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• PHP doesn't properly URL-decode POST values, or is the bug somewhere else?

  - by Vilx-

  I have a PHP website that integrates with PayPal. As part of it's normal operation it sends a POST request to a user defined URL about every transaction (and some other events). It's called IPN for those who know. All was/is working just fine, until we moved to a new hosting provider last week. This naturally resulted in downtime, changing DNS entries, PHP misconfigurations, etc. In short - PayPal was unable to send the notifications for a few days. Now, this is not that bad, because there is an option just for that - you can log into PayPal, go to the appropriate menu item, and have it resend the failed notifications. Which we did, and it resulted in over 400 error emails. The problem is that normally the email of the receiver ($_POST['business']) is received by PHP as [email protected], but when resending it comes out as my%40business.com. And the request validation goes crazy. Obviously either something somewhere is missing a call to urldecode() or something is doing one too many urlencode(). But who? Is this a bug in PHP? I've never had such a problem before, not with any POST data ever. Perhaps PayPal has a bug? Wouldn't be surprising, but then this should have been caught ages ago. Or perhaps I'm doing something wrong and I should really be calling the urldecode() myself?

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• GlassFish Security Realm, Active Directory and Referral

  - by Allan Lykke Christensen

  I've setup up a Security Realm in Glassfish to authenticate against an Active Directory server. The configuration of the realm is as follows: Class Name: com.sun.enterprise.security.auth.realm.ldap.LDAPRealm JAAS context: ldapRealm Directory: ldap://172.16.76.10:389/ Base DN: dc=smallbusiness,dc=local search-filter: (&(objectClass=user)(sAMAccountName=%s)) group-search-filter: (&(objectClass=group)(member=%d)) search-bind-dn: cN=Administrator,CN=Users,dc=smallbusiness,dc=local search-bind-password: abcd1234! The realm is functional and I can log-in, but when ever I log in I get the following error in the log: SEC1106: Error during LDAP search with filter [(&(objectClass=group)(member=CN=Administrator,CN=Users,dc=smallbusiness,dc=local))]. SEC1000: Caught exception. javax.naming.PartialResultException: Unprocessed Continuation Reference(s); remaining name 'dc=smallbusiness,dc=local' at com.sun.jndi.ldap.LdapCtx.processReturnCode(LdapCtx.java:2820) .... .... ldaplm.searcherror While searching for a solution I found that it was recommended to add java.naming.referral=follow to the properties of the realm. However, after I add this it takes 20 minutes for GlassFish to authenticate against Active Directory. I suspect it is a DNS problem on the Active Directory server. The Active Directory server is a vanilla Windows Server 2003 setup in a Virtual Machine. Any help/recommendation is highly appreciated!

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• My AJAX is only firing once,

  - by sea_1987

  Hi There, I ahave some ajax that is fired when a checkbox is clicked, it essentially sends a query string to a PHP script and then returns the relevant HTML, however, if I select a select it works fine if I then slect another checkbox as well as the previous I get no activity what so ever, not even any errors in firebug, it is very curious, does anyone have any ideas? //Location AJAX //var dataObject = new Object(); var selected = new Array(); //alert(selected); $('#areas input.radio').change(function(){ // will trigger when the checked status changes var checked = $(this).attr("checked"); // will return "checked" or false I think. // Do whatever request you like with the checked status if(checked == true) { //selected.join('&'); selected = $('input:checked').map(function() { return $(this).attr('name')+"="+$(this).val(); }).get(); getQuery = selected.join('&')+"&location_submit=Next"; alert(getQuery); $.ajax({ type:"POST", url:"/search/location", data: getQuery, success:function(data){ //alert(getQuery); //console.log(data); $('body.secEmp').html(data); } }); } else { //do something to remove the content here alert($(this).attr('name')); } });

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• Django forms, inheritance and order of form fields

  - by Hannson

  I'm using Django forms in my website and would like to control the order of the fields. Here's how I define my forms: class edit_form(forms.Form): summary = forms.CharField() description = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextArea) class create_form(edit_form): name = forms.CharField() The name is immutable and should only be listed when the entity is created. I use inheritance to add consistency and DRY principles. What happens which is not erroneous, in fact totally expected, is that the name field is listed last in the view/html but I'd like the name field to be on top of summary and description. I do realize that I could easily fix it by copying summary and description into create_form and loose the inheritance but I'd like to know if this is possible. Why? Imagine you've got 100 fields in edit_form and have to add 10 fields on the top in create_form - copying and maintaining the two forms wouldn't look so sexy then. (This is not my case, I'm just making up an example) So, how can I override this behavior? Edit: Apparently there's no proper way to do this without going through nasty hacks (fiddling with .field attribute). The .field attribute is a SortedDict (one of Django's internal datastructures) which doesn't provide any way to reorder key:value pairs. It does how-ever provide a way to insert items at a given index but that would move the items from the class members and into the constructor. This method would work, but make the code less readable. The only other way I see fit is to modify the framework itself which is less-than-optimal in most situations. In short the code would become something like this: class edit_form(forms.Form): summary = forms.CharField() description = forms.CharField(widget=forms.TextArea) class create_form(edit_form): def __init__(self,*args,**kwargs): forms.Form.__init__(self,*args,**kwargs) self.fields.insert(0,'name',forms.CharField()) That shut me up :)

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• jQuery Countdown plugin and AJAX

  - by roman m

  I'm using jQuery Countdown plugin to implement a Countdown and call a webservice when timer expires. The problem is that I'm using AJAX on the page, and have to re-setup the Countdown on every AJAX request like so: var prm = Sys.WebForms.PageRequestManager.getInstance(); prm.add_endRequest(SetupTimer); /*Initial setup*/ $(document).ready(function() { SetupTimer(); }); function SetupTimer() { var serverTime = new Date(); var cutoffTime = new Date($("#<%= cutoffTime.ClientID %>").val()); serverTime.setHours(serverTime.getHours()); if (serverTime < cutoffTime) { $('#timer').countdown('destroy'); /*should work, but doesn't*/ $('#timer').countdown({ until: cutoffTime, serverTime: serverTime, onExpiry: OrderingEnded, format: 'yowdHMS' }); } else OrderingEnded(); } This, for some reason, creates a new instance of the Countdown on ever request, resulting in numerous calls to Webservice when Countdown expires. How do I make sure that only one instance of the Countdown exists at a time? EDIT found this in documentation, doesn't do it for me though $('#timer').countdown('destroy');

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• Weird response for controller.request.format.html? in Rails

  - by Tony

  In my main controller, I have this: class MainController < ApplicationController before_filter do |controller| logger.info "controller.request.format.html? = #{controller.request.format.html?}" logger.info "controller.request.format.fbml? = #{controller.request.format.fbml?}" controller.send :login_required if controller.request.format.html? controller.send :facebook_auth_required if controller.request.format.fbml? end As expected, I get "true" for the ...fbml? line if a request comes from Facebook (my facebooker gem automatically sets the format). However, I get "5" for the ...html? line if the request comes from Facebook. Why would a method with a ? ever return a "5"? Isn't that against Rails conventions? Also, I think "5" is considered true so this might mess up my filters. Still looking into that... Any ideas?

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• AS3 - Unloaded AVM1 swfs trace out as unloaded but memory is not freed for the AVM2 machine

  - by puppbits

  I have a large project built in as3. Part of its main functionality is to load and unload various as2 swfs. The problem is that the memory ins't free up once they are unloaded. I have access to the as2 swfs code base and destroyed all objects, stopped and killed timers, listeners, removed from stage, destroyed all the MovieClip.protoypes that were created. They look to be clean as far as the AS2 debugger show no remnants of the object after the destroy function is run. In AS3 i've closed the local connection, cleaned all references/listeners to the AVM1Movie and ran Loader.unloadAndStop(). The trace out in flex says the swf was unloaded but looking at windows task manager the memory usage never drops to when it was before the as2 swf was loaded. Each as2 swf can take up to 80 megs each time it's run so memory gets eaten up fast and loading and unloading a few as2 files. At this point if the AS2 swfs are unloaded the only thing that I can assume that could be left is MovieClip.prototype and/or _global, _root variables add during the AS2's run time. But i've gone through those and can't find anything else that might be sticking. Has anyone ever seen problems before with the AVM1 machine not freeing up its memory?

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• Silverlight client never calls WCF Service

  - by Doug Nelson

  Hi all, This one has me completed stumped. I have developed a silverlight application that calls back to WCF services ( it's a silverlight - basicHttpBinding) The site works perfectly fine from my development machine, but when it is deployed to the developement server. The application is delivered with the XAP just fine, but it never attempts to talk to the service. I have a service call in the bootstrapper so it should be calling this when the client starts up. The services are healthy. They can be browsed to and show the standard WCF service display. We have been through the bindings many times and everything seems to be ok. I have added an extensive amount of error handling for displaying any errors, but on this dev server, no service calls and no errors are being raised. Fiddler shows the page being loaded up, but my client never issues a call to the service. The service is in the same folder as the default.aspx which hosts the Silverlight client. This is a Silverlight 3.0 app. Anybody ever seen anything similar?

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• Javascript :(….. Oh!! So its jquery? Now what?? I’m a C# Guy

  - by Shekhar_Pro

  Hi guys I want you to Guide me here. This other day I was working out some AJAX for my ASP.Net website and handling client side code in Java was taking the hell out of me. Then I got my hands on this Book jQuery In Action 2nd Edition and solved my problem with the help of Example code in the book. Now as I checked the contents I got an overview that whatever I had ever thought of doing can be done by this jQuery so easily and quite cleanly. I am actually pretty new to web development (say abt 4months ) and from C# world where we have cool libraries and Simple and Elegant coding style. (yeah including those generic, Ienumerable, lambadas, chained statements.. you got it…) and you know what you’re doing when writing some code. And we have so great IntelliSense to care., and above all we have everything Strongly Typed. But in Javascript everything is so messy.. . (and I don’t know why they are not properly indented.. see page source ) Now tell me what should I do, go straight with jQuery or should I first learn Javascript (like a disciplined boy…I even have a book for that too… got in gift :) …. ) I have seen Is it a good idea to learn JavaScript before learning jQuery? but remember I have already got a project on my hand…

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• DataTableReader is invalid for current DataTable 'TempTable'

  - by Sk93

  Hi, I'm getting the following error whenever my code creates a DataTableReader from a valid DataTable Object: "DataTableReader is invalid for current DataTable 'TempTable'." The thing is, if I reboot my machine, it works fine for an undertimed amount of time, then dies with the above. The code that throws this error could have been working fine for hours and then: bang. you get this error. It's not limited to one line either; it's every single location that a DataTableReader is used. Also, this error does NOT occur on the production web server - ever. This is an example of one of the lines where it falls over: If I step over this line, I get this: However, if I do this in the immediate window: I get no problems. Same goes if I actually use that line in the code. This has been driving me nuts for the best part of a week, and I've failed to find anything on Google that could help (as I'm pretty positive this isn't a coding issue). Some technical info: DEV Box: Vista 32bit (with all current windows updates) Visual Studio 2008 v9.0.30729.1 SP dotNet Framework 3.5 SP1 SQL Server: Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition- 9.00.4035.00 (X64) Windows 2003 64bit (with all current windows updates) Web Server: Windows 2003 64bit (with all current windows updates) any help, ideas, or advice would be greatly appreciated! Cheers, Ian

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• Why AQTime slows execution even when profiling is not on, and can anything be done for it?

  - by Antti Suni

  Hi! In AQTime for Delphi, it boasts to be very fast to get to the trouble spots by using areas and triggers etc. But it seems to me, that especially if you have very much code in the areas to profile, then the execution slows down dramatically even when the profiling is NOT on. For example, if I want to profile a specific routine late in the program flow, but don't know what is called there, I'd think to put this routine only as a trigger and the initial status for threads as Off, and then choose "Full check by Routines/Lines". However, when I do this, the program execution slows down heavily already before the trigger routine has ever been hit. For example if the "preparation flow" takes around 5 minutes without AQTime, then when I run it with profiling disabled, it already has been running for 30 minutes and still goes even when I know the trigger has not yet even been reached. I know I can try to workaround this by reducing the amount of routines/lines profiled, but it is not really a good solution for me, since I'd like to profile all of them once I get to the actual trigger routine. Also another, often better workaround is to start the application without AQTime and then use Attach to Process after the "preparation flow" has finished, but this works well only when the execution pauses in GUI in the proper place or otherwise provides a suitable time frame for doing the attaching. In all cases this is not the case. Any comments on why this is so and is there anything else to do than just try to reduce the code from the areas or attach later to the process?

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• 2 questions. IDO mode not caching properly / forcing buffers to named windows.

  - by user112043

  1 My ido mode does not properly cache filenames / folders. It will list files inside a folder, but from a while ago without any of the newer files showing. Any suggestions ? 2 In jde, when I have multiple windows open, compiling on one window will create a corresponding "* name of the class *" that will open on the next window in order. This is fine if I only have one window open but can I get some help writing a function that I could use to : Name a window Force all buffers of JDE compile server to only ever open in that window if it exists Force all run windows from jde in the form of * name of the class * to open in the same window if it exists. Jde automatically names the buffer " * name of the class * ", I will probably dig around the codes to find an easy fix for that... so if the code could just force all windows using a regexp containing * jde run - filename * or something along the lines would also work. Thanks for your help, first post here as well. I really would like just some ideas on what may be going wrong with 1, 2 if anyone is feeling kind.

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• Land of Lisp example question

  - by cwallenpoole

  I've read a lot of good things about Land of Lisp so I thought that I might go through it to see what there was to see. (defun tweak-text (lst caps lit) (when lst (let ((item (car lst)) (rest (cdr lst))) (cond ; If item = space, then call recursively starting with ret ; Then, prepend the space on to the result. ((eq item #\space) (cons item (tweak-text rest caps lit))) ; if the item is an exclamation point. Make sure that the ; next non-space is capitalized. ((member item '(#\! #\? #\.)) (cons item (tweak-text rest t lit))) ; if item = " then toggle whether we are in literal mode ((eq item #\") (tweak-text rest caps (not lit))) ; if literal mode, just add the item as is and continue (lit (cons item (tweak-text rest nil lit))) ; if either caps or literal mode = true capitalize it? ((or caps lit) (cons (char-upcase item) (tweak-text rest nil lit))) ; otherwise lower-case it. (t (cons (char-downcase item) (tweak-text rest nil nil))))))) (the comments are mine) (FYI -- the method signature is (list-of-symbols bool-whether-to-caps bool-whether-to-treat-literally) but the author shortened these to (lst caps lit).) But anyway, here's the question: This has (cond... (lit ...) ((or caps lit) ...)) in it. My understanding is that this would translate to if(lit){ ... } else if(caps || lit){...} in a C style syntax. Isn't the or statement redundant then? Is there ever a condition where the (or caps lit) condition will be called if caps is nil?

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• How does FallbackValue work with a MultiBiding?

  - by Will

  I ask because it doesn't seem to work. Assume we're binding to the following object: public class HurrDurr { public string Hurr {get{return null;}} public string Durr {get{return null;}} } Well, it would appear that if we used a MultiBinding against this the fallback value would be shown, right? <TextBlock> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="{}{0} to the {1}" FallbackValue="Not set! It works as expected!)"> <Binding Path="Hurr"/> <Binding Path="Durr"/> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> However the result is, in fact, " to the ". Even forcing the bindings to return DependencyProperty.UnsetValue doesn't work: <TextBlock xmnlns:base="clr-namespace:System.Windows;assembly=WindowsBase"> <TextBlock.Text> <MultiBinding StringFormat="{}{0} to the {1}" FallbackValue="Not set! It works as expected!)"> <Binding Path="Hurr" FallbackValue="{x:Static base:DependencyProperty.UnsetValue}" /> <Binding Path="Durr" FallbackValue="{x:Static base:DependencyProperty.UnsetValue}" /> </MultiBinding> </TextBlock.Text> </TextBlock> Tried the same with TargetNullValue, which was also a bust all the way around. So it appears that MultiBinding will never ever use FallbackValue. Is this true, or am I missing something?

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• HTTPService/ResultEvent with Flex 3.2 versus Flex >= 3.5

  - by Julian

  Hey everybody, through a design decission or what-so-ever Adobe changed the content of the ResultEvent fired by a HTTPService Object. Take a look at following example: var httpService:HTTPService = myHTTPServices.getResults(); httpService.addEventListener(ResultEvent.RESULT,resultHandler); httpService.send(); /** * Handels the login process */ function resultHandler(event:ResultEvent):void { // get http service var httpService = (event.target as HTTPService); // do something } It works like a charm with Flex 3.2. But when I try to compile it with Flex 3.5 or Flex 4.0 event.target as HTTPService is null. I figured out that event.target is now an instance of HTTPOperation. That is interesting because I can't find HTTPOperation in the langref. However, I think what Flash Builder's debugger means is mx.rpc.http.Operation. The debugger also shows that event.target has a private attribute httpService which is the instance I expected to get with event.target. But it's private, so event.target.httpService doesn't work. If I only want to remove the EventListener I can cast event.target as EventDispatcher. But I need to use methods from HTTPService. So: How can I get the HTTPService instance from the ResultEvent? Any help would be appreciated. Thanks! J.

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• htaccess mod_rewrite check file/directory existence, else rewrite?

  - by devians

  I have a very heavy htaccess mod_rewrite file that runs my application. As we sometimes take over legacy websites, I sometimes need to support old urls to old files, where my application processes everything post htaccess. My ultimate goal is to have a 'Demilitarized Zone' for old file structures, and use mod rewrite to check for existence there before pushing to the application. This is pretty easy to do with files, by using: RewriteCond %{IS_SUBREQ} true RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond %{ENV:REDIRECT_STATUS} 200 RewriteRule .* - [L] RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] This allows pseudo support for relative urls by not hardcoding my base path (I cant assume I will ever be deployed in document root) anywhere and using subrequests to check for file existence. Works fine if you know the file name, ie http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/index.html However, my legacy urls are typically http://domain.com/path/to/app/legacyfolder/ Mod_Rewrite will allow me to check for this by using -d, but it needs the complete path to the directory, ie RewriteCond Public/DMZ/$1 -F [OR] RewriteCond /var/www/path/to/app/Public/DMZ/$1 -d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ Public/DMZ/$1 [QSA,L] I want to avoid the hardcoded base path. I can see one possible solutions here, somehow determining my path and attaching it to a variable [E=name:var] and using it in the condition. Another option is using -U, but the tricky part is stopping it from hijacking every other request when they should flow through, since -U is really easy to satisfy. Any implementation that allows me to existence check a directory is more than welcome. I am not interested in using RewriteBase, as that requires my htaccess to have a hardcoded base path.

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• Would OpenID or OAuth work for authorization/authentication on a distributed web service?

  - by David Eyk

  We're in the early stages of designing a RESTful/resource-oriented web service API for a computational lingustics application. Because many of the resources we plan to serve are rights-encumbered, a key design decision has been to specify the platform so that each resource provider can expose their own web service that complies with the API spec. This way, the rights owner maintains control over their content (and thus the ability to throttle or deny access at will) and a direct relationship with the consumer, while still being able to participate in in the collaborative network. At the same time, to simplify the job of writing a client for this service, we want to allow a client access to the distributed service through one end-point, with the server handling content negotiation and retrieval from the appropriate providers. Right now, we're at an impasse on authentication/authorization schemes. One of our number has argued for the (technical) simplicity of a central authentication registry, but others are concerned about the organizational complexity of such a scheme. It seems to me, based on an albeit limited understanding of the technologies, that a combination of OpenID and OAuth would do the trick, with a client authenticating with the end-point via OpenID, and the server taking action on the user's behalf with the various content providers using OAuth. I've only ever seen implementations (e.g. stackoverflow, twitter, etc.) where a human was present to intervene, and I still need to do more research on these technologies. Would a scheme like this work for an automated web service, or would it make the client too difficult to implement and operate?

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• How do I dynamically create a document for download in Javascript?

  - by Nelson

  I'm writing some Javascript code that generates an XML document in the client (via Google Earth plugin). I'd like the user to be able to click a button on the page and be prompted to save that XML to a new file. If I were generating the XML server-side this would be easy, just make the button open the link. But the XML is generated client-side. I've come up with a couple of hacks that half-work, inspired in part by this StackOverflow question. But neither completely work. Here's a demo HTML with embedded code: <html><head><script> function getData() { return '<?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><doc>Hello</doc>'; } function dlDataURI() { window.open("data:text/xml;charset=utf-8," + getData()); } function dlWindow() { var w = window.open(); w.document.open(); w.document.write(getData()); w.document.close(); } </script><body> <div onclick="dlDataURI()">Click for Data URL</div> <div onclick="dlWindow()">Click for Window</div> </body></html> The dlDataURI() version works great in Firefox, poorly in Chrome (can't save), and not at all in IE. The Window() version works OK in Firefox and IE, and not well in Chrome (can't save, XML embedded inside HTML). Neither version ever prompts a user download, it always opens a new window trying to display the XML. Is there a good way to do what I want in client side Javascript? I'd like this to work in today's browsers, ideally Firefox, MSIE 8, and Chrome.

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• IIS 7.5 refuses to load 64-bit assembly - possible CAS problem?

  - by Rune

  Hi, I just downloaded the Orchard CMS, opened it up in VS2008 and hit F5: Everything runs fine. I then created a website in IIS 7.5 and pointed it to the web project's directory and set up permissions correctly (I hope). I downloaded the 64-bit version System.Data.SQLite as suggested here: Orchard Work Item 14798 and here: SO: Could not load file or assembly 'System.Data.SQLite'. The site runs in Full Trust. When I point my browser to the site running through IIS I get Could not load file or assembly 'System.Data.SQLite, Version=1.0.65.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=db937bc2d44ff139' or one of its dependencies. Failed to grant minimum permission requests. I don't know much about Code Access Security (if that is even what's at play here), so I am at a loss here. What am I doing wrong / not understanding / not seeing? How do I provide appropriate permissions and to whom / what? Is there any hope of ever deploying this application to a hoster where I am only allowed to run in Medium Trust? Any help, pointers or suggestions would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. NOTE: the question is not why this initially worked when run through Cassini. The answer to that question is contained in the answer to the SO question referenced above.

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• Resize transparent images using C#

  - by MartinHN

  Does anyone have the secret formula to resizing transparent images (mainly GIFs) without ANY quality loss - what so ever? I've tried a bunch of stuff, the closest I get is not good enough. Take a look at my main image: http://www.thewallcompany.dk/test/main.gif And then the scaled image: http://www.thewallcompany.dk/test/ScaledImage.gif //Internal resize for indexed colored images void IndexedRezise(int xSize, int ySize) { BitmapData sourceData; BitmapData targetData; AdjustSizes(ref xSize, ref ySize); scaledBitmap = new Bitmap(xSize, ySize, bitmap.PixelFormat); scaledBitmap.Palette = bitmap.Palette; sourceData = bitmap.LockBits(new Rectangle(0, 0, bitmap.Width, bitmap.Height), ImageLockMode.ReadOnly, bitmap.PixelFormat); try { targetData = scaledBitmap.LockBits(new Rectangle(0, 0, xSize, ySize), ImageLockMode.WriteOnly, scaledBitmap.PixelFormat); try { xFactor = (Double)bitmap.Width / (Double)scaledBitmap.Width; yFactor = (Double)bitmap.Height / (Double)scaledBitmap.Height; sourceStride = sourceData.Stride; sourceScan0 = sourceData.Scan0; int targetStride = targetData.Stride; System.IntPtr targetScan0 = targetData.Scan0; unsafe { byte* p = (byte*)(void*)targetScan0; int nOffset = targetStride - scaledBitmap.Width; int nWidth = scaledBitmap.Width; for (int y = 0; y < scaledBitmap.Height; ++y) { for (int x = 0; x < nWidth; ++x) { p[0] = GetSourceByteAt(x, y); ++p; } p += nOffset; } } } finally { scaledBitmap.UnlockBits(targetData); } } finally { bitmap.UnlockBits(sourceData); } } I'm using the above code, to do the indexed resizing. Does anyone have improvement ideas?

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• Maintain aspect ratio on browser window resize?

  - by Anthony

  I have a simple page with images, and when the user clicks the image, it opens up a new browser window with the image filling the area. I have the css set on the new window so that the image height and width are both 100% (and overflow is set to hidden) so that the window can be resized. But what I need is for the window to maintain aspect ratio if the user resizes it. Right now, I'm stuck because I'm not getting how the event works, but I think I'm making this harder than it needs to be. Right now I have: $(function(){ $(window).resize(function() { var height = $(this).attr("innerHeight"); var width = $(this).attr("innerWidth"); if(height/width != .75){ window.resizeTo(width,width*.75); } }); }); Before I added the conditional, the window would immediately start shrinking (apparently opening a new window fires the resize event). Adding the conditional preventing this from happening when the window opens, but any resizing starts the shrinking again. Is it just because the height and width are never exactly the right ratio (should I manually set the width to a round number ever time) or is there something else I'm doing wrong? Or is there some other way to get what I'm after that's more straightforward?

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• Shell script to decrypt and move files from one directory to another?

  - by KittyYoung

  So, I have a directory, and in it are several files. I'm trying to decrypt those files and then move them to another directory. I can't seem to figure out how to set the output filename and move it. So, the directory structure looks like this: /Applications/MAMP/bin/decryptandmove.sh /Applications/MAMP/bin/passtext.txt /Applications/MAMP/bin/encrypted/test1.txt.pgp /Applications/MAMP/bin/encrypted/test2.txt.pgp /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/www/decrypted/ For all of the files found in the encrypted directory, I'm trying to decrypt it and then move them into www/decrypted/. I don't know what the filenames in the encrypted directory will be ahead of time (this script will eventually run via cron), so I wanted to just output the decrypted file with the same filename, but without the pgp. So, the result would be: /Applications/MAMP/bin/decryptandmove.sh /Applications/MAMP/bin/passtext.txt /Applications/MAMP/bin/encrypted/ /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/decrypted/test1.txt.pgp /Applications/MAMP/htdocs/decrypted/test2.txt.pgp So, this is all I have so far, and it doesn't work... FILE and FILENAME are both wrong... I haven't even gotten to the moving part of it yet.... Help? I've written exactly one shell script ever, and it was so simple, a monkey could have done it... Feeling out of depth here... pass_phrase=`cat passtext.txt|awk '{print $1}'` for FILE in '/Applications/MAMP/bin/encrypted/'; do FILENAME=$(basename $FILE .pgp) gpg --passphrase $pass_phrase --output $FILENAME --decrypt $FILE done

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• how to restrict a jsp hit counter?

  - by user261002

  I am writing a hot counter in jsp, for my coursework. I have write the code, and there is not error and its working, but the problem is that: if the user have open the website and try to user different page, when ever that the user get back to the home page the counter still is adding a number , how can I restrict this part??? shall restrict it with session?? this is my code : The current count for the counter bean is: <% counter.saveCount(); int _numberofvisitors=counter.getVisitorsNumber(); out.println(_numberofvisitors); % Bean: package counter; import java.sql.*; import java.sql.SQLException; public class CounterBean implements java.io.Serializable { int coun = 0; public CounterBean() { database.DatabaseManager.getInstance().getDatabaseConnection(); } public int getCoun() { return this.coun; } public void setCoun(int coun) { this.coun += coun; } public boolean saveCount() { boolean _save = false; database.SQLUpdateStatement sqlupdate = new database.SQLUpdateStatement("counter", "hitcounter"); sqlupdate.addColumn("hitcounter", getCoun()); if (sqlupdate.Execute()) { _save = true; } return _save; } public int getVisitorsNumber() throws SQLException { int numberOfVisitors = 0; if (database.DatabaseManager.getInstance().connectionOK()) { database.SQLSelectStatement sqlselect = new database.SQLSelectStatement("counter", "hitcounter", "0"); ResultSet _userExist = sqlselect.executeWithNoCondition(); if (_userExist.next()) { numberOfVisitors = _userExist.getInt("hitcounter"); } } return numberOfVisitors; } }

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• Alternatives to decompiling MS Access MDE files

  - by booyaa

  I've been tasked with finding a suitable tool to decompile MDE files. The MDEs were created by staff who have since left (familar story eh?) and we do not have access to the originally MDB files. The reason we need access to the original code is that the data source is changing (the backend as well as some of the table and queries) and we need a way to update queries. An example of a change, in a SELECT statement where is the WHERE clause looks for zero as a string ("0") rather than an integer. I'm aware that unless you use the services of people like EverythingAccess.com its unlikely you will ever get the source code back. My main query is to ask for alternative methods to decompiling code. An example of the kinds of methods I'm thinking about is to spy on the traffic between the app the the ODBC DSN using tcpdump. I might then be able to write code to translate the data source queries between the old and new systems. Ideally I'd prefer a solution that is application centric rather than one that analyses all network traffic. I should add one caveat, no doubt most of you are thinking the best solution is to rewrite the code, based on its perceived functionality. This is the option we're not considering (at the moment).

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• How do you determine subtype of an entity using Inheritance with Entity Framework 4?

  - by KallDrexx

  I am just starting to use the Entity Framework 4 for the first time ever. So far I am liking it but I am a bit confused on how to correctly do inheritance. I am doing a model-first approach, and I have my Person entity with two subtype entities, Employee and Client. EF is correctly using the table per type approach, however I can't seem to figure out how to determine what type of a Person a specific object is. For example, if I do something like var people = from p in entities.Person select p; return people.ToList<Person>(); In my list that I form from this, all I care about is the Id field so i don't want to actually query all the subtype tables (this is a webpage list with links, so all I need is the name and the Id, all in the Persons table). However, I want to form different lists using this one query, one for each type of person (so one list for Clients and another for Employees). The issue is if I have a Person entity, I can't see any way to determine if that entity is a Client or an Employee without querying the Client or Employee tables directly. How can I easily determine the subtype of an entity without performing a bunch of additional database queries?

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