Search Results

Search found 19688 results on 788 pages for 'con current'.

Page 208/788 | < Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >

  • How to get the Actual Link file location in VSS?

    - by Regi
    I use VSS and currently I am adding a link file using following code: int ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSNO; //Link in sourcesafe IVSSDatabase ssdb = GetVssDatabase(); Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType _sqlSubType = new Shared.Enums.SqlObjectSubType(); VSSItem SourceItem = ssdb.get_VSSItem(pSourceItemPath, false); //if source is a proj, recursively share the whole thing if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_PROJECT) ShareFlags = (int)VSSFlags.VSSFLAG_RECURSYES; VSSItem DestItem = ssdb..get_VSSItem(pDestItemPath, false); //share the item DestItem.Share(SourceItem, pComment, ShareFlags); if (SourceItem.Type == (int)VSSItemType.VSSITEM_FILE) { bResult = true; } return bResult; This will works fine. My issue is that I need to find the actual link location. For example I have a Project named as Link and it contains 2 files say file1 and file2. I added a Link to my Working project (say CurrentProject). This current project have 2 files say f1 and f2. After sharing the Link project then we get the item in Current project as: $/CurrentProject/File1 $/CurrentProject/File2 $/CurrentProject/F1 $/CurrentProject/F2 Here File1 and File2 are link files. I need to get its parent (Actual) location i.e. $/Link/file1 and $/Link/File2 Is there any way to find Link files location using SourceSafeTypeLib?

    Read the article

  • When is it possible to override top-level bindings in (R7RS) scheme?

    - by Marc
    I have read the current draft of the forthcoming R7RS scheme standard (small language), but I don't understand under which conditions it is not an error to redefine top-level bindings. I guess that it is possible to define or set! a binding that has been introduced at the top-level of a program a second time. But what about imported bindings from an external library? Is it possible to override these bindings by the standard? On page 26/27 of the report, it says: The top level of a program may also include import declarations. In a library declaration, it is an error to import the same identifier more than once with different bindings, or to redefine or mutate an imported binding with define, define-syntax or set!. However, a REPL should permit these actions. Does it mean that redefining is only an error when it does happen in libraries for imported bindings? I understand that it prohibits optimisations by compilers if the compiler does not know whether, say + still means the built-in addition or is any other user-specified error. But from this perspective, it does not make sense to restrict forbidding to rebind on the library level, when it would also make sense (at least) for imported bindings in programs. P.S.: As this is all about the environment of a scheme program: am I right in saying that environments are not first class citizens because one cannot get hold of the current environment? (Which, in turn, allows a compiled program to forget about the chosen names of the bindings.)

    Read the article

  • Asp.Net 2 integrated sites How to Logout second site programatically.

    - by NBrowne
    Hi , I am working with an asp.net 2.0 site (call it site 1) which has an iframe in it which loads up another site (site2) which is also an asp.net site which is developed by our team. When you log onto site 1 then behind the scenes site 2 is also logged in so that when you click the iframe tab then this displays site 2 with the user logged in (to prevent the user from having to log in twice). The problem i have is that when a user logs out of site 1 then we call some cleanup methods to perform FormsAuthentication.SignOut and clean session variables etc but at the moment no cleanup is called when the user on site 2. So the issue is that if the user opens up Site 2 from within a browser then website 2 opens with the user still logged in which is undesired. Can anyone give me some guidance as to the best approach for this?? One possible approach i though of was just that on click of logout button i could do a call to a custom page on Site 2 which would do the logout. Code below HttpWebRequest request; request = ((HttpWebRequest)(WebRequest.Create("www.mywebsite.com/Site2Logout.aspx"))); request.Method = "POST"; HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName]; Cookie authenticationCookie = new Cookie( FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName, cookie.Value, cookie.Path, HttpContext.Current.Request.Url.Authority); request .CookieContainer = new CookieContainer(); request .CookieContainer.Add(authenticationCookie); response.GetResponse(); Problem i am having with this code is that when i run it and debug on Site 2 and check to see if the user is Authenticated they are not which i dont understand because if i open browser and browse to Site 2 i am Still authenticated. Any ideas , different direction to take etc ??? Please let me know if you need any more info or if i something i have said dosent make sense. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Scheme Function to reverse elements of list of 2-list

    - by sudhirc
    This is an exercise from EOPL. Procedure (invert lst) takes lst which is a list of 2-lists and returns a list with each 2-list reversed. (define invert (lambda (lst) (cond((null? lst ) '()) ((= 2 (rtn-len (car lst))) ( cons(swap-elem (car lst)) (invert (cdr lst)))) ("List is not a 2-List")))) ;; Auxiliry Procedure swap-elements of 2 element list (define swap-elem (lambda (lst) (cons (car (cdr lst)) (car lst)))) ;; returns lengh of the list by calling (define rtn-len (lambda (lst) (calc-len lst 0))) ;; calculate length of the list (define calc-len (lambda (lst n) (if (null? lst) n (calc-len (cdr lst) (+ n 1))))) This seems to work however looks very verbose. Can this be shortened or written in more elegant way ? How I can halt the processing in any of the individual element is not a 2-list? At the moment execution proceed to next member and replacing current member with "List is not a 2-List" if current member is not a 2-list.

    Read the article

  • How to use App.Xaml's ResourseDictionaries with own entry point

    - by Polaris
    Hello friends. I created some logic for singleInstance application and I must to use my own entry point (not App.xaml) for Application. I have some styles in App.xaml which now is not working. How can I use this ResourceDictionaries from my App.xaml for entire project in my situation? My class for manage Application Startup public class SingleInstanceManager : WindowsFormsApplicationBase { App app; public SingleInstanceManager() { this.IsSingleInstance = true; } protected override bool OnStartup(Microsoft.VisualBasic.ApplicationServices.StartupEventArgs e) { try { // First time app is launched app = new App(); App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = e.CommandLine; //IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Run(); return false; } catch (Exception ex) { MessageBox.Show(ex.Message); return false; } } protected override void OnStartupNextInstance(StartupNextInstanceEventArgs eventArgs) { // Subsequent launches base.OnStartupNextInstance(eventArgs); Intro win = (Intro)app.MainWindow; if (eventArgs != null) { App.Current.Properties["rcID"] = eventArgs.CommandLine[0]; } IntroLibrary.OpenDocumentFromNotify(); app.Activate(); } } and my own Entry Point: public class EntryPoint { [STAThread] public static void Main(string[] args) { SingleInstanceManager manager = new SingleInstanceManager(); manager.Run(args); } } And my App.Xaml code behind: public partial class App : Application { protected override void OnStartup(System.Windows.StartupEventArgs e) { base.OnStartup(e); // Create and show the application's main window Intro window = new Intro(); window.Show(); } public void Activate() { // Reactivate application's main window this.MainWindow.Activate(); } } And my App.xaml has some code which decribe ResourceDictionaries which doesnt work. Why?

    Read the article

  • Saving user settings in Metro app using C#

    - by jitendra garg
    I want to write user selected settings in Metro app, in Local Folder. I have done the code as below, but it is not working. The code to save settings: void OnUnloaded(object sender, RoutedEventArgs args) { //code to save app settings. var localSettings = ApplicationData.Current.LocalSettings; localSettings.Values["playerPosition"] = playerPosition; localSettings.Values["aiPosition"] = aiPosition; localSettings.Values["selectedLevel"] = selectedLevel; } The code to read settings: var localSettings = ApplicationData.Current.LocalSettings; if ((localSettings.Values["playerPosition"]) == null) { localSettings.Values["playerPosition"] = 1; localSettings.Values["aiPosition"] = 1; localSettings.Values["selectedLevel"] = "1"; playerPosition = aiPosition = 1; selectedLevel = "1"; } else { playerPosition = (int)localSettings.Values["playerPosition"]; aiPosition = (int)localSettings.Values["aiPosition"]; selectedLevel = (string)localSettings.Values["selectedLevel"]; ---- Clearly I am supposed to save this localSettings variable in a file. But, I am unable to find the code to do that. Also, is Unload event a good place to do it, or should I move it to OnNavigatedFrom event?

    Read the article

  • HeadJS ready for both document and script

    - by Yashua
    Current code: head.ready(function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); It will sometimes fail with error that $ is not ready. I have loaded jquuery earlier with the label 'jquery'. Neither of these work: head.ready(document, function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); head.ready('jquery', function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); I would like to not do this if possible: head.ready(document, function() { head.ready('jquery', function() { console.log($('.thing a').val()); }); }); And also avoid refactoring current code to place that snippet at bottom of body though that I think may be the solution. Is it possible with HeadJS to define a ready call() using head.ready(), that is not placed at the bottom, that will wait for both a labeled script and the DOM to be loaded? UPDATE: the nested script doesn't actually work. I think the inner one erases/superseds the other :(

    Read the article

  • I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

    - by carny666
    So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

    Read the article

  • Dynamic control click event not firing properly

    - by Wil
    I'm creating a next/previous function for my repeater using pageddatasource. I added the link button control dynamically in my oninit using the following code. LinkButton lnkNext = new LinkButton(); lnkNext.Text = "Next"; lnkNext.Click += new EventHandler(NextPage); if (currentPage != objPagedDataSource.PageCount) { pnlMain.Controls.Add(lnkNext); } So in my initial page_load, the next link comes up fine. There are 5 pages in my objPagedDataSource. currentPage variable is 1. The "NextPage" event handler looks like this public void NextPage(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies["PageNum"] == null) { HttpCookie cookie = new HttpCookie("PageNum"); cookie.Value = "1"; } else { HttpCookie cookie = HttpContext.Current.Request.Cookies["PageNum"]; cookie.Value = (Convert.ToInt32(cookie.Value) + 1).ToString(); } this.BindRepeater(); } So I am incrementing the cookie I am using to track the page number and then rebinding the repeater. Here is the main issue. The first time I click Next, it works, it goes to Page 2 without any problems. When on Page 2, I click Next, it goes back to Page 1. Seems like the Next event is not wiring up properly. Not sure why, any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Creating a clickable progress bar

    - by Cory
    What I'm essentially building is a webkit based controller that communicates with a program called Ecoute.app. The controller has a progressbar that indicates the progress made through the currently playing song, but I want to make this bar's position adjustable with a click. function barClick() { var progress = Ecoute.playerPosition(); var width = 142.5; var percentElapsed = progress / length; var position = width * percentElapsed; Ecoute.setPlayerPosition(position); } Is what I have, with Ecoute.playerPosition() returning the player's current position. Width has previously been defined as a dynamic value at var width = 142.5 / length * progress + 1.63; With length being the current track length and progress being the player's position. This has been able to dynamically stretch a progression overlay image to indicate the position of the track via the desktop controller. However, the max width used in the second function does not appear to allow the first function to work properly. Any help possibly determining the correct value or approach would be hugely appreciated.

    Read the article

  • merging two tables, while applying aggregates on the duplicates (max,min and sum)

    - by cloudraven
    I have a table (let's call it log) with a few millions of records. Among the fields I have Id, Count, FirstHit, LastHit. Id - The record id Count - number of times this Id has been reported FirstHit - earliest timestamp with which this Id was reported LastHit - latest timestamp with which this Id was reported This table only has one record for any given Id Everyday I get into another table (let's call it feed) with around half a million records with these fields among many others: Id Timestamp - Entry date and time. This table can have many records for the same id What I want to do is to update log in the following way. Count - log count value, plus the count() of records for that id found in feed FirstHit - the earliest of the current value in log or the minimum value in feed for that id LastHit - the latest of the current value in log or the maximum value in feed for that id. It should be noticed that many of the ids in feed are already in log. The simple thing that worked is to create a temporary table and insert into it the union of both as in Select Id, Min(Timestamp) As FirstHit, MAX(Timestamp) as LastHit, Count(*) as Count FROM feed GROUP BY Id UNION ALL Select Id, FirstHit,LastHit,Count FROM log; From that temporary table I do a select that aggregates Min(firsthit), max(lasthit) and sum(Count) Select Id, Min(FirstHit),Max(LastHit),Sum(Count) FROM @temp GROUP BY Id; and that gives me the end result. I could then delete everything from log and replace it with everything with temp, or craft an update for the common records and insert the new ones. However, I think both are highly inefficient. Is there a more efficient way of doing this. Perhaps doing the update in place in the log table?

    Read the article

  • Identity alternative for SQL Azure Federation : are Azure Queues or Service Bus Queues a good choice?

    - by JYL
    As many of developers, I'm looking for a way to integrate my existing app to SQL Azure Federations, and replacing the Identity columns (the primary keys of my tables) is a big problem. For many reasons, I do NOT want use GUID for my primary keys (please don't open the debate about the GUID or not, it's not my question : i just don't want a GUID, period). So I need to build a key provider to replace the "identity" feature of a standard SQL database. I'm using Entity Framework, so i can easily find one place to set the Id value just before the insert (by overriding the SaveChanges method of my ObjectContext class). I just need to find a "not too complicated" implementation for getting the current Id, which is "farm-ready". I've read this SO post : "ID Generation for Sharded Database (Azure Federated Database)" and "Synchronizing Multiple Nodes in Windows Azure from MSDN Magazine", but this solution sounds a bit complicated for me. I'm thinking about creating (automatically) one azure queue for each SQL table, which contain a pre-loaded list of consecutive integer. When I want an Id value, I just have to get a message from the queue (which becomes invisible and is deleted on the way), which give me the current available Id. About the choice between "Windows Azure Queues" and "Windows Azure Service Bus Queues", I prefere "Windows Azure Queues", due to the "high" latency of Service Bus Queues. I don't think that the lack of "ordering garantee" of Azure Queues is a problem. What do you think about that idea of using Azure Queues to provide Id values ? Do you see any argument to give up that idea ? Do you have a better idea, or even a good practice, to provider integer ids in SQL Azure Federation databases ? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

    - by Robert Vella
    Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

    Read the article

  • OpenCV compare two images and get different pixels

    - by Richard Knop
    For some reason the code bellow is not working. I have two 640*480 images which are very similar but not the same (at least few hundred/thousand pixels should be different). This is how I am comparing them and counting different pixels: unsigned char* row; unsigned char* row2; int count = 0; // this happens in a loop // fIplImageHeader is current image // lastFIplImageHeader is image from previous iteration if ( NULL != lastFIplImageHeader->imageData ) { for( int y = 0; y < fIplImageHeader->height; y++ ) { row = &CV_IMAGE_ELEM( fIplImageHeader, unsigned char, y, 0 ); row2 = &CV_IMAGE_ELEM( lastFIplImageHeader, unsigned char, y, 0 ); for( int x = 0; x < fIplImageHeader->width*fIplImageHeader->nChannels; x += fIplImageHeader->nChannels ) { if (row[x] == row2[x]) // the pixel in the first channel (usually G) { count++; } if (row[x+1] == row2[x+1]) // ... second channel (usually B) { count++; } if (row[x+2] == row2[x+2]) // ... third channel (usually R) { count++; } } } } Now at the end I get number 3626 which would seem alright. But, I tried opening one of the images in MS Paint and drawing thick red lines all over it which should increase the number of different pixels substantially. I got the same number again: 3626. Obviously I am doing something wrong here. I am comparing these images in a loop. This line is before the loop: IplImage* lastFIplImageHeader = cvCreateImageHeader(cvSize(640, 480), 8, 3); Then inside the loop I load images like this: IplImage* fIplImageHeader = cvLoadImage( filePath.c_str() ); // here I compare the pixels (the first code snippet) lastFIplImageHeader->imageData = fIplImageHeader->imageData; So lastFIplImageHeader is storing the image from the previous iteration and fIplImageHeader is storing the current image.

    Read the article

  • How to override part of an overload function in JavaScript

    - by Guan Yuxin
    I create a class with a function like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return -1; } basically it is just an overload function composed of index() and index(child). Then I create a sub class,SubObj or whatever, inherits from Obj SubObj.prototype.prototype=Obj; Now, it's time to override the index(child) function,however, index() is also in the function an I don't want to overwrite it too. One solution is to write like this var Obj=function(){this.children=[];this.parent=null;}//a base class Obj.prototype.index=function(child){ // the index of current obj if(arguments.length==0){ return this.parent?this.parent.index(this):0; } // the index of a child matchs specific obj [to be override] return this._index(this); } Obj.prototype._index=function(this){ return -1; } SubObj.prototype._index=function(this){/* overwriteing */} But this will easily mislead other coders as _index(child) should be both private(should not be used except index() function) and public(is an overload function of index(),which is public) you guys have better idea?

    Read the article

  • How to change the handler position by dragging/single click on the slider

    - by Geetha
    Hi All, I am using the following files to create a slider. Problem:Needs double click to change the handler position first click: it move the handler but the following code is not working. a second later it return back to the previous position. second click on the handler in new position, before it moves back the following code is working. Needs: I want change the media player current position with the handler current position value by dragging the handler or single click on the new position of the slider. Ex: initial position of the handler: l-------------------------------- document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition = 0 After dragging it some other position ----------------------l---------- document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition = 125 Code: var endTime = document.mediaPlayer.SelectionEnd; $("#slider-constraints").slider({ animate: true, max: endTime, range: $R(0, endTime), value: 1, enforceConstraints: false, start:function(event,index){document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition=index.value; $('#slider-constraints').slider("constraints", [0, index.value]); $('#slider-constraints').slider("value", index.value);} }); window.setInterval(function() { $('#slider-constraints').slider("value", document.mediaPlayer.currentPosition); }, 4000);

    Read the article

  • Sharing code between two or more rails apps... alternatives to git submodules?

    - by jtgameover
    We have two separate rails_app, foo/ and bar/ (separate for good reason). They both depend on some models, etc. in a common/ folder, currently parallel to foo and bar. Our current svn setup uses svn:externals to share common/. This weekend we wanted to try out git. After much research, it appears that the "kosher" way to solve this is using git submodule. We got that working after separating foo,bar,common into separate repositories, but then realized all the strings attached: Always commit the submodule before committing the parent. Always push the submodule before pushing the parent. Make sure that the submodule's HEAD points to a branch before committing to it. (If you're a bash user, I recommend using git-completion to put the current branch name in your prompt.) Always run 'git submodule update' after switching branches or pulling changes. All these gotchas complicate things further than add,commit,push. We're looking for simpler ways to share common in git. This guy seems to have success using the git subtree extension, but that deviates from standard gitand still doesn't look that simple. Is this the best we can do given our project structure? I don't know enough about rails plugins/engines, but that seems like a possible RoR-ish way to share libraries. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • modified closure warning in ReSharper

    - by Sarah Vessels
    I was hoping someone could explain to me what bad thing could happen in this code, which causes ReSharper to give an 'Access to modified closure' warning: bool result = true; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result)) { result = result && ContainsKey(key); } return result; Even if the code above seems safe, what bad things could happen in other 'modified closure' instances? I often see this warning as a result of using LINQ queries, and I tend to ignore it because I don't know what could go wrong. ReSharper tries to fix the problem by making a second variable that seems pointless to me, e.g. it changes the foreach line above to: bool result1 = result; foreach (string key in keys.TakeWhile(key => result1)) Update: on a side note, apparently that whole chunk of code can be converted to the following statement, which causes no modified closure warnings: return keys.Aggregate( true, (current, key) => current && ContainsKey(key) );

    Read the article

  • converting a UTC time to a local time zone in Java

    - by aloo
    I know this subject has been beaten to death but after searching for a few hours to this problem I had to ask. My Problem: do calculations on dates on a server based on the current time zone of a client app (iphone). The client app tells the server, in seconds, how far away its time zone is away from GMT. I would like to then use this information to do computation on dates in the server. The dates on the server are all stored as UTC time. So I would like to get the HOUR of a UTC Date object after it has been converted to this local time zone. My current attempt: int hours = (int) Math.floor(secondsFromGMT / (60.0 * 60.0)); int mins = (int) Math.floor((secondsFromGMT - (hours * 60.0 * 60.0)) / 60.0); String sign = hours > 0 ? "+" : "-"; Calendar now = Calendar.getInstance(); TimeZone t = TimeZone.getTimeZone("GMT" + sign + hours + ":" + mins); now.setTimeZone(t); now.setTime(someDateTimeObject); int hourOfDay = now.get(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY); The variables hour and mins represent the hour and mins the local time zone is away from GMT. After debugging this code - the variables hour, mins and sign are correct. The problem is hourOfDay does not return the correct hour - it is returning the hour as of UTC time and not local time. Ideas?

    Read the article

  • c++ push_back doesn't work as it is supposed

    - by angela
    I have a class symbol_table that has a vector of objects of another class row_st.also I have an enter method where inserts objects of row_st with a passed name into the vector of desired symbol_table.but when I call the enter to enter objects with name : a;b;c;Iwill get the following result: a,b,c;b,c;c.the first element of vector gets the name of all the entered objects. and the second element also gets the name of the later entries. class row_st { public: char* name; type_u type;//int:0,flaot:1;char:2,bool:3,array: int offset; symbol_table *next; symbol_table *current; }; class symbol_table { public: vector <row_st *> row; int type; int header; int starting_stmt; int index; int i; symbol_table *previous; symbol_table(){ header=0; previous=0; index=0;i=0;starting_stmt=0;} }; and here it is the enter method: int enter(symbol_table *table,char* name,type_u type){ row_st *t=new row_st; t->name=name; t->type=type; t->offset=table->index; t->current=table; table->index++; t->next=0; table->row.push_back(t); table->header +=1; return table->row.size()-1; } the push_backed elements all points to the same address.the new call makes the same row_st every time it is called.what should I do?

    Read the article

  • python matrices - list index out of range

    - by user1888493
    I am writing a function, that takes a matrix as input, such as the one below. Then the it returns the matrix' inverse, where all the 1s are changed to 0s and all the 0s changed to 1s, while keeping the diagonal from top left to bottom right 0s. An example input: g1 = [[0, 1, 1, 0], [1, 0, 0, 1], [1, 0, 0, 1], [0, 1, 1, 0]] the function should output this: g1 = [[0, 0, 0, 1], [0, 0, 1, 0], [0, 1, 0, 0], [1, 0, 0, 0]] When I run the program, it raises a list index out of range error. I'm sure this happens, because the loops I have set up are trying to access values that do not exist. But how do I allow an input of unknown row and column size? I only know how to do this with a single list, but a list of lists? Following you see the transforming function, but not the test function that calls it: def inverse_graph(graph): # take in graph # change all zeros to ones and ones to zeros r, c = 0, 0 # row, column equal zero while (graph[r][c] == 0 or graph[r][c] == 1): # while the current row has a value. while (graph[r][c] == 0 or graph[r][c] == 1): # while the current column has a value if (graph[r][c] == 0): graph[r][c] = 1 elif (graph[r][c] == 1): graph[r][c] = 0 c+=1 c=0 r+=1 c=0 r=0 # sets diagonal to zeros while (g1[r][c] == 0 or g1[r][c] == 1): g1[r][c]=0 c+=1 r+=1 return graph

    Read the article

  • Running a process at the Windows 7 Welcome Screen

    - by peelman
    So here's the scoop: I wrote a tiny C# app a while back that displays the hostname, ip address, imaged date, thaw status (we use DeepFreeze), current domain, and the current date/time, to display on the welcome screen of our Windows 7 lab machines. This was to replace our previous information block, which was set statically at startup and actually embedded text into the background, with something a little more dynamic and functional. The app uses a Timer to update the ip address, deepfreeze status, and clock every second, and it checks to see if a user has logged in and kills itself when it detects such a condition. If we just run it, via our startup script (set via group policy), it holds the script open and the machine never makes it to the login prompt. If we use something like the start or cmd commands to start it off under a separate shell/process, it runs until the startup script finishes, at which point Windows seems to clean up any and all child processes of the script. We're currently able to bypass that using psexec -s -d -i -x to fire it off, which lets it persist after the startup script is completed, but can be incredibly slow, adding anywhere between 5 seconds and over a minute to our startup time. We have experimented with using another C# app to start the process, via the Process class, using WMI Calls (Win32_Process and Win32_ProcessStartup) with various startup flags, etc, but all end with the same result of the script finishing and the info block process getting killed. I tinkered with rewriting the app as a service, but services were never designed to interact with the desktop, let alone the login window, and getting things operating in the right context never really seemed to work out. So for the question: Does anybody have a good way to accomplish this? Launch a task so that it would be independent of the startup script and run on top of the welcome screen?

    Read the article

  • Changing a Select dropdown with a jquery ui slider

    - by Chris J. Lee
    Trying to set a select dropdown with a slider. You move the jquery ui slider and then it will change the selection of the other two dropdowns. is there a current method in jquery that would set these options? Current dropdown: <select id="alert-options-frequency-opts"> <option value=""></option> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> <option value="3">3</option> <option value="4">4</option> <option value="5">5</option> <option value="6">6</option> <option value="7">7</option> <option value="8">8</option> <option value="9">9</option> <option value="10">10</option> </select>

    Read the article

  • foreach loop is not working on opened pop up

    - by Rozer
    For each loop is not working in opened popup while the same collection i can see when I write it on page <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=ISO-8859-1"> <title>my cart</title> </head> <body> <% ArrayList cart=(ArrayList)session.getAttribute("Cart"); out.println(cart); //this line is working %> <table> <tr bgcolor="#EAEAFF"> <td><b>Product ID</b></td> </tr> <c:forEach items="${cart}" var="current"> <tr> <td><c:out value="${current}"/></td> </tr> </c:forEach> </table> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Considering moving from Java/Spring MVC to Grails

    - by MDS
    I'm currently using Java & Spring (MVC) to create a webapp, and I'm considering moving to Grails. I'd appreciate feedback/insight on the following: I have multiple application contexts in the current Java/Spring webapp that I load through the web.xml ContextLoaderListener; is it possible to have multiple application contexts in Grails? If, yes, how? This webapp extensively uses a CXF restful web service and the current Java/Spring webapp uses the bundled CXF HTTP client. Can I continue to use the (Java) CXF HTTP Client in Grails? I implemented Spring Security using a custom implementation of UserDetails and UserDetailsService, can I re-use these implementations in Grails "as is" or must I re-implement them? There is an instance where I've relied on Spring's jdbc template (rather than the available ORM) and an additional data source I defined in app context, can I re-use this in Grails? I plan on using Maven as the project management tool; are there any issues of using Maven with Grails where there is a combination of groovy and java?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >