (aka 'protocols' for you smalltalkers) to design a document management architecture in a large Word Processor, Spreadsheet, vector graphic or publishing package, or office-productivity (non-database) application with support for as many of the following as possible: any open source project, will be ideal, and language of implementation is unimportant since I am looking for design examples, however an object oriented language with support for "interfaces" is a must. I know at least a dozen languages, and I'm willing to study any application's source. use of "interface" could loosely be applied to either XPCOM or COM interfaces, or .NET interfaces, or even the use of pure-virtual (virtual+abstract) base-classes for OOP languages that lack the ability to declare an interface distinct from a class. I am mostly looking for a robust, thorough and flexible implementation for a document, IDocument, various document views (IDocumentView), and whatever operations make sense in that case. I am particular interested in cases where the product in question is a real-world product. For example, if anybody familiar with OpenOffice can tell me if the code contains a good sample design. I am looking for design documentation that outlines the design of the interfaces for such an application. So for example, if the openoffice spreadsheet has such an interface design, then that might be the best case, because it is a widely used real-world design, with millions of users, rather than a textbook example, which is minimal, and contrived. I know that the Mozilla platform uses XPCOM, and its design is heavily "interface" oriented, but I am looking more for a "word processor" or "spreadsheet" type of document design, rather than a web-browser. I am particularly interested in the interfaces used to access to data and meta-data such as markup (attributes like bold, and italics, and font size), and the ability to search and look up named entities within a document.

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  • Can't display image with Imageview on Android

    - by user1029167
    In my \drawable-mdpi folder, I have an image named: test.jpg In my main.xml file, in my LinearLayout section, I have: <ImageView android:id="@+id/test_image" android:src="@drawable/test" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> In my src folder, I have only 1 file, HelloAndroidActivity.java with only the following method: public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); ImageView image = new ImageView(this); image = (ImageView) findViewById(R.id.test_image); setContentView(image); } This seems to be correct, yet whenever I try to run it, I get The application HelloAndroid (process xxxxx) has stopped unexpectedly. Please try again. The strange part is it previously did display the image, but now it won't and I don't know why. Also, when I comment out the ImageDisplay code, and replace it with TextDisplay code. i.e. TextView tv = new TextView(this); tv.setText("Does this work?"); setContentView(tv); It does display the text. Edit: was asked to post logcat. Link to pastebin.

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  • Make a <div> disappear inside a javascript script

    - by KeenClock
    First of all, I have this line of code on a random page : <script type="text/javascript" src="script.php"></script> On the page named "script.php", I have a <div class="something">random text</div> and the random text is displayed and everything is working fine. Now, I would like to know if it's possible to make that specific <div> to disappear without having to modify the code inside the "script.php" page. Thank you ! Edit: Thank you to all of you, you helped me found a solution, here is an example : <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="fr" lang="fr"><head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=UTF-8" /> <title>Random page</title> <style type="text/css"> div.something { font-family: Tahoma; font-size: 12px; font-weight: bold; text-decoration: underline; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hideSomething() { document.getElementsByClassName("something")[2].style.display = "none"; } </script> </head> <body> <div class="something">random text 1</div> <div class="something">random text 2</div> <div class="something">random text 3</div> <br /><input type="submit" value="Disappear" onclick="hideSomething()" /> </body> </html>

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  • How to insert <li> element on <ul> using pure javascript

    - by Damiii
    I am having an issue with javascript and i don't know how to solve it ... Actually my code is working good with jsfiddle, but when i try to insert on my HTML page ,it simply doesnt work anymore ... What i want to, is to add the < li on < ul each time i tried to hit the button named "Add" ! HTML code: .... <td width="50%" valign="top"> <b> SUPER: </b> <ul id="ul"> </ul> </td> .... <input type="submit" value="Add" onclick="add()"/> .... JavaScript code: <script type="text/javascript"> function add(){ var ul = document.getElementById("ul"); var li = document.createElement("li"); li.innerHTML = "LoL"; ul.appendChild(li); } </script> The result with that code : it doesn't add anything on my HTML page when i try to hit the button... Thankfully,

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  • get_bookmarks() object doesn't return link_category

    - by ninja
    I'm trying to fetch all link-categories from the built in Wordpress linklist (or bookmarks if you will). To do this, I simply stored all links in a variable like this: <?php $lists = get_bookmarks(); foreach($lists as $list) { $cats[] = $list->link_category; } ?> To my surprise even var_dump'ing $cats gave me "String(0)", so I var_dump'ed out $lists instead, and it gave me this: array(8) { [0]=> object(stdClass)#5126 (13) { ["link_id"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_url"]=> string(27) "http://codex.wordpress.org/" ["link_name"]=> string(13) "Documentation" ["link_image"]=> string(0) "" ["link_target"]=> string(0) "" ["link_description"]=> string(0) "" ["link_visible"]=> string(1) "Y" ["link_owner"]=> string(1) "1" ["link_rating"]=> string(1) "0" ["link_updated"]=> string(19) "0000-00-00 00:00:00" ["link_rel"]=> string(0) "" ["link_notes"]=> string(0) "" ["link_rss"]=> string(0) "" } Now, codex.wordpress.org is a default link that comes with wordpress, it's in a category called "Linklist", and as you can see, the object contains everything about that link, EXCEPT the categoryname. According to the codex this object should contain a field named "link_category", so I'm getting confused here. Am I missing something? Is the function broke? Regards NINJA

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  • Array's index and argc signedness

    - by tusbar
    Hello, The C standard (5.1.2.2.1 Program startup) says: The function called at program startup is named main. [...] It shall be de?ned with a return type of int and with no parameters: int main(void) { /* ... */ } or with two parameters [...] : int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { /* ... */ } And later says: The value of argc shall be nonnegative. Why shouldn't argc be defined as an unsigned int, argc supposedly meaning 'argument count'? Should argc be used as an index for argv? So I started wondering if the C standard says something about the type of array's index. Is it signed? 6.5.2.1 Array subscripting: One of the expressions shall have type ‘‘pointer to object type’’, the other expression shall have integer type, and the result has type ‘‘type’’. It doesn't say anything about its signedness (or I didn't find it). It is pretty common to see codes using negatives array indexes (array[-1]) but isn't it undefined behavior? Should array's indexes be unsigned?

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  • How to get the Actual Link file location in VSS?

    - by Regi
    I use VSS and currently I am adding a link file using following code: int ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSNO; //Link in sourcesafe IVSSDatabase ssdb = GetVssDatabase(); Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType _sqlSubType = new Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType(); VSSItem SourceItem = ssdb.get_VSSItem(pSourceItemPath, false); //if source is a proj, recursively share the whole thing if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_PROJECT) ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSYES; VSSItem DestItem = ssdb..get_VSSItem(pDestItemPath, false); //share the item DestItem.Share(SourceItem, pComment, ShareFlags); if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_FILE) { bResult = true; } return bResult; This will works fine. My issue is that I need to find the actual link location. For example I have a Project named as Link and it contains 2 files say file1 and file2. I added a Link to my Working project (say CurrentProject). This current project have 2 files say f1 and f2. After sharing the Link project then we get the item in Current project as: $/CurrentProject/File1 $/CurrentProject/File2 $/CurrentProject/F1 $/CurrentProject/F2 Here File1 and File2 are link files. I need to get its parent (Actual) location i.e. $/Link/file1 and $/Link/File2 Is there any way to find Link files location using SourceSafeTypeLib?

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  • Dealing with image upload on server

    - by user1073320
    I have got a the following problem: I have got multi-step form where in one step user upload image to server and then few steps further supplies other information, when this information is invalid no data should be commited - also the image should be deleted. I was thinking about PHP session, but I've read here PHP - Store Images in SESSION data? that it is inefficient way. Every time you proceed step in the form the image is reloaded (in the session) and as somebody mentioned "You will want it to only be as big as it needs to be and you need to delete it as soon as you don't need it because large pieces of information in the session will slow down the session startup." - here i got a question: will it slow down the stratup the session of user who upload file or sessions of all users? I have to mention that I'm looking for solution that doesn't rely on operating system scripts (cron or etc) - I have no permission to run such scripts. The perfect solution for me would be: saving image on disk (for example in some folder named after session id) then after the latest step of form move this image or delete depending on form validation. If user unexpectedly destroy the session (for example closing the browser) of course the folder with image should be deleted. In nutshell I need somethig like callback to event "destroying session".

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  • Why does my plist file exist even when I've uninstalled an app and wiped the simulator?

    - by just_another_coder
    I am trying to detect the existence of a plist file on application start. When my data class (descendant of NSObject) is initialized, it loads the plist file. Before it loads, it checks to see if the file exists, and if it doesn't, it sets the data = nil instead of trying to process the array of data in the plist file. However, every time it starts it indicates the file exists. Even when I uninstall the app in the organizer and when wiping the simulator directory (iPhone Simulator/3.0/Applications). I have the following static method in a library class named FileIO: +(BOOL) fileExists:(NSString *)fileName { NSString *path = [FileIO getPath:fileName]; // gets the path to the docs directory if ([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:path]) return YES; else return NO; } In my data class: //if( [FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename] ) [FileIO deleteFile:kFavorites_Filename]; if ([FileIO fileExists:kFavorites_Filename]) {NSLog(@"exists"); The "exists" is logged every time unless I un-comment the method to delete the file. How can the file exist if I've deleted the app? I've deleted the simulator directory and uninstalled on the device but both say it still exists. What gives???

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  • Ways to access a 32bit DLL from a 64bit exe

    - by bufferz
    I have a project that must be compiled and run in 64 bit mode. Unfortunately, I am required to call upon a DLL that is only available in 32 bit mode, so there's no way I can house everything in a 1 Visual Studio project. I am working to find the best way to wrap the 32 bit DLL in its own exe/service and issue remote (although on the same machine) calls to that exe/service from my 64 bit app. My OS is Win7 Pro 64 bit. The required calls to this 32 bit process are several dozen per second, but low data volume. This is a realtime image analysis application so response time is critical despite low volume. Lots of sending/receiving single primitives. Ideally, I would host a WCF service to house this DLL, but in a 64 bit OS one cannot force the service to run as x86! Source. That is really unfortunate since I timed function calls to the WCF service to be only 4ms on my machine. I have experimented with named pipes is .net. I found them to be 40-50 times slower than WCF (unusable for me). Any other options or suggestions for the best way to approach my puzzle?

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  • Behavior of Struts2 and convention-plugin when there is Index(extends ActionSupport)

    - by hanishi
    We have an Action class named 'Index' immediately under com.example.common.action and is annotated @ParentPackage('default') which is declared in package directive in struts.xml and has "/" for its namespace and extends "struts-default". It also declares @Result so that it responses with jsp files corresponding the string values returned by its execute() method. In our struts.xml, the following struts setting is configured along with other necessary configurations that are needed for convention-plugin. <constant name="struts.action.extension" value=","/> When accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, the request apparently hits this Index class and the contents of the jsp declared in the Index's @Result section gets returned. However, if we provide /my_context/, we receive the following error: HTTP Status 404-There is no Action mapped for namespace[/] and action name [] associated with context path [/my_context]. We want to know the reason why accessing /my_context/none_existing_path, where none_existing_path has no matching action, can fallback to Index class, but error is returned when when the URL requested is just /my_context/. Currently, our convention-plugin settings are declared as follows: <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage" value="com.example"/> <constant name="struts.convention.package.locators" value="action"/> Strangely, if we changed the value of the struts.convention.package.locators.basePackage to om.example.common, in which the aforementioned Index file can be immediately found by narrowing the search scope, requesting /my_context/ displays the content of the jsps declared in @Result section of the Index class. However, as our action classes are distributed throughout the com.example.[a-z].action packages, where [a-z] represents the large volume of directories we have in our package structure, we cannot use this trick as a workaround. We have also tried placing index.jsp at the top level of the class path, and have the index.jsp redirect to /my_context/index, which worked but not what we want. Could this be a bug? We appreciate your responses. Thank you in advance. EDIT: JIRA registered, problem solved (from Struts 2.3.12 up)

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  • Programmatically Update UITableView in Response to Button Press

    - by Kyle Begeman
    I have a completely custom view that holds a UITableView and a Custom Tab Bar (basically a UIView that contains 6 UIButtons). I am loading data from a plist file, and then I am sorting the data into multiple arrays based on categories (an array for misc items, and array for mail items, etc.) Each button in the tab bar represents a category, and when I press the button I call the custom function "miscSelected" and so on. How can I have the table view completely reload and then display the tableview based on the array selected (select the misc category and the tableview clears itself and loads the misc array data, same for any other category)? The method I have experimented with is created and NSString named "selection" and then in each button function I set selected to equal whatever section I am selecting. In my cellForRoxAtIndexPath method I have this: if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"All Items"]) { NSArray *mainDataArray = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; NSSortDescriptor *brandDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [NSArray arrayWithObject:brandDescriptor]; self.sortedData = [mainDataArray sortedArrayUsingDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; } else if ([self.selection isEqualToString:@"Misc Items"]){ self.sortedData = [NSArray arrayWithContentsOfFile:self.plistFile]; } cell.itemTitle.text = [[self.sortedData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row] objectForKey:@"name"]; For the sake of example and testing I am simply displaying the same data, just one button displays it in alphabetical order and the other does not. This code works only when I start to scroll down and back up, but it does not actually update on button press. Calling myTable reloadData does not do anything either. Any help would be great, thanks!

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  • creating an object within a function of a program

    - by user1066524
    could someone please tell me what I need to do in order to create an object in a function. I will try to explain by making up some sort of example... Let's say I have a program named TimeScheduler.cpp that implements the class Schedule.h (and I have the implementation in a separate file Schedule.cpp where we define the methods). In the declaration file we have declared two constructors Schedule(); //the default and Schedule(int, int, int);//accepts three arguments to get to the point--let's say in the main program file TimeScheduler.cpp we created our own functions in this program apart from the functions inherited from the class Schedule. so we have our prototypes listed at the top. /*prototypes*/ void makeSomeTime(); etc..... we have main(){ //etc etc... } we then define these program functions void makeSomeTime(){ //process } let's say that inside the function makeSomeTime(), we would like to create an array of Schedule objects like this Schedule ob[]={ summer(5,14, 49), fall(9,25,50) }; what do I have to do to the function makeSomeTime() in order for it to allow me to create this array of objects. The reason I ask is currently i'm having difficulty with my own program in that it WILL allow me to create this array of objects in main()....but NOT in a function like I just gave an example of. The strange thing is it will allow me to create a dynamic array of objects in the function..... like Schedule *ob = new Schedule[n+1]; ob[2]= Schedule(x,y,z); Why would it let me assign to a non-dynamic array in main(), but not let me do that in the function?

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  • What is the fastest (to access) struct-like object in Python?

    - by DNS
    I'm optimizing some code whose main bottleneck is running through and accessing a very large list of struct-like objects. Currently I'm using namedtuples, for readability. But some quick benchmarking using 'timeit' shows that this is really the wrong way to go where performance is a factor: Named tuple with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = a.c", "from __main__ import a") 0.38655471766332994 Class using __slots__, with a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = b.c", "from __main__ import b") 0.14527461047146062 Dictionary with keys a, b, c: >>> timeit("z = c['c']", "from __main__ import c") 0.11588272541098377 Tuple with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = d[2]", "from __main__ import d") 0.11106188992948773 List with three values, using a constant key: >>> timeit("z = e[2]", "from __main__ import e") 0.086038238242508669 Tuple with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = d[key]", "from __main__ import d, key") 0.11187358437882722 List with three values, using a local key: >>> timeit("z = e[key]", "from __main__ import e, key") 0.088604143037173344 First of all, is there anything about these little timeit tests that would render them invalid? I ran each several times, to make sure no random system event had thrown them off, and the results were almost identical. It would appear that dictionaries offer the best balance between performance and readability, with classes coming in second. This is unfortunate, since, for my purposes, I also need the object to be sequence-like; hence my choice of namedtuple. Lists are substantially faster, but constant keys are unmaintainable; I'd have to create a bunch of index-constants, i.e. KEY_1 = 1, KEY_2 = 2, etc. which is also not ideal. Am I stuck with these choices, or is there an alternative that I've missed?

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  • Reading HTML header info of files via JS

    - by Morten Repsdorph Husfeldt
    I have a product list that is generated in ASP. I have product descriptions for each product in an HTML file. Each HTML file is named: <product.id>.html. Each HTML file size is only 1-3 kb. Within the HTML file is <title> and <meta name="description" content="..." />. I want to access these in an efficient way so that I can output this as e.g.: document.write(<product.id>.html.title);<br/> document.write(<product.id>.html.description); I have a working solution for the individual products, where I use the description file - but I hope to find a more efficient / simple approach. Preferably, I want to avoid having 30+ hidden iframes - Google might think that I am trying to tamper with search result and blacklist my page. Current code: <script type="text/javascript"> document.getElementById('produkt').onload = function(){ var d = window.frames[frame].document; document.getElementById('pfoto').title = d.title : ' '; document.getElementById('pfoto').alt = d.getElementsByName('description')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; var keywords = d.getElementsByName('keywords')[0].getAttribute('content', 0) : ' '; }; </script>

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  • Determine if a directory is empty, delete it if it is and delete that directroy name from a separate list. C-shell

    - by Kg123
    I have a directory named STA. Within that directory are about 600 other directories that have the format hh:mm:ss (for example 00:01:34). Within each of these sub-directories should be three files. I also have a file, 'waveformlist', (contained within STA) which is a list of all of these sub-directories i.e.: 00:01:34 00:02:35 etc. A lot of the sub-directories do not contain these three files and are instead empty. I want to run a C-shell script to go through every sub directory and check if it is empty. If it is empty I want to delete that sub directory from the main directory STA, and also remove that sub-directory name from the list 'waveformlist'. Below is my script so far. It does not recognize when the sub-directory is empty or not and does not like the rm $dir line. Also, I do not know how to go and remove the sub-directory name from 'waveformlist'. #!/bin/csh echo "Enter name of station folder to apply filter to as 'STA' e.g. APZ:" set ans = $< cd $ans set c=0 foreach dir (*:*) if ("${c}" == 0) then echo "Empty directory:" $dir rm $dir else echo ${dir} "has files" endif end I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you.

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  • Custom API requirement

    - by Jonathan.Peppers
    We are currently working on an API for an existing system. It basically wraps some web-requests as an easy-to-use library that 3rd party companies should be able to use with our product. As part of the API, there is an event mechanism where the server can call back to the client via a constantly-running socket connection. To minimize load on the server, we want to only have one connection per computer. Currently there is a socket open per process, and that could eventually cause load problems if you had multiple applications using the API. So my question is: if we want to deploy our API as a single standalone assembly, what is the best way to fix our problem? A couple options we thought of: Write an out of process COM object (don't know if that works in .Net) Include a second exe file that would be required for events, it would have to single-instance itself, and open a named pipe or something to communicate through multiple processes Extract this exe file from an embedded resource and execute it None of those really seem ideal. Any better ideas?

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  • Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection

    - by Tony_Henrich
    My web service app on my Windows XP box is trying to log in to my sql server 2005 database on the same box. The machine is part of a domain. I am logged in in the domain and I am an admin on my machine. I am using Windows Authentication in my connection string as in "Server=myServerAddress;Database=myDataBase;Trusted_Connection=True". SQLServer is configured for both types of authentication (mixed mode) and accepts remote connections and accepts tcp and named pipes protocols. Integrated authentication is enabled in IIS and with and without anonymous access. 'Everyone' has access to computer from network setting in local security settings. ASPNET is a user in the sql server and has access to the daatabase. user is mapped to the login. The app works fine for other developers which means the app shouldn't be changed (It's not new code). So it seems it's my machine which has an issue. I am getting the error "Login failed for user ''. The user is not associated with a trusted SQL Server connection" Note the blank user name. Why am I getting this error when both the app and database are on my machine? I can use SQL Server authentication but don't want to. I can connect to the database using SSMS and my Windows credentials. It might be related to setspn, kerberos, delegation, AD. I am not sure what further checks to make?

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