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  • If Statements Skipping or Evaluating Strangely, JavaScript and jquery

    - by tlm2021
    So in jQuery, I have a global variable "currentSubNav" that stores a current visible element. The following code executes on "mouseenter". I need it to get store element's ID, check to see if there was one. If there wasn't, set the new visible element to the default. $('#mainMenu a').mouseenter(function() { var newName = $(this).attr("id"); if(newName == ''){ var newName = "default"; } Then it checks to see if the new element matches the current one. If so, it returns. If not, it performs the animations to bring in the new one. if(newName == currentSubNav){ return; }else{ $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "+=600px", "opacity": "toggle"}, "slow"); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").css({"margin-top": "0"}); $("div[name=" + newName + "]").fadeIn(2000); $("div[name=" + currentSubNav + "]").animate({"left": "-=600px"}, 0); currentSubNav = newName; return; } }); I'm using Chrome at the moment, and according to the dev tools that isn't what happens. Problem #1 "$(this).attr("id");" isn't returning undefined as the documentation claims. It seems to be returning "". BUT, when I have the if statement as I do above, it skips over the statement entirely. I set a breakpoint, but it never pauses execuation, so the statement is never evaluated. Problem #2 After the animations occur, instead of using the return at the end of the statements it goes back and uses the return for the "newName == currentSubNav" if statement. I guess that not a big deal, but it's not the intended behavior. I'm fairly new to JavaScript, and it appears I'm missing something about how JavaScript works. But I can't find what anywhere. Any help? Blockquote

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  • Regularly update database without browser/user

    - by Chris M
    I currently have a MySQL database which I was hoping to use to store regularly updated data from a temperature sensor connected to the internet. I currently have a page that, when opened, will grab the current temperature and the current timestamp and add it as an entry to the database, but I was looking for a way to do that without me refreshing the page every 5 seconds. Detail: The data comes from an Arduino Ethernet, posted to an IP address. Currently, I'm using cURL to grab the data from the IP, add a timestamp and save it to the DB. Obviously only updates when the page is refreshed (it uses PHP). Here is a live feed of the data - http://wetdreams.org.uk/ChrisProject/UI/live_graph_two.html TL;DR - Basically I need a middle man to grab the data from the IP and post it to a MySQL Edit: Thanks for all the advice. There might be a little bit of confusion, I'm looking for a solution that (ideally) doesn't require a computer to be on at all (other than the Server containing Database). Since I'm looking to store data over long periods of time (weeks), I'd like to set it up and leave a script running on the server (or Arduino) that gets the temp and posts it to the Database. In my head I would like to have a page on the server that automatically (without any browser open, or any other prompting other than a timer) calls a PHP script. Hope that clears things up!

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  • gwt get array button value

    - by graybow
    My gwt project have flexTable show data of image and button on each row and coll. But my button won't work properly. this is my current code: private Button[] b = new Button[]{new Button("a"),...,new Button("j")}; private int z=0; ... public void UpdateTabelGallery(JsArray str){ for(int i=0; i str.length(); i++){ b[i].setText(str.gettitle()); UpdateTabelGallery(str.get(i)); } } public void UpdateTabelGallery(GalleryData str){ Image img = new Image(); img.setUrl(str.getthumburl()); HTML himage= new HTML("a href="+str.geturl()+""+ img +"/a" + b[z] ); TabelGaleri.setWidget(y, x, himage); //is here th right place? b[z].addClickHandler(new ClickHandler(){ @Override public void onClick(ClickEvent event) { Window.alert("I wan to show the clicked button text" + b[z].getText()); } }); z++; } I'm still confuse where I should put my button handler. With this current code seems the clickhandler didn't work inside a looping. And if I put it outside loop its not working because I need to know which button clicked. I need to get my index button.but how? Is there any option than array button? thanks

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  • How to use App.Xaml's ResourseDictionaries with own entry point

    - by Polaris
    Hello friends. I created some logic for singleInstance application and I must to use my own entry point (not App.xaml) for Application. I have some styles in App.xaml which now is not working. How can I use this ResourceDictionaries from my App.xaml for entire project in my situation? My class for manage Application Startup public class SingleInstanceManager : WindowsFormsApplicationBase { App app; public SingleInstanceManager() { this.IsSingleInstance = true; } protected override bool OnStartup(Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.StartupEventArgs e) { try { // First time app is launched app = new App(); App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = e.CommandLine; //IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Run(); return false; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); return false; } } protected override void OnStartupNextInstance(StartupNextInstanceEventArgs eventArgs) { // Subsequent launches base.OnStartupNextInstance(eventArgs); Intro win = (Intro)app.MainWindow; if (eventArgs != null) { App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = eventArgs.CommandLine[0]; } IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Activate(); } } and my own Entry Point: public class EntryPoint { [STAThread] public static void Main(string[] args) { SingleInstanceManager manager = new SingleInstanceManager(); manager.Run(args); } } And my App.Xaml code behind: public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(System.Windows.StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); // Create and show the application's main window Intro window = new Intro(); window.Show(); } public void Activate() { // Reactivate application's main window this.MainWindow.Activate(); } } And my App.xaml has some code which decribe ResourceDictionaries which doesnt work. Why?

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  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

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  • Dynamic control click event not firing properly

    - by Wil
    I'm creating a next/previous function for my repeater using pageddatasource. I added the link button control dynamically in my oninit using the following code. LinkButton lnkNext = new LinkButton(); lnkNext.Text = "Next"; lnkNext.Click += new EventHandler(NextPage); if (currentPage != objPagedDataSource.PageCount) { pnlMain.Controls.Add(lnkNext); } So in my initial page_load, the next link comes up fine. There are 5 pages in my objPagedDataSource. currentPage variable is 1. The "NextPage" event handler looks like this public void NextPage(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies["PageNum"] == null) { HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie("PageNum"); cookie.Value = "1"; } else { HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies["PageNum"]; cookie.Value = (Convert.ToInt32(cookie.Value) + 1).ToString(); } this.BindRepeater(); } So I am incrementing the cookie I am using to track the page number and then rebinding the repeater. Here is the main issue. The first time I click Next, it works, it goes to Page 2 without any problems. When on Page 2, I click Next, it goes back to Page 1. Seems like the Next event is not wiring up properly. Not sure why, any ideas?

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  • HeadJS ready for both document and script

    - by Yashua
    Current code: head.ready(function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); It will sometimes fail with error that $ is not ready. I have loaded jquuery earlier with the label 'jquery'. Neither of these work: head.ready(document, function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); head.ready('jquery', function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); I would like to not do this if possible: head.ready(document, function() { head.ready('jquery', function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); }); And also avoid refactoring current code to place that snippet at bottom of body though that I think may be the solution. Is it possible with HeadJS to define a ready call() using head.ready(), that is not placed at the bottom, that will wait for both a labeled script and the DOM to be loaded? UPDATE: the nested script doesn't actually work. I think the inner one erases/superseds the other :(

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  • Mgmt wants to re-title my position: Any help...? [closed]

    - by JohnFlyTN
    Management here wants to re-title my position, since I'm doing quite a bit of different work than was originally planned. They want my input. After a quick glance over my skill set and job duties, what would we need to describe this position as? I'll just list things I'm at least proficient in, I will not list things I have a passing knowledge of. About me : ~10 years software development. Languages : C, C++, Perl, PHP, C#, TCL, Unix shell scripting, SQL (TSQL, PLSQL) Systems : MS-Dos, Windows 3.1 to 7 for client, NT 4 to 2008 for server, OS/2, IBM MVS & z/OS, Linux ( multiple distros), AIX Current position: I do all sorts of in-house software. The range is single user apps to large systems spanning multiple OS's. One of the larger projects I've designed and coded is about 100k lines of C#, and a database where I have been the sole designer and maintainer. I have near total freedom to design as I see fit, restraints are usually budgetary. Skills required to replace me in my current role: Windows and Unix admin, Database design, .NET up to 3.5 (C#, ASP.NET), C++, Perl, good skills in designing large and efficient data processing systems. Given this small level of information what would you see this as being titled? (is more information required to render a decision?)

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  • Changing a Select dropdown with a jquery ui slider

    - by Chris J. Lee
    Trying to set a select dropdown with a slider. You move the jquery ui slider and then it will change the selection of the other two dropdowns. is there a current method in jquery that would set these options? Current dropdown: <select id="alert-options-frequency-opts"> <option value=""></option> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> <option value="4">4</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="6">6</option> <option value="7">7</option> <option value="8">8</option> <option value="9">9</option> <option value="10">10</option> </select>

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  • How to change the handler position by dragging/single click on the slider

    - by Geetha
    Hi All, I am using the following files to create a slider. Problem:Needs double click to change the handler position first click: it move the handler but the following code is not working. a second later it return back to the previous position. second click on the handler in new position, before it moves back the following code is working. Needs: I want change the media player current position with the handler current position value by dragging the handler or single click on the new position of the slider. Ex: initial position of the handler: l-------------------------------- document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition = 0 After dragging it some other position ----------------------l---------- document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition = 125 Code: var endTime = document.mediaPlayer.SelectionEnd; $("#slider-constraints").slider({ animate: true, max: endTime, range: $R(0, endTime), value: 1, enforceConstraints: false, start:function(event,index){document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition=index.value; $('#slider-constraints').slider("constraints", [0, index.value]); $('#slider-constraints').slider("value", index.value);} }); window.setInterval(function() { $('#slider-constraints').slider("value", document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition); }, 4000);

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  • Detectig by how much user has scrolled

    - by Sean
    I have an image pop-up ability on my website (see this screenshot), in order to show users the full resolution picture when they click on a smaller version on the page. This is the current CSS that positions it: div#enlargedImgWrapper { position: absolute; top: 30px; left: 55px; z-index: 999; } The problem now is that if I click on an image further down the page, the window still appears in the top left corner of the page, where I can't see it until I scroll back up. I need it to appear relative to the window, whatever its current position relative to the document is. Note: I don't want to use position: fixed; as some images might be taller than the screen, so I want users to be able to scroll along the image as well. My idea was to use JS to change the top value: var scrollValue = ???; document.getElementById('enlargedImgWrapper').style.top = scrollValue+30 + 'px'; How can I detect by how much the user has scrolled down the page (var scrollValue)? Or is there a 'better' way to do this? Thanks!

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  • How to get the Actual Link file location in VSS?

    - by Regi
    I use VSS and currently I am adding a link file using following code: int ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSNO; //Link in sourcesafe IVSSDatabase ssdb = GetVssDatabase(); Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType _sqlSubType = new Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType(); VSSItem SourceItem = ssdb.get_VSSItem(pSourceItemPath, false); //if source is a proj, recursively share the whole thing if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_PROJECT) ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSYES; VSSItem DestItem = ssdb..get_VSSItem(pDestItemPath, false); //share the item DestItem.Share(SourceItem, pComment, ShareFlags); if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_FILE) { bResult = true; } return bResult; This will works fine. My issue is that I need to find the actual link location. For example I have a Project named as Link and it contains 2 files say file1 and file2. I added a Link to my Working project (say CurrentProject). This current project have 2 files say f1 and f2. After sharing the Link project then we get the item in Current project as: $/CurrentProject/File1 $/CurrentProject/File2 $/CurrentProject/F1 $/CurrentProject/F2 Here File1 and File2 are link files. I need to get its parent (Actual) location i.e. $/Link/file1 and $/Link/File2 Is there any way to find Link files location using SourceSafeTypeLib?

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  • Sharing code between two or more rails apps... alternatives to git submodules?

    - by jtgameover
    We have two separate rails_app, foo/ and bar/ (separate for good reason). They both depend on some models, etc. in a common/ folder, currently parallel to foo and bar. Our current svn setup uses svn:externals to share common/. This weekend we wanted to try out git. After much research, it appears that the "kosher" way to solve this is using git submodule. We got that working after separating foo,bar,common into separate repositories, but then realized all the strings attached: Always commit the submodule before committing the parent. Always push the submodule before pushing the parent. Make sure that the submodule's HEAD points to a branch before committing to it. (If you're a bash user, I recommend using git-completion to put the current branch name in your prompt.) Always run 'git submodule update' after switching branches or pulling changes. All these gotchas complicate things further than add,commit,push. We're looking for simpler ways to share common in git. This guy seems to have success using the git subtree extension, but that deviates from standard gitand still doesn't look that simple. Is this the best we can do given our project structure? I don't know enough about rails plugins/engines, but that seems like a possible RoR-ish way to share libraries. Thanks in advance.

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  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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  • Questions about HTML5 audio

    - by Nimbuz
    <audio src="http://upload.wikimedia.org/wikipedia/commons/8/82/Riddle_song.ogg"></audio> <ul id="lyrics"> <li>line 1</li> <li>line 2</li> <li>line 3</li> <li>and so on...</li> </ul><!-- end #lyrics --> So I want to: Highlight (change color or background) of the line that is being played. Save current time to a cookie and resume on next visit. I'm not sure if either of these are possible in HTML5, but even in Flash or other technology, I'd like to know if and how it is possible. I understand #2 is asking too much, but #1 is really important. So almost similar to this: http://randallagordon.com/jaraoke/ but all the lines are visible, just the current line is highlighted. Many thanks for your help.

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  • When is it possible to override top-level bindings in (R7RS) scheme?

    - by Marc
    I have read the current draft of the forthcoming R7RS scheme standard (small language), but I don't understand under which conditions it is not an error to redefine top-level bindings. I guess that it is possible to define or set! a binding that has been introduced at the top-level of a program a second time. But what about imported bindings from an external library? Is it possible to override these bindings by the standard? On page 26/27 of the report, it says: The top level of a program may also include import declarations. In a library declaration, it is an error to import the same identifier more than once with different bindings, or to redefine or mutate an imported binding with define, define-syntax or set!. However, a REPL should permit these actions. Does it mean that redefining is only an error when it does happen in libraries for imported bindings? I understand that it prohibits optimisations by compilers if the compiler does not know whether, say + still means the built-in addition or is any other user-specified error. But from this perspective, it does not make sense to restrict forbidding to rebind on the library level, when it would also make sense (at least) for imported bindings in programs. P.S.: As this is all about the environment of a scheme program: am I right in saying that environments are not first class citizens because one cannot get hold of the current environment? (Which, in turn, allows a compiled program to forget about the chosen names of the bindings.)

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  • merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

    - by cloudraven
    I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

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  • converting a UTC time to a local time zone in Java

    - by aloo
    I know this subject has been beaten to death but after searching for a few hours to this problem I had to ask. My Problem: do calculations on dates on a server based on the current time zone of a client app (iphone). The client app tells the server, in seconds, how far away its time zone is away from GMT. I would like to then use this information to do computation on dates in the server. The dates on the server are all stored as UTC time. So I would like to get the HOUR of a UTC Date object after it has been converted to this local time zone. My current attempt: int hours = (int) Math.floor(secondsFromGMT / (60.0 * 60.0)); int mins = (int) Math.floor((secondsFromGMT - (hours * 60.0 * 60.0)) / 60.0); String sign = hours > 0 ? "+" : "-"; Calendar now = Calendar.getInstance(); TimeZone t = TimeZone.getTimeZone("GMT" + sign + hours + ":" + mins); now.setTimeZone(t); now.setTime(someDateTimeObject); int hourOfDay = now.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY); The variables hour and mins represent the hour and mins the local time zone is away from GMT. After debugging this code - the variables hour, mins and sign are correct. The problem is hourOfDay does not return the correct hour - it is returning the hour as of UTC time and not local time. Ideas?

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  • Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

    - by peelman
    So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

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  • c++ push_back doesn't work as it is supposed

    - by angela
    I have a class symbol_table that has a vector of objects of another class row_st.also I have an enter method where inserts objects of row_st with a passed name into the vector of desired symbol_table.but when I call the enter to enter objects with name : a;b;c;Iwill get the following result: a,b,c;b,c;c.the first element of vector gets the name of all the entered objects. and the second element also gets the name of the later entries. class row_st { public: char* name; type_u type;//int:0,flaot:1;char:2,bool:3,array: int offset; symbol_table *next; symbol_table *current; }; class symbol_table { public: vector <row_st *> row; int type; int header; int starting_stmt; int index; int i; symbol_table *previous; symbol_table(){ header=0; previous=0; index=0;i=0;starting_stmt=0;} }; and here it is the enter method: int enter(symbol_table *table,char* name,type_u type){ row_st *t=new row_st; t->name=name; t->type=type; t->offset=table->index; t->current=table; table->index++; t->next=0; table->row.push_back(t); table->header +=1; return table->row.size()-1; } the push_backed elements all points to the same address.the new call makes the same row_st every time it is called.what should I do?

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  • python matrices - list index out of range

    - by user1888493
    I am writing a function, that takes a matrix as input, such as the one below. Then the it returns the matrix' inverse, where all the 1s are changed to 0s and all the 0s changed to 1s, while keeping the diagonal from top left to bottom right 0s. An example input: g1 = [[0, 1, 1, 0], [1, 0, 0, 1], [1, 0, 0, 1], [0, 1, 1, 0]] the function should output this: g1 = [[0, 0, 0, 1], [0, 0, 1, 0], [0, 1, 0, 0], [1, 0, 0, 0]] When I run the program, it raises a list index out of range error. I'm sure this happens, because the loops I have set up are trying to access values that do not exist. But how do I allow an input of unknown row and column size? I only know how to do this with a single list, but a list of lists? Following you see the transforming function, but not the test function that calls it: def inverse_graph(graph): # take in graph # change all zeros to ones and ones to zeros r, c = 0, 0 # row, column equal zero while (graph[r][c] == 0 or graph[r][c] == 1): # while the current row has a value. while (graph[r][c] == 0 or graph[r][c] == 1): # while the current column has a value if (graph[r][c] == 0): graph[r][c] = 1 elif (graph[r][c] == 1): graph[r][c] = 0 c+=1 c=0 r+=1 c=0 r=0 # sets diagonal to zeros while (g1[r][c] == 0 or g1[r][c] == 1): g1[r][c]=0 c+=1 r+=1 return graph

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  • How to override part of an overload function in JavaScript

    - by Guan Yuxin
    I create a class with a function like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return -1; } basically it is just an overload function composed of index() and index(child). Then I create a sub class,SubObj or whatever, inherits from Obj SubObj.prototype.prototype=Obj; Now, it's time to override the index(child) function,however, index() is also in the function an I don't want to overwrite it too. One solution is to write like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return this._index(this); } Obj.prototype._index=function(this){ return -1; } SubObj.prototype._index=function(this){/* overwriteing */} But this will easily mislead other coders as _index(child) should be both private(should not be used except index() function) and public(is an overload function of index(),which is public) you guys have better idea?

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  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

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  • OpenCV compare two images and get different pixels

    - by Richard Knop
    For some reason the code bellow is not working. I have two 640*480 images which are very similar but not the same (at least few hundred/thousand pixels should be different). This is how I am comparing them and counting different pixels: unsigned char* row; unsigned char* row2; int count = 0; // this happens in a loop // fIplImageHeader is current image // lastFIplImageHeader is image from previous iteration if ( NULL != lastFIplImageHeader->imageData ) { for( int y = 0; y < fIplImageHeader->height; y++ ) { row = &CV_IMAGE_ELEM( fIplImageHeader, unsigned char, y, 0 ); row2 = &CV_IMAGE_ELEM( lastFIplImageHeader, unsigned char, y, 0 ); for( int x = 0; x < fIplImageHeader->width*fIplImageHeader->nChannels; x += fIplImageHeader->nChannels ) { if (row[x] == row2[x]) // the pixel in the first channel (usually G) { count++; } if (row[x+1] == row2[x+1]) // ... second channel (usually B) { count++; } if (row[x+2] == row2[x+2]) // ... third channel (usually R) { count++; } } } } Now at the end I get number 3626 which would seem alright. But, I tried opening one of the images in MS Paint and drawing thick red lines all over it which should increase the number of different pixels substantially. I got the same number again: 3626. Obviously I am doing something wrong here. I am comparing these images in a loop. This line is before the loop: IplImage* lastFIplImageHeader = cvCreateImageHeader(cvSize(640, 480), 8, 3); Then inside the loop I load images like this: IplImage* fIplImageHeader = cvLoadImage( filePath.c_str() ); // here I compare the pixels (the first code snippet) lastFIplImageHeader->imageData = fIplImageHeader->imageData; So lastFIplImageHeader is storing the image from the previous iteration and fIplImageHeader is storing the current image.

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  • How do I automatically update hundreds of images in an HTML page using jquery?

    - by Chris
    I have an HTML page where I want to refresh a lot of images every 30 seconds after the HTML page has been downloaded. I understand how to do this with Jquery and a single image, but I want to use about 200 custom urls to determine the current image to display for over 200 images. I need to find an efficient way to have jquery call the custom url associated with each image to download the url for the needed image as it changes, and then update the image in the page when it changes. Current hyperlink example to demonstrate the custom urls. <A href="/urlThatReturnsCurrentImageURL/1234/4567">link to url for image</A> Each custom url will return an image tag like this (or any other text that makes this simpler for jquery) <img src="/static/someImage.jpg"> What is the simplest way to have jquery call the custom url for each image to download the image url, image html, or some other text that jquery can use to download the right image every 30 seconds? Please keep in mind that I will have about 200 of these on a page.

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