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• How can you trigger the viewWillAppear of a UITableView AFTER its UINavigationController?

  - by Troy Sartain

  I have a situation where I use a tab bar set up but with nav bar controllers on a couple tabs. Those tabs have table views on them. Everything works great, I can pick a tab and get a different table in a nav bar structure. The other tabs are non-nav controllers. Fine. I want to use the same table view controller and even the same detail screen since they are essentially the same format. I have two-dimensional arrays and a couple of vars tracking which tab and which table row so when I get to the detail it's all good. Now to the problem. It all seems to work just fine until I return to a tab that has already been visited. At that point, I do indeed get a viewWillAppear for both the view controller of that specific tab and the table view controller. However, I get the table view one first! It doesn't know which tab was tapped on; the other one does but that's too late to dynamically change the table! Any suggestions? Am I being too greedy about code duplication? I mean I could just make separate controllers for for each table view and then separate detail view controllers but I thought I had a good solution.

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• Unity IoC and MVC modelbinding

  - by danielovich

  Is it ok to have a static field in my controller for my modelbinder to call ? Eg. public class AuctionItemsController : Controller { private IRepository<IAuctionItem> GenericAuctionItemRepository; private IAuctionItemRepository AuctionItemRepository; public AuctionItemsController(IRepository<IAuctionItem> genericAuctionItemRepository, IAuctionItemRepository auctionItemRepository) { GenericAuctionItemRepository = genericAuctionItemRepository; AuctionItemRepository = auctionItemRepository; StaticGenericAuctionItemRepository = genericAuctionItemRepository; } internal static IRepository<IAuctionItem> StaticGenericAuctionItemRepository; here is the modelbinder public class AuctionItemModelBinder : DefaultModelBinder { public override object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { if (AuctionItemsController.StaticGenericAuctionItemRepository != null) { AuctionLogger.LogException(new Exception("controller is null")); } NameValueCollection form = controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.Form; var item = AuctionItemsController.StaticGenericAuctionItemRepository.GetSingle(Convert.ToInt32(controllerContext.RouteData.Values["id"])); item.Description = form["title"]; item.Price = int.Parse(form["price"]); item.Title = form["title"]; item.CreatedDate = DateTime.Now; item.AuctionId = 1; //TODO: Stop hardcoding this item.UserId = 1; return item; }} i am using Unity as IoC and I find it weird to register my modelbinder in the IoC container. Any other good design considerations I shold do ?

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• ASP.NET MVC 2 - How do I use an Interface as the Type for a Strongly Typed View

  - by Rake36

  I'd like to keep my concrete classes separate from my views. Without using strongly typed views, I'm fine. I just use a big parameter list in the controller method signatures and then use my service layer factory methods to create my concrete objects. This is actually just fine with me, but it got me thinking and after a little playing, I realized it was literally impossible for a controller method to accept an interface as a method parameter - because it has no way of instantiating it. Can't create a strongly-typed view using an interface through the IDE either (which makes sense actually). So my question. Is there some way to tell the controller how to instantiate the interface parameter using my service layer factory methods? I'd like to convert from: [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, String TypeCode, String TimeCode, String[] SelectedSchoolSystems, String PositionChoice1, String PositionChoice2, String PositionChoice3, String Reason, String LocationPreference, String AvailableDate, String RecipientsNotSelected, String RecipientsSelected) { //New blank app IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id); to something like [Authorize] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] [UrlRoute(Path = "Application/Edit/{id}")] public ActionResult Edit(String id, IApplication app) { //Don't need to do this anymore //IApplication _application = ApplicationService.GetById(id);

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• zend session exception on zend_session::start with forms

  - by Grant Collins

  Hi I'm having issues with trying to use Zend_Form_SubForm and sessions. My controller is in essance acting a wizard showing different subforms depending on the stage of the wizard. Using the example I am planning on storing the forms in a session namespace. My controller looks like this. include 'mylib/Form/addTaskWizardForm.php'; class AddtaskController extends Zend_Controller_Action{ private $config = null; private $log = null; private $subFormSession = null; /** * This function is called and initialises the global variables to this object * which is the configuration details and the logger to write to the log file. */ public function init(){ $this->config = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('config'); $this->log = Zend_Registry::getInstance()->get('log'); //set layout $this->_helper->layout->setLayout('no-sidemenus'); //we need to get the subforms and $wizardForms = new addTaskWizardForm(); $this->subFormSession = new Zend_Session_Namespace('addTaskWizardForms'); if(!isset($this->subFormSession->subforms)){ $this->subFormSession->subforms = $wizardForms; } } /** * The Landing page controller for the site. */ public function indexAction(){ $form = $this->subFormSession->subforms->getSubForm('start'); $this->view->form = $form; } However this is causing the application session to crash out with Uncaught exception 'Zend_Session_Exception' with message 'Zend_Session::start() Any idea why this is having issues with the Zend Session?? thanks.

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• NSCollectionView: Can the same object not be in the array more than once or is this a bug?

  - by Sean

  I may be doing this all wrong, but I thought I was on the right track until I hit this little snag. Basically I was putting together a toy using NSCollectionView and trying to understand how to hook that all up using IB. I have a button which will add a couple of strings to the NSArrayController: The first time I press this button, my strings appear in the collection view as expected: The second time I press the button, the views scroll down and room is made - but the items don't appear to get added. I just see blank space: The button is implemented as follows (controller is a pointer to the NSArrayController I added in IB): - (IBAction)addStuff:(id)control { [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:@"String 1",@"String 2",@"String 3",nil]]; } I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Rather than try to explain all the connections/binds/etc, if you need more info, I'd be grateful if you could just take a quick look at the toy project itself. UPDATE: After more experimentation as suggested by James Williams, it seems the problem stems from having multiple objects with the same memory address in the array. This confuses either NSArrayController or NSCollectionView (not sure which). Changing my addStuff: to this resulted in the behavior I originally expected: [controller addObjects:[NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 1"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 2"],[NSMutableString stringWithString:@"String 3"],nil]]; So the question now, I guess, is if this is a bug I should report to Apple or if this is intended/documented behavior and I just missed it?

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• Unable to get values in ftl from value stack in custom Result Type

  - by Nagadev

  Hello, I am unable retrieve value from value stack in FTL file. Here is the code. Action class holds a property called 'name' private String name; public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } public String execute(){ setName("From value stack .. "); return SUCCESS; } FTL code: ${name} Custom result Type deExecute Method Configuration configuration = new Configuration(); String templatePath = "/ftl"; ServletContext context = ServletActionContext.getServletContext(); configuration.setServletContextForTemplateLoading(context, templatePath); configuration.setObjectWrapper(new DefaultObjectWrapper()); Template template = configuration.getTemplate("sample.ftl"); OutputStreamWriter out = new OutputStreamWriter(System.out); template.process(ActionContext.getContext().getValueStack(), out); I am passing the value Stack which contains recently executed Action as well. But FTL is throwing an exception Expression name is undefined on line 1, column 3 in sample.ftl I tried with passing session instead of value stack and I could get the value in FTL. Please suggest me a way to get values from Action class to FTL from value stack. Thanks inadvance.

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• activemerchant PayPalExpress transaction is invalid

  - by Ameya Savale

  I am trying to integrate activemerchant into my ruby on rails application. This is my controller where I get the purchase attirbutes and create a PaypalExpressResponse object def checkout total_as_cents, purchase_params = get_setup_params(Schedule.find(params[:schedule]), request) setup_response = @gateway.setup_purchase(total_as_cents, purchase_params) redirect_to @gateway.redirect_url_for(setup_response.token) end @gateway is my PaypalExpressGateway object which I create using this method in my controller def assign_gateway @gateway = PaypalExpressGateway.new( :login => api_user, :password => api_pass, :signature => api_signature ) end I got the api_user, api_pass, and api_signature values from my developer.paypal.com account, when I logged in for the first time there was already a sandbox user created as a merchant which is where I got the api credentials from. And finally here is my get_setup_params method: def get_setup_params(schedule, request) purchase_params = { :ip => request.remote_ip, :return_url => url_for(:action => 'review', :only_path => false, :sched => schedule.id), :cancel_return_url => register_path, :allow_note => true, :item => schedule.id } return to_cents(schedule.fee), purchase_params end How ever when I click on the checkout button, I get redirected to a sandbox paypal page saying "This transaction is invalid. Please return to the recipient's website to complete your transaction using their regular checkout flow." I'm not sure exactly what's wrong, I think the problem lies in the credentials but don't know why. Any help will be appreciated. One other point, I'm running this in my development environment so I have put this in my config file config.after_initialize do ActiveMerchant::Billing::Base.mode = :test end UPDATE Found out what the problem was, my return cancel url was invalid instead of using register_path, I used url_for(action: "action-name", :only_path => false) this answer helped me Rails ActiveMerchant - Paypal Express Checkout Error even though I wasn't able to see the output of the response like the person has managed to do

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• HTML Submit button vs AJAX based Post (ASP.NET MVC)

  - by Graham

  I'm after some design advice. I'm working on an application with a fellow developer. I'm from the Webforms world and he's done a lot with jQuery and AJAX stuff. We're collaborating on a new ASP.MVC 1.0 app. He's done some pretty amazing stuff that I'm just getting my head around, and used some 3rd party tools etc. for datagrids etc. but... He rarely uses Submit buttons whereas I use them most of the time. He uses a button but then attaches Javascript to it that calls an MVC action which returns a JSON object. He then parses the object to update the datagrid. I'm not sure how he deals with server-side validation - I think he adds a message property to the JSON object. A sample scenario would be to "Save" a new record that then gets added to the gridview. The user doesn't see a postback as such, so he uses jQuery to disable the UI whilst the controller action is running. TBH, it looks pretty cool. However, the way I'd do it would be to use a Submit button to postback, let the ModelBinder populate a typed model class, parse that in my controller Action method, update the model (and apply any validation against the model), update it with the new record, then send it back to be rendered by the View. Unlike him, I don't return a JSON object, I let the View (and datagrid) bind to the new model data. Both solutions "work" but we're obviously taking the application down different paths so one of us has to re-work our code... and we don't mind whose has to be done. What I'd prefer though is that we adopt the "industry-standard" way of doing this. I'm unsure as to whether my WebForms background is influencing the fact that his way just "doesn't feel right", in that a "submit" is meant to submit data to the server. Any advice at all please - many thanks.

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• Symfony 1.2 to 2.3 migration

  - by Bonswouar

  I've got a pretty big Symfony 1.2 project to migrate. First, I modified my .htaccess so I can have some pages handled by Symfony 2. What I'd like to do, to make the migration smoother, is to be able to render some SF2 action/templates/methods/... inside SF1. I added the autoloader to the SF1 app, so I can access to twig rendering methods and other stuff. But how can I call a SF2 action ? For example, if I want to migrate only the footer first, I would also need some php methods, not only rendering. That was previously in SF1 component, where should it be now ? If you've got any suggestion about the way of migrating, don't hesitate ! EDIT 1 : Apparently, the only way to do something like that is to render a full twig template, and/or in this template call some other partial twig templates with render(url, params). Here is my SF1 code to be able to render twig templates : public static function getTwig() { require_once __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/vendor/twig/extensions/lib/Twig/Extensions/Autoloader.php'; Twig_Autoloader::register(); $loader = new Twig_Loader_Filesystem( __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/src/VENDOR/BUNDLE/'); $twig = new Twig_Environment($loader, array( 'cache' => __DIR__.'SF2_PATH/sf2/app/cache/dev/twig', )); return $twig; } And so : $twig->loadTemplate('header.html.twig'); EDIT 2 : That doesn't seem to work, if in a twig template I try to render an other one with {{render(controller('BUNDLE:CONTROLER:ACTION', {})) }} for example Twig_Error : The function "controller" does not exist. And if I try to render the url Unknown tag name "render". I guess Symfony 2 twig functionalities are not loaded, how can I do that ? EDIT 3 : Ok, now I can do it, but I've got the following message... Twig_Error_Runtime An exception has been thrown during the rendering of a template ("Rendering a fragment can only be done when handling a master Request.") in ...

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• ASP.NET inline code in a server control

  - by John

  Ok, we had a problem come up today at work. It is a strange one that I never would have even thought to try. <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %>" > Ok, it is very ugly and I wouldn't have ever tried it myself. It came up in some code that was written years ago but had been working up until this weekend after a bunch of updates were installed on a client's web server where the code is hosted. The actual result of this is the following html: <form name="form1" method="post" action="Default.aspx?id=&lt;%= ID %>" id="form1"> The url ends up like this: http://localhost:6735/Default.aspx?id=<%= ID %> Which as you can see, demonstrates that the "<" symbol is being encoded before ASP.NET actually processes the page. It seems strange to me as I thought that even though it is not pretty by any means, it should work. I'm confused. To make matters worse, the client insists that it is a bug in IE since it appears to work in Firefox. In fact, it is broken in Firefox as well, except for some reason Firefox treats it as a 0. Any ideas on why this happens and how to fix it easily? Everything I try to render within the server control ends up getting escaped. Edit Ok, I found a "fix" <form id="form1" runat="server" method="post" action='<%# String.Format("Default.aspx?id={0}", 5) %>' > But that requires me to call DataBind which is adding more of a hack to the original hack. Guess if nobody thinks of anything else I'll have to go with that.

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• Is there a difference between starting an application from the OS or from adb

  - by aruwen

  I do have a curious error in my application. My app crashes (don't mind the crash, I roughly know why - classloader) when I start the application from the OS directly, then kill it from the background via any Task Killer (this is one of the few ways to reproduce the crash consistently - simulating the OS freeing memory and closing the application) and try to restart it again. The thing is, if I start the application via adb shell using the following command: adb shell am start -a android.intent.action.MAIN -n com.my.packagename/myLaunchActivity I cannot reproduce the crash. So is there any difference in how Android OS calls the application as opposed to the above call? EDIT: added the manifest (just changed names) <?xml version="1.0" ?> <manifest android:versionCode="5" android:versionName="1.05" package="com.my.sample" xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <uses-sdk android:minSdkVersion="7"/> <application android:icon="@drawable/square_my_logo" android:label="@string/app_name"> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my.InfoActivity" android:screenOrientation="landscape"></activity> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.KickStart" android:screenOrientation="landscape"/> <activity android:label="@string/app_name" android:name="com.my2.Launcher" android:screenOrientation="landscape"> <intent-filter> <action android:name="android.intent.action.MAIN"/> <category android:name="android.intent.category.LAUNCHER"/> </intent-filter> </activity> </application> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.INTERNET"/> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.ACCESS_NETWORK_STATE"/></manifest> starting the com.my2.Launcher from the adb shell

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• XAttribute Generating strange namespaces

  - by Adam Driscoll

  I'm constructing an XElement with a couple attributes that have different namespaces. The code looks like this: var element = new XElement("SynchronousCommand", new XAttribute("{wcm}action", "add"), new XAttribute("{ns}id", Guid.NewGuid()), new XElement... ); The XML that is generated looks like this: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand d5p1:action="add" d5p2:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" xmlns:d5p2="ns" xmlns:d5p1="wcm"> ... </SynchronousCommand> </unattend> I'm just wondering if the auto-generated d5p2 is valid and why it is doing this. According to the XML standards here it seems like it would be valid. But why is it not: <unattend xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema" xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:unattend"> <SynchronousCommand wcm:action="add" ns:id="c0f5fc6d-d407-4d3d-8a05-d84236cca2fb" > To generate the XML I'm doing this: public class unattend { public List<XElement> Any {get;} } var unattend = new unattend(); unattend.Add(element); serializer.Serialize(xmlWriter, unattend);

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• Model-binding an object from the repository by several keys

  - by Anton

  Suppose the following route: {region}/{storehouse}/{controller}/{action} These two parameters region and storehouse altogether identify a single entity - a Storehouse. Thus, a bunch of controllers are being called in the context of some storehouse. And I'd like to write actions like this: public ActionResult SomeAction(Storehouse storehouse, ...) Here I can read your thoughts: "Write custom model binder, man". I do. However, the question is How to avoid magic strings within custom model binder? Here is my current code: public class StorehouseModelBinder : IModelBinder { readonly IStorehouseRepository repository; public StorehouseModelBinder(IStorehouseRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public object BindModel(ControllerContext controllerContext, ModelBindingContext bindingContext) { var region = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("region").AttemptedValue; var storehouse = bindingContext.ValueProvider.GetValue("storehouse").AttemptedValue; return repository.GetByKey(region, storehouse); } } If there was a single key, bindingContext.ModelName could be used... Probably, there is another way to supply all the actions with a Storehouse object, i.e. declaring it as a property of the controller and populating it in the Controller.Initialize.

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• IIS6, ASP.NET MVC 1 and random slowdowns

  - by Mr Snuffle

  I've recently deployed a MVC application to an IIS6 web server. One strange behaviour I've been having is the load times will randomly blow up to 30sec+ and then return to normal. Our tests have shown this occurring on multiple connections at the same time. Once the wait has passed, the site become responsive again. It's completely random when this will occur, but will probably happen about once every 15 minutes or so. My first thought was the application was being restarted by the web server for some reason, but I determined this wasn't the case because the process recycling is set very infrequently, and I placed some logging in the application startup. It's also nothing to do with the database connection. This slowdown happens simply by moving between static pages too. I've watched the database with a SQL profiler, and nothing is hitting it when these slowdowns occur. Finally, I've placed entry and exit logging on my controller actions, the slowdown always happens outside of the controller. The entry and exit time for a controller action is always appropriately fast. Does anyone have any ideas of what could be causing this? I've tried running it locally on IIS7 and I haven't had the issue. I can only think it's something to do with our hosting provider.

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• Django repeating vars/cache issue?

  - by Mark

  I'm trying to build a better/more powerful form class for Django. It's working well, except for these sub-forms. Actually, it works perfectly right after I re-start apache, but after I refresh the page a few times, my HTML output starts to look like this: <input class="text" type="text" id="pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-id-pickup_addr-venue" value="" name="pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-pickup_addr-venue" /> The pickup_addr- part starts repeating many times. I was looking for loops around the prefix code that might have cause this to happen, but the output isn't even consistent when I refresh the page, so I think something is getting cached somewhere, but I can't even imagine how that's possible. The prefix car should be reset when the class is initialized, no? Unless it's somehow not initializing something? class Form(object): count = 0 def __init__(self, data={}, prefix='', action='', id=None, multiple=False): self.fields = {} self.subforms = {} self.data = {} self.action = action self.id = fnn(id, 'form%d' % Form.count) self.errors = [] self.valid = True if not empty(prefix) and prefix[-1:] not in ('-','_'): prefix += '-' for name, field in inspect.getmembers(self, lambda m: isinstance(m, Field)): if name[:2] == '__': continue field_name = fnn(field.name, name) field.label = fnn(field.label, humanize(field_name)) field.name = field.widget.name = prefix + field_name + ife(multiple, '[]') field.id = field.auto_id = field.widget.id = ife(field.id==None, 'id-') + prefix + fnn(field.id, field_name) + ife(multiple, Form.count) field.errors = [] val = fnn(field.widget.get_value(data), field.default) if isinstance(val, basestring): try: val = field.coerce(field.format(val)) except Exception, err: self.valid = False field.errors.append(escape_html(err)) field.val = self.data[name] = field.widget.val = val for rule in field.rules: rule.fields = self.fields rule.val = field.val rule.name = field.name self.fields[name] = field for name, form in inspect.getmembers(self, lambda m: ispropersubclass(m, Form)): if name[:2] == '__': continue self.subforms[name] = self.__dict__[name] = form(data=data, prefix='%s%s-' % (prefix, name)) Form.count += 1 Let me know if you need more code... I know it's a lot, but I just can't figure out what's causing this!

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• jquery pass value class

  - by mckenzie

  $(".hidee2").click(function() { var type = $(".st").val(); } <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st2"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st3"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> How do i get which book now! link user click? because i need to pass over the st value? is there any way to achieve this using jquery? currently, only st value is passed over

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• How do I push another viewController onto the navigationController from within a tabviewController?

  - by user207788

  Hi, I have a project set up using these two tutorials. http://twilloapp.blogspot.com/2009/03/how-to-embed-navigation-controller.html and the link for the second tutorial is at the bottom of the first. The tutorial is slightly outdated but I managed to get it to work as advertised. Now I want to push a new detailedView onto the NavigationController when a user touches a row in the table view. So I added this to my MyTableViewController.m file. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { // Navigation logic may go here. Create and push another view controller. SecondViewController *detailViewController = [[SecondViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"SecondViewController.xib" bundle:nil]; // ... // Pass the selected object to the new view controller. [self.navigationController pushViewController:detailViewController animated:YES]; [detailViewController release]; } Now when I run this project and touch a row in my table view I am getting an error: asm_Terminating_due_to_uncaught_exception IT seems to be having an issue loading the SecondViewController from nib, however I checked the detailViewController and it is not nil. I know I am missing something and it is more than likely something simple. Please help. Thanks, Bruce

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• Returning an array of culture formatted dates C# MVC3

  - by user1875797

  I'm new to programming and trying to do an exercise that formats a date to the Thai culture in a variety of formats this is what I have for my code so far: public String[] FormatAsSpecified(DateTime theDate, String theCulture, String[] formats) { String[] dateResults = new String[formats.Length]; CultureInfo culture = CultureInfo.GetCultureInfo(theCulture); for (int i = 0; i < formats.Length; i++) { String culture_formatted_date = theDate.ToString(formats[i], culture); dateResults[i] = culture_formatted_date; } return dateResults; } This is the test method that goes with it: [TestMethod] public void FormatAsSpecifiedReturnsDateLiteralsInSpecifiedFormatForAllStandardFormatStrings() { //Arrange var controller = new DateController(); var theDate = new DateTime(2014, 2, 14, 9, 15, 32, 376); String theCulture = "th-TH"; // Array of all supported standard date and time format specifiers. String[] formats = { "d", "D", "f", "F", "g", "G", "m", "o", "r", "s", "t", "T", "u", "U", "Y" }; //Corresponding date literals for the standard Thai regional settings String[] expectedResults = {"14/2/2557" , "14 ?????????? 2557" , "14 ?????????? 2557 9:15" , "14 ?????????? 2557 9:15:32" , "14/2/2557 9:15" , "14/2/2557 9:15:32" , "14 ??????????" , "2014-02-14T09:15:32.3760000" , "Fri, 14 Feb 2014 09:15:32 GMT" , "2014-02-14T09:15:32" , "9:15" , "9:15:32" , "2014-02-14 09:15:32Z" , "??????????? 14 ?????????? 2014 9:15:32" , "?????????? 2557"}; //Act String[] actualResults = new String[15]; for (int i = 0; i < formats.Length; i++) { actualResults[i] = controller.FormatAsSpecified(theDate, theCulture, formats[i]); } //Assert CollectionAssert.AreEqual(expectedResults, actualResults); } I get an error in the test method at 'controller.FormatAsSpecified(theDate, theCulture, formats[i]);' that says "Argument 3, cannot convert from 'string' to 'string[]'" What am I doing wrong?

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• How do you deal with naming conventions for rails partials?

  - by DJTripleThreat

  For example, I might have an partial something like: <div> <%= f.label :some_field %><br/> <%= f.text_field :some_field %> </div> which works for edit AND new actions. I also will have one like: <div> <%=h some_field %> </div> for the show action. So you would think that all your partials go under one directory like shared or something. The problem that I see with this is that both of these would cause a conflict since they are essentially the same partial but for different actions so what I do is: <!-- for edit and new actions --> <%= render "shared_edit/some_partial" ... %> <!-- for show action --> <%= render "shared_show/some_partial" ... %> How do you handle this? Is a good idea or even possible to maybe combine all of these actions into one partial and render different parts by determining what the current action is?

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• how to get items that hasnot got a certain class in jquery?

  - by manraj82

  <ul id ='caseStudies'> <li class="humor crime fantasy hidden"> A </li> <li class="crime"> B </li> <li class="humor crime hidden"> C </li> <li class="humor crime"> D </li> <li class="humor crime fantasy action hidden"> E </li> <li class="fantasy action"> F </li> <li class="humor fantasy"> G </li> <li class="crime action hidden"> H </li> </ul> $('ul#caseStudies li.hidden').each(function() { }//this will get all the LI in the UL that has got class 'hidden' But how do i get all the LI in the UL that hasn got a class 'hidden'?

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• PHP header redirection does not reload <iframe> in IE

  - by Marco Demaio

  When displaying data from DB usually I'm in this situation I'm in page A.php that shows data from DB, user performs some action (like edit/delete etc) and page B.php is loaded to perform the action, once page B performed the action, it redirects browser to page A, page A is auto reloaded during step (3) therefor it shows an updated situation of the data In order to make page B to redirect to page A i use a simple PHP header("Location: " . "A.php", TRUE, 302); This works well in all situations, except when pages A.php is displaied into an <iframe>: in such a case it does not reload (step 4 does not get done). This seems to happen only in IE7 (don't know about IE8), it works perfectly on FF/Safari. And only when using an <iframe>, if page A.php is not in <iframe> it gest refreshed also in IE7. In order to solve this I simply added a couple of headers in page A.php to set it to not be cached: header("Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate"); // HTTP/1.1 header("Expires: Sat, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT"); // Date in the past But I was curious if you might have experienced the same issue too in the past, and if you good give me some advice about this?

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• iPhone Apps, Objective C, a Graph, and Functions vs. Objects (or something like that)

  - by BillEccles

  Gentleones, I've got a UIImageView that I have in a UIView. This particular UIImageView displays a PNG of a graph. It's important for this particular view controller and another view controller to know what the graph "looks like," i.e., the function described by the PNG graph. These other view controllers need to be able to call a "function" of some sort with the X value returning the Y value. Please ignore the fact (from an outsider's perspective) that I could probably generate the graph programmatically. So my questions are: 1 - Where should I put this function? Should it go in one view controller or the other, or should it go in its own class or main or...? 2 - Should it be an object in some way? Or should it be a straight function? (In either case, where's it belong?) Pardon the apparent n00b-iness of the question. It's 'cause I'm honestly a n00b! This OOP stuff is giving my head a spin having been a procedural programmer for 30 years. (And I choose to learn it by jumping into an iPhone app. Talk about baptism by fire!) Thanks in advance,Bill

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• Why are my connections not closed even if I explicitly dispose of the DataContext?

  - by Chris Simpson

  I encapsulate my linq to sql calls in a repository class which is instantiated in the constructor of my overloaded controller. The constructor of my repository class creates the data context so that for the life of the page load, only one data context is used. In my destructor of the repository class I explicitly call the dispose of the DataContext though I do not believe this is necessary. Using performance monitor, if I watch my User Connections count and repeatedly load a page, the number increases once per page load. Connections do not get closed or reused (for about 20 minutes). I tried putting Pooling=false in my config to see if this had any effect but it did not. In any case with pooling I wouldn't expect a new connection for every load, I would expect it to reuse connections. I've tried putting a break point in the destructor to make sure the dispose is being hit and sure enough it is. So what's happening? Some code to illustrate what I said above: The controller: public class MyController : Controller { protected MyRepository rep; public MyController () { rep = new MyRepository(); } } The repository: public class MyRepository { protected MyDataContext dc; public MyRepository() { dc = getDC(); } ~MyRepository() { if (dc != null) { //if (dc.Connection.State != System.Data.ConnectionState.Closed) //{ // dc.Connection.Close(); //} dc.Dispose(); } } // etc } Note: I add a number of hints and context information to the DC for auditing purposes. This is essentially why I want one connection per page load

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• iPhone: Does it ever make sense for an object to retain its delegate?

  - by randombits

  According to the rules of memory management in a non garbage collected world, one is not supposed to retain a the calling object in a delegate. Scenario goes like this: I have a class that inherits from UITableViewController and contains a search bar. I run expensive search operations in a secondary thread. This is all done with an NSOperationQueue and subclasses NSOperation instances. I pass the controller as a delegate that adheres to a callback protocol into the NSOperation. There are edge cases when the application crashes because once an item is selected from the UITableViewController, I dismiss it and thus its retain count goes to 0 and dealloc gets invoked on it. The delegate didn't get to send its message in time as the results are being passed at about the same time the dealloc happens. Should I design this differently? Should I call retain on my controller from the delegate to ensure it exists until the NSOperation itself is dealloc'd? Will this cause a memory leak? Right now if I put a retain on the controller, the crashes goes away. I don't want to leak memory though and need to understand if there are cases where retaining the delegate makes sense. Just to recap. UITableViewController creates an NSOperationQueue and NSOperation that gets embedded into the queue. The UITableViewController passes itself as a delegate to NSOperation. NSOperation calls a method on UITableViewController when it's ready. If I retain the UITableViewController, I guarantee it's there, but I'm not sure if I'm leaking memory. If I only use an assign property, edge cases occur where the UITableViewController gets dealloc'd and objc_msgSend() gets called on an object that doesn't exist in memory and a crash is imminent.

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• JQuery date picker does not firing in ajax page using Rails

  - by prabu

  Hi Here I have using datepicker from JQueryUI in my public/javascript folder as effects,prototype,control,dragdrop js files. in my public folder contains jqueryui development buddle. (css,js,development-bundle) in layout/application.rhtml <%= stylesheet_link_tag 'application' %> <%=javascript_include_tag :defaults%> <%= stylesheet_link_tag '/jquery-ui/css/custom-theme/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css' %> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"%> <%=javascript_include_tag "/jquery-ui/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js"%> <script> $(document).ready(function(){ var $j=jQuery.noConflict(); $j( '#date' ).datepicker({ dateFormat: 'dd-mm-yy' }); }); </script> in home/index.rhtml <%title "Home"%> <%=link_to "Add Details" ,:action=>"add"%> <%=link_to_remote "Ajax Add Details", :update=>"add" , :url=>{ :action=>"add" }%> <div id='add' /> in home/add.rhtml <%title "Add details"%> <%form_tag :action=>"create" do%> Name : <%=text_field_tag "name" ,"",:size=>15%> DOB : <%=text_field_tag "dob","",:id=>"date"%> <%=submit_tag "Save"%> <%end%> the datepicker works when I run home/add.rhtml directly but the datepicker not work when i run ajax page home/index.rhtml Any solutions for that,????

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