Search Results

Search found 127626 results on 5106 pages for 'http status code 408'.

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

Page 208/5106 | < Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >

  • Function of: if(/(file|http).*/.test(url)) { }

    - by WmasterJ
    I am wondering what this technique is called and what it does. It seems to be validating some regular expression on the variable url. I am customizing another persons code: var url = document.getElementById("editorURL").value; if(/(file|http).*/.test(url)) { } Maybe someone has a link to an article that explains this a bit more in-depth?

    Read the article

  • How to POST data to an HTTP page from an HTTPS page

    - by buster55
    I know this is a long shot, but I figured I'd ask the question anyway. I have an HTTPS page and am dynamically creating a form. I want to POST the form to an HTTP page. Is this possible without the browser popping up a warning? When I do this on IE8, I get the following message: Do you want to view only the webpage content that was delivered securely? Essentially, I'm asking about the inverse of question 1554237.

    Read the article

  • Email to HTTP call API?

    - by Janusz
    I am looking for some simple API that I could send email to and it would send HTTP GET request to a designated URL? Does something like that exist? Its fairly difficult to setup email monitoring using .NET (setting up windows service , POP3/IMAP access etc).

    Read the article

  • Get info about Http Post field order

    - by Eugene
    Is it possible to get information about post field order in ASP.NET? I need to know whether some field was the last one or not. I know I can do it through Request.InputStream, but I’m looking for a more high level solution without manually stream parsing. Generally I’m doing testing of http post sent by my application and there is no practical usage for this in ASP.NET.

    Read the article

  • Net::HTTP Gives time out but browser visit returns data

    - by steve
    I tried the following Net::HTTP.get_print URI.parse(URI.encode('https://graph.facebook.com/me/likes?access_token=mytoken', '|')) (My Token is my actual token in code) I get a EOFError: end of file reached error If I visit the page with my browswer it loads up a JSON page. Any idea what could be causing the error? It was working a few days ago. Can't see any changes to facebook api.

    Read the article

  • Unit testing http handlers?

    - by MockedMan.Object
    My current project based in Asp .net makes considerable use of Http handlers to process various requests? So, is there any way by which I can test the functionality of each of the handlers using unit test cases? We are using Nunit and Moq framework to facilitate unit testing.

    Read the article

  • Streaming HTTP response, flushing to the browser

    - by synic
    I've got a view like the following: from django.views.decorators.http import condition def stream(): for i in range(0, 40): yield " " * 1024 yield "%d" % i time.sleep(1) @condition(etag_func=None): def view(request): return HttpResponse(stream(), mimetype='text/html') However, it definitely doesn't seem to be streaming at all. All the data is dumped at once, at the end, after about 40 seconds. How can I get it to flush correctly?

    Read the article

  • mgtwitterengine and oauth 401 error: Boggled

    - by Jason
    OK... so here is my code: twitterEngine = [[MGTwitterEngine alloc] initWithDelegate:self]; [twitterEngine setConsumerKey:CONSUMER_KEY secret:CONSUMER_SECRET]; accessToken = [twitterEngine getXAuthAccessTokenForUsername:profile.twitterUserId password:profile.twitterPassword]; NSLog(@"Access token: %@", accessToken); the console shows the access token returned just fine (so it seems to work) eg. Access token: C8A24515-0F11-4B5A-8813-XXXXXXXXXXXXXX but instead of accessTokenReceived method being called next on my delegate, it calls requestFailed with a 401. How can I be getting a 401 unauthorized and getting an access token back from the method call?????

    Read the article

  • Generating new sources via Maven plugin after compile phase

    - by japher
    I have a Maven project within which I need execute two code generation steps. One generates some Java types, then the second depends on those Java types to generate some more code. Is there a way to have both of these steps happening during my build? At the moment my steps are: execute first code generation plugin (during generate-sources) add directory of generated types to build path execute second code generation plugin (during compile) However my problem is that anything generated by the second code generation plugin will not be compiled (because the compile phase has finished). If I attach the second code generation plugin to an earlier phase, it fails because it needs the classes from the first code generation plugin to be present on the classpath. I know I could split this into two modules with one dependent on the other, but I was wondering if this could be achieved in one pom. It seems like a need a way to invoke compile again after the normal compile phase is complete. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • What do you consider your "worst" hack?

    - by magcius
    What is the worst hack you've ever written? This is different from What is the worst code you've ever written?, because that, as I understand it, revolves around code later called worst because of ignorance. hack: code written, knowing it is horrible code, for the sake of convenience, deadlines, working around another broken system or bug, etc., but not ignorance. If you want, you can describe your co-workers' reaction, how bad your hospital bill was after showing them the code, if you felt disappointed in yourself for coming up with it or proud of yourself for coming up with a creative and clever solution. This doesn't have to be shipped code, this could also be code written for personal purposes.

    Read the article

  • Server.Transfer("error_404.aspx") in Application_Error returns a blank page

    - by qntmfred
    I look for HttpExceptions in the Application_Error sub of my global.asx Sub Application_Error(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim ex As Exception = HttpContext.Current.Server.GetLastError() If ex IsNot Nothing Then If TypeOf (ex) Is HttpUnhandledException Then If ex.InnerException Is Nothing Then Server.Transfer("error.aspx", False) End If ex = ex.InnerException End If If TypeOf (ex) Is HttpException Then Dim httpCode As Integer = CType(ex, HttpException).GetHttpCode() If httpCode = 404 Then Server.ClearError() Server.Transfer("error_404.aspx", False) End If End If End If End Sub I can step through this code and confirm it does hit the Server.Transfer("error_404.aspx"), as well as the Page_Load of error_404.aspx, but all it shows is a blank page.

    Read the article

  • How to obtain the native stacktrace from native exceptions caught in managed code

    - by aaa
    I have some managed code that calls to a method inside some native DLL(i have the appropriate symbol files). Sometimes, that native method throws an exception which I catch in my managed code. However, when i print the stacktrace from my caught exception, I see only managed code (the last frame is the call to the native code .. but it don't see the stacktrack within the native code). How can I obtain the native callstack as well? *When i'm debugging the code, i am able to step into the native code, and see the actuall call stack.

    Read the article

  • What is wrong with my Basic Authentication in my Browser?

    - by Pure.Krome
    Hi folks, i'm trying to goto the following url :- http://user1:pass1@localhost:1234/api/users?format=xml nothing to complex. Notice how i've got the username/password in the url? this, i believe, is for basic authentication. When I do that, the Request Headers are MISSING the 'Authorize' header. Er... that's not right :( I have anonymous authentication only setup on the site. I don't want to have anon off and basic turned on .. because not all of the site requires basic.. only a few action methods. So .. why is this not working? Is this something to do with the fact my code is not sending a 401 challenge or some crap? For What It's Worth, my site is ASP.NET MVC1 running on IIS7 (and the same thing happens when i run it on cassini). Update: If this is an illegal way of calling a resource using basic auth (ala security flaw) .. then is this possible to do, for an ASP.NET MVC website .. per action method (and not the entire site, per say)?

    Read the article

  • silverlight 3: long running wcf call triggers 401.1 (access denied)

    - by sympatric greg
    I have a wcf service consumed by a silverlight 3 control. The Silverlight client uses a basicHttpBindinging that is constructed at runtime from the control's initialization parameters like this: public static T GetServiceClient<T>(string serviceURL) { BasicHttpBinding binding = new BasicHttpBinding(Application.Current.Host.Source.Scheme.Equals("https", StringComparison.InvariantCultureIgnoreCase) ? BasicHttpSecurityMode.Transport : BasicHttpSecurityMode.None); binding.MaxReceivedMessageSize = int.MaxValue; binding.MaxBufferSize = int.MaxValue; binding.Security.Mode = BasicHttpSecurityMode.TransportCredentialOnly; return (T)Activator.CreateInstance(typeof(T), new object[] { binding, new EndpointAddress(serviceURL)}); } The Service implements windows security. Calls were returning as expected until the result set increased to several thousand rows at which time HTTP 401.1 errors were received. The Service's HttpBinding defines closeTime, openTimeout, receiveTimeout and sendTimeOut of 10 minutes. If I limit the size of the resultset the call suceeds. Additional Observations from Fiddler: When Method2 is modified to return a smaller resultset (and avoid the problem), control initialization consists of 4 calls: Service1/Method1 -- result:401 Service1/Method1 -- result:401 (this time header includes element "Authorization: Negotiate TlRMTV..." Service1/Method1 -- result:200 Service1/Method2 -- result:200 (1.25 seconds) When Method2 is configured to return the larger resultset we get: Service1/Method1 -- result:401 Service1/Method1 -- result:401 (this time header includes element "Authorization: Negotiate TlRMTV..." Service1/Method1 -- result:200 Service1/Method2 -- result:401.1 (7.5 seconds) Service1/Method2 -- result:401.1 (15ms) Service1/Method2 -- result:401.1 (7.5 seconds)

    Read the article

  • are there any negative implications of sourcing a javascript file that does not actually exist?

    - by dreftymac
    If you do script src="/path/to/nonexistent/file.js" in an HTML file and call that in a browser, and there are no dependencies or resources anywhere else in the HTML file that expect the file or code therein to actually exist, is there anything inherently bad-practice about doing this? Yes, it is an odd question. The rationale is the developer is dealing with a CMS that allows custom (self-contained) javascript files to be provided in certain circumstances. The problem is the CMS is not very flexible when it comes to creating conditional includes for javascript. Therefore it is easier to just make references to the self-contained js files regardless of whether they are actually at the specified path. Since no errors are displayed to the user, should this practice be considered a viable option?

    Read the article

  • IIS7 or .Net 301 Redirects from 1 domain to another

    - by RandomBen
    I have 2 domains. For the question, I will call them www.old.com and www.new.com. Both urls are pointing to the same IIS7 Site instance. I need to it up so that when someone goes to www.old.com they get a 301 redirect to www.new.com. The tricky part is I am using URL rewrites for pages within the site. So www.old.com/About.aspx redirects to www.new.com/About. To get that to work with IIS7 URL rewrite rules, it also means that www.new.com/About.aspx redirects to www.new.com/About. That is fine and is not a big deal. My issue is how do I redirect the main domain without losing the URL Rewrites from the sub pages? I don't care if I use a module within IIS7 or if I need to do it in .NET code.

    Read the article

facebook twitter digg google delicious technorati stumbleupon myspace wordpress linkedin gmail igoogle windows live tumblr viadeo yahoo buzz yahoo mail yahoo bookmarks favorites email print

< Previous Page | 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215  | Next Page >