Search Results

Search found 6055 results on 243 pages for 'forms'.

Page 209/243 | < Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >

  • 2 Mutually exclusive RadioButton "Lists"

    - by user72603
    I think this has to be THE most frustrating thing I've ever done in web forms. Yet one would think it would be the easiest of all things in the world to do. That is this: I need 2 separate lists of radiobuttons on my .aspx page. One set allows a customer to select an option. The other set does also but for a different purpose. But only one set can have a selected radiobutton. Ok I've tried this using 2 asp.net Radiobuttonlists controls on the same page. Got around the nasty bug with GroupName (asp.net assigns the control's uniqueID which prevents the groupname from ever working because now, 2 radiobuttonlists can't have the same groupname for all their radiobuttons because each radiobuttonlist has a different uniqueID thus the bug assigns the unique ID as the name attribute when the buttons are rendered. since the name sets are different, they are not mutually exclusive). Anyway, so I created that custom RadioButtonListcontrol and fixed that groupname problem. But when ended up happening is when I went to put 2 instances of my new custom radiobuttonlist control on my .aspx page, all was swell until I noticed that every time I checked for radiobuttonlist1.SelectedValue or radiobuttonlist2.SelectedValue (did not matter which I was checking) the value always spit back string.empty and i was not able to figure out why (see http://forums.asp.net/t/1401117.aspx). Ok onto the third try tonight and into the break of dawn (no sleep). I tried to instead just scrap trying to use 2 custom radiobuttonlists altogether because of that string.empty issue and try to spit out 2 sets of radiobuttonlists via using 2 asp.net repeaters and a standard input HTML tag inside. Got that working. Ok but the 2 lists still are not mutually exclusive. I can select a value in the first set of radiobuttons from repeater1 and same goes for repeater2. I cannot for the life of me get the "sets" to be mutually exclusive sets of radiobuttons.

    Read the article

  • What kinds of problems are most likely to occur? (question rewritten)

    - by ChrisC
    If I wrote 1) a C# SQL db app (a simple program consisting of a gui over some forms with logic for interfacing with the sql db) 2) for home use, that doesn't do any network communication 3) that uses a simple, reliable, and appropriate sql db 4) whose gui is properly separated from the logic 5) that has complete and dependable input data validation 6) that has been completely tested so that 100% of logic bugs were eliminated ... and then if the program was installed and run by random users on their random Windows computers Q1) What types of technical (non-procedural) problems and support situations are most likely to occur, and how likely are they? Q2) Are there more/other things I could do in the first place to prevent those problems and also minimize the amount of user support required? I know some answers will apply to my specific platforms (C#, SQL, Windows, etc) and some won't. Please be as specific as is possible. Mitch Wheat gave me some very valuable advice below, but I'm now offering the bounty because I am hoping to get a better picture of the kinds of things that I'm most reasonably likely to encounter. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • inserting a form to session raises picklingerror - django

    - by shanyu
    I receive an exception when I add a form to the session: PicklingError: Can't pickle <class 'django.utils.functional.__proxy__'>: attribute lookup django.utils.functional.__proxy__ failed The form includes a few simple fields and has some javascript attached to a widget. It might be that Django forms cannot be pickled at all, but the exception seems to point to unicode lazy translation. To test further, I have also tried to insert only the form errors (an errordict) to the session and received the same error. I appreciate some help here, thanks in advance. EDIT: Here's why I insert a form into the session: I have an app that has a form. This form is rendered by a template tag in another app. When posted, if the form is valid, no problem, I do stuff and redirect to "next". However if it is not valid, I want to go back to the posting page to show errors. Recall that the comments app in this case redirects to an intermediate "hey, please fix the errors" page. I am trying to avoid this, and hence redirect back to the posting page with the form and its errors in the session that the template tag will render.

    Read the article

  • What's wrong with this code to un-camel-case a string?

    - by omair iqbal
    Here is my attempt to solve the About.com Delphi challenge to un-camel-case a string. unit challenge1; interface uses Windows, Messages, SysUtils, Variants, Classes, Graphics, Controls, Forms, Dialogs, StdCtrls; type check = 65..90; TForm1 = class(TForm) Edit1: TEdit; Button1: TButton; procedure Button1Click(Sender: TObject); private { Private declarations } public { Public declarations } end; var Form1: TForm1; var s1,s2 :string; int : integer; implementation {$R *.dfm} procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var i: Integer; checks : set of check; begin s1 := edit1.Text; for i := 1 to 20 do begin int :=ord(s1[i]) ; if int in checks then insert(' ',s1,i-1); end; showmessage(s1); end; end. check is a set that contains capital letters so basically whenever a capital letter is encountered the insert function adds space before its encountered (inside the s1 string), but my code does nothing. ShowMessage just shows text as it was entered in Edit1. What have I done wrong?

    Read the article

  • restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

    - by Justin Grant
    I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

    Read the article

  • How to access and run field events from extension js?

    - by Dan Roberts
    I have an extension that helps in submitting forms automatically for a process at work. We are running into a problem with dual select boxes where one option is selected and then that selection changes another field's options. Since setting an option selected property to true doesn't trigger the field's onchange event I am trying to do so through code. The problem I've run into is that if I try to access or run functions on the field object from the extension, I get the error Error: uncaught exception: [Exception... "Component is not available" nsresult: "0x80040111 (NS_ERROR_NOT_AVAILABLE)" location: "JS frame :: chrome://webformsidebar/content/webformsidebar.js :: WebFormSidebar_FillProcess :: line 499" data: no] the line causing the error is... if (typeof thisField.onchange === 'function') The line right before it works just fine... thisField.options[t].selected=true; ...so I'm not sure why this is resulting in such an error. What surprises me most I guess is that checking for the existence of the function leads to an error. It feels like the problem is related to the code running in the context of the extension instead of the browser window document. If so, is there any way to call a function in the browser window context instead? Do I need to actually inject code into the page somehow? Any other ideas? Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Group

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, Customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.) In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on their account. When calling something like ValidateUser, I have access to their affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to which to compare it. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • What is the best way to call a method right AFTER a form loads?

    - by Jordan S
    I have a C# windows forms application. The way I currently have it set up, when Form1_Load() runs it checks for recovered unsaved data and if it finds some it prompts the user if they want to open that data. When the program runs it works alright but the message box is shown right away and the main program form (Form1) does not show until after the user clicks yes or no. I would like the Form1 to pop up first and then the message box prompt. Now to get around this problem before I have created a timer in my Form, started the timer in the Form1_Load() method, and then performed the check and user prompt in the first Timer Tick Event. This technique solves the problem but is seems like there might be a better way. Do you guys have any better ideas? Edit: I think I have also used a background worker to do something similar. It just seems kinda goofy to go through all the trouble of invoking the method to back to the form thread and all that crap just to have it delayed a couple milliseconds!

    Read the article

  • import the data in xls file and open them without Microsoft Excel

    - by user3669577
    I need to perform an application that cath values from SQL database after the esecution of a query. I must import the data in xls file and open them without Microsoft Excel. I'm a beginner and have too many problem. Can anyone help me. This is my code, at the moment: Option Infer On Imports System.Linq Imports System.Data.SqlClient Imports System Imports System.IO Imports System.Drawing Imports System.Drawing.Printing Imports System.Windows.Forms Imports ExcelLibrary.SpreadSheet Public Class frmLottiCaricati Dim CnSql As SqlConnection Private Sub frmLottiCaricati_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Me.MdiParent = Inizio 'TB_MinusValenza.Text = VariazionePrezzi.MinusValenza 'TB_Periodo.Text = VariazionePrezzi.Periodo 'DG_Prodotti.AutoGenerateColumns = False Try Dim StringaSql = "Integrated Security=SSPI;Persist Security Info=False;Initial Catalog=" + Inizio.DatabaseSql + ";Data Source=" + Inizio.ServerSql + ";User ID=" + Inizio.UtenteSql + ";Password=" + Inizio.PwdSql CnSql = New SqlConnection(StringaSql) CnSql.Open() Dim command As SqlCommand Dim dadapter As New SqlDataAdapter Dim DS_Prodotti As New Data.DataSet Dim qry_Prodotti = "SELECT sistemaf.prodscadenze.Ministeriale, sistemaf.prodscadenze.Lotto, sistemaf.prodscadenze.Scadenza " & _ "FROM sistemaf.Prodscadenze " 'INNER JOIN sistemaf.Prodscadenze ON sistemaf.prodbase.Cod39 = sistemaf.prodscadenze.Ministeriale ;" command = New SqlCommand(qry_Prodotti, CnSql) dadapter.SelectCommand = command dadapter.Fill(DS_Prodotti) DG_Prodotti.DataSource = DS_Prodotti.Tables(0) 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Descrizione").Width = 220 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Ministeriale").Width = 60 DG_Prodotti.Columns("Lotto").Width = 60 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Descrizione").AutoSizeMode = DataGridViewAutoSizeColumnMode.AllCells 'DG_Prodotti.Columns("Totale").DefaultCellStyle.Alignment = DataGridViewContentAlignment.MiddleRight Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show(ex.Message) End Try End Sub End Class I can open the data only with Microsoft Excel now. Have any suggestions?

    Read the article

  • css problem - 'post link'

    - by csetzkorn
    Hi, I am no css expert so I am wondering whether someone could help. I have several forms to delete an item like this: <form action="/Items/DeleteItem" class="deleteForm" method="post"> Some text <input id="Id" name="Id" value="14014" type="hidden"> <input value="Delete" class="link_button" type="submit"> </form> This should look like this: Some text Delete Here ‘Some text’ describes the item and Delete is a ‘link’ which performs a post request to delete the item (as virtually all browsers only support the post and get requests). I have started to style things (CSS below) but the ‘Delete’ ‘link’ is still slightly offset in relation to ‘Some text’ (at least in firefox). I would appreciate any help with the css. Thanks! .link_button { background-color:white; border:0; color:#034af3; text-decoration:underline; font-size:1em; font-family:inherit; cursor:pointer; float:left; margin:0; padding:0; } .deleteForm { float:right; margin:0; padding:0; } Christian

    Read the article

  • asp.net mvc: What is the correct way to return html from controller to refresh select list?

    - by Mark Redman
    Hi, I am new to ASP.NET MVC, particularly ajax operations. I have a form with a jquery dialog for adding items to a drop-down list. This posts to the controller action. If nothing (ie void method) is returned from the Controller Action the page returns having updated the database, but obviously there no chnage to the form. What would be the best practice in updating the drop down list with the added id/value and selecting the item. I think my options are: 1) Construct and return the html manually that makes up the new <select> tag [this would be easy enough and work, but seems like I am missing something] 2) Use some kind of "helper" to construct the new html [This seems to make sense] 3) Only return the id/value and add this to the list and select the item [This seems like an overkill considering the item needs to be placed in the correct order etc] 4) Use some kind of Partial View [Does this mean creating additional forms within ascx controls? not sure how this would effect submitting the main form its on? Also unless this is reusable by passing in parameters(not sure how thats done) maybe 2 is the option?] UPDATE: Having looked around a bit, it seems that generating html withing the controller is not a good idea. I have seen other posts that render partialviews to strings which I guess is what I need and separates concerns (since the html bits are in the ascx). Any comments on whether that is good practice.

    Read the article

  • Zend_Form using subforms getValues() problem

    - by wiseguydigital
    Hi all, I am building a form in Zend Framework 1.9 using subforms as well as Zend_JQuery being enabled on those forms. The form itself is fine and all the error checking etc is working as normal. But the issue I am having is that when I'm trying to retrieve the values in my controller, I'm receiving just the form entry for the last subform e.g. My master form class (abbreviated for speed): Master_Form extends Zend_Form { public function init() { ZendX_JQuery::enableForm($this); $this->setAction('actioninhere') ... ->setAttrib('id', 'mainForm') $sub_one = new Form_One(); $sub_one->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_one, 'form-one'); $sub_two = new Form_Two(); $sub_two->setDecorators(... in here I add the jQuery as per the docs); $this->addSubForm($sub_two, 'form-two'); } } So that all works as it should in the display and when I submit without filling in the required values, the correct errors are returned. However, in my controller I have this: class My_Controller extends Zend_Controller_Action { public function createAction() { $request = $this->getRequest(); $form = new Master_Form(); if ($request->isPost()) { if ($form->isValid($request->getPost()) { // This is where I am having the problems print_r($form->getValues()); } } } } When I submit this and it gets past isValid(), the $form-getValues() is only returning the elements from the second subform, not the entire form.

    Read the article

  • User preferences using SQL and JavaScript

    - by Shyam
    Hi, I am using Server Side JavaScript - yes, I am actually using Server Side JavaScript. To complexify things even more, I use Oracle as a backend database (10g). With some crazy XSLT and mutant-like HTML generation, I can build really fancy web forms - yes, I am aware of Rails and other likewise frameworks and I choose the path of horror instead. I have no JQuery or other fancy framework at my disposal, just plain ol' JavaScript that should be supported by the underlying engine called Mozilla Rhino. Yes, it is insane and I love it. So, I have a bunch of tables at my disposal and some of them are filled with associative keys that link to values. As I am a people pleaser, I want to add some nifty user-preference driven solutions. My users have all an unique user_id and this user_id is available during the entire session. My initial idea is to have a user preference table, where I have "three" columns: user_id, feature and pref_string. Using a delimiter, such as : or - (haven't thought about a suitable one yet), I could like store a bunch of preferences as a list and store its elements inside an array using the .split-method (similar like the PHP-explode function). The feature column could be like the table name or some identifier for the "feature" i want to link preferences too. I hate hardcoding objects, especially as I want to be able to back these up and reuse this functionality application-wide. Of course I would love better ideas, just keep in mind I cannot just add a library that easily. These preferences could be like "joined" to the table, so I can query it and use its values. I hope it doesn't sounds too complex, because well.. its basically something really simple I need. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What MS technology to use for HTTP service returning XML?

    - by Borek
    I need to create a service that: accepts HTTP requests (with query string or HTTP POST parameters) does some processing on the requests (checking if the request is valid, authentication etc.) reads data from a custom store (another HTTP call in our case) returns the result as custom XML (defined with XSD) I'm trying to think of various MS technologies that could help me and how good they would be for this scenario (pretty standard one I guess). The tasks above are relatively separate, this is what comes to mind: HTTP front-end: ASP.NET Web Forms ASP.NET MVC (seems more appropriate here as I won't need server controls, view state etc.) WCF? Don't know much about it or how well it would suit my task. Custom logic on the server: this will probably be a generic C# code in all cases (sometimes "plugged into" or called from MVC controllers or some equivalent place in other technologies) Reading data from internal data stores: As said, this is another HTTP server in our case. Options that come to mind: Just read the data using something like WebClient (Just theoretically) implement a LINQ provider (Just even more theoretically) implement an EF provider Output the data as custom XML: Linq2XML Serialization? Is it flexible enough? Does WCF provide some tools for this? Some "OXM" - Object/XML mapper if there is something like that for .NET I may be wrong in many of my assumptions, this is just a quick list that comes to mind after a quick research. Some general notes / questions: Testing is important Solution with a clear domain model would be much preferred over the one without Can Entity Framework actually help somewhere in my scenario? If so, where and how? Would WCF be an appropriate technology for this? I don't know much about it.

    Read the article

  • C# app running as either Windows Form or as Console Application

    - by Aeolien
    I am looking to have one of my Windows Forms applications be run programmatically—from the command line. In preparation, I have separated the logic in its own class from the Form. Now I am stuck trying to get the application to switch back and forth based on the presence of command line arguments. Here is the code for the main class: static class Program { /// <summary> /// The main entry point for the application. /// </summary> [STAThread] static void Main() { string[] args = Environment.GetCommandLineArgs(); if (args.Length > 1) // gets passed its path, by default { CommandLineWork(args); return; } Application.EnableVisualStyles(); Application.SetCompatibleTextRenderingDefault(false); Application.Run(new Form1()); } private static void CommandLineWork(string[] args) { Console.WriteLine("It works!"); Console.ReadLine(); } where Form1 is my form and the It works! string is just a placeholder for the actual logic. Right now, when running this from within Visual Studio (with command line arguments), the phrase It works! is printed to the Output. However, when running the /bin/Debug/Program.exe file (or /Release for that matter) the application crashes. Am I going about this the right way? Would it make more sense (i.e. take less developer time) to have my logic class be a DLL that gets loaded by two separate applications? Or is there something entirely different that I'm not aware of? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • How do I build a JSON object to send to an AJAX WebService?

    - by Ben McCormack
    After trying to format my JSON data by hand in javascript and failing miserably, I realized there's probably a better way. Here's what the code for the web service method and relevant classes looks like in C#: [WebMethod] public Response ValidateAddress(Request request) { return new test_AddressValidation().GenerateResponse( test_AddressValidation.ResponseType.Ambiguous); } ... public class Request { public Address Address; } public class Address { public string Address1; public string Address2; public string City; public string State; public string Zip; public AddressClassification AddressClassification; } public class AddressClassification { public int Code; public string Description; } The web service works great with using SOAP/XML, but I can't seem to get a valid response using javascript and jQuery because the message I get back from the server has a problem with my hand-coded JSON. I can't use the jQuery getJSON function because the request requires HTTP POST, so I'm using the lower-level ajax function instead: $.ajax({ type: "POST", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", url: "http://bmccorm-xp/HBUpsAddressValidation/AddressValidation.asmx/ValidateAddress", data: "{\"Address\":{\"Address1\":\"123 Main Street\",\"Address2\":null,\"City\":\"New York\",\"State\":\"NY\",\"Zip\":\"10000\",\"AddressClassification\":null}}", dataType: "json", success: function(response){ alert(response); } }) The ajax function is submitting everything specified in data:, which is where my problem is. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object in javascript so I can plug it in to my ajax call like so: data: theRequest I'll eventually be pulling data out of text inputs in forms, but for now hard-coded test data is fine. How do I build a properly formatted JSON object to send to the web service?

    Read the article

  • Am I a discoverer of a bug in the WPF engine?

    - by bitbonk
    We have a MFC 8 application compiled with /CLR that contains a larger amount of Windows Forms UserControls wich again contain WPF user controls using ElementHost. Due to the architecture of our software we can not use HwndHost directly. We observed an extremely strange behavior here that we can not make any sense of: When the CPU load is very high during startup of the application and there are a lot live of ElementHost instances, the whole property engine completely stops working. For example animations that usually just work fine now never update the values of the bound properties, they just stay at some random value after startup. When I set a property that is not bound to anything the value is correctly stored in the dependency property (calling the getter returns the new value) but the visual representation never reflects that. I set the background to red but the background color does not change. We tested this on a lot of different machines all running Windows XP SP2 and it is pretty reproducible. The funny thing here is, that there is in fact one situation where the bound properties actually pickup a new value from the animation and the visual gets updated based on the property values. It is when I resize the ElementHost or when I hide and reshow the parent native control. As soon as I do this, properties that are bound to an animation pickup a new value and the visuals rerender based on the new property values - but just once - if I want to see another update I have to resize the ElementHost. Do you have any explanation of what could be happening here or how I could approach this problem to find it out? What can I do to debug this? Is there a way I can get more information about what WPF actually does or where WPF might have crashed? To me it currently seems like a bug in WPF itself since it only happens at high CPU load at startup.

    Read the article

  • how to do display text message from cellphone to textbox

    - by Jiggy Degamo
    I am just making a project automated polling system using sms but i just a beginner of serial communication i have seen a code on the net so i apply it as my guide just a simple text message and display it on the textbox it connects but the provlem is its didn't display on the textbox. here is the code below please help me why it didn't display and please give me a cite that have a tutorial of serial communication using vb.net Imports System.IO.Ports Public Class Form1 Dim inputData As String = "" Private WithEvents serialPort1 As New IO.Ports.SerialPort Public Event DataReceived As IO.Ports.SerialDataReceivedEventHandler Private Sub Form1_FormClosed(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Windows.Forms.FormClosedEventArgs) Handles Me.FormClosed ' Close the Serial Port serialPort1.Close() End Sub Private Sub Form1_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Set values for some properties serialPort1.PortName = "COM10" serialPort1.BaudRate = 2400 SerialPort1.Parity = IO.Ports.Parity.None SerialPort1.DataBits = 8 SerialPort1.StopBits = IO.Ports.StopBits.One SerialPort1.Handshake = IO.Ports.Handshake.None SerialPort1.RtsEnable = True ' Open the Serial Port SerialPort1.Open() 'Writes data to the Serial Port output buffer If SerialPort1.IsOpen = True Then SerialPort1.Write("MicroCommand") End If End Sub ' Receive data from the Serial Port 'Show received data on UI controls and do something Public Sub DoUpdate() TextBox1.Text = TextBox1.Text & inputData End Sub Private Sub serialPort1_DataReceived(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.IO.Ports.SerialDataReceivedEventArgs) Handles serialPort1.DataReceived inputData = serialPort1.ReadExisting 'or serialPort1.ReadLine Me.Invoke(New EventHandler(AddressOf DoUpdate)) End Sub End Class

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

    - by Jimmo
    I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

    Read the article

  • Passing parameters in MVC

    - by Avinash
    Thare is two forms in a page first one for searching and another for deleting.... <table><tr><td> <% using(Html.BeginForm("ViewList","ControllerName", [values],FormMethod.Post,new{id="viewListForm"})) { %> Name: <%=Html.TextBox("Name", "[value]", new { maxlength = "250" })%> Location: <%=Html.TextBox("Location", "[Value]", new { maxlength = "250" })%> <input type="submit" id="Search" name="Search" value="Search" /> <% } %> </td></tr> <tr><td> <% using(Html.BeginForm("DeleteList","ControllerName", new { name=?,location=? },[values],FormMethod.Post, new{id="deleteListForm"})) { %> [here the code for all items displayed in a table.] <input type="submit" id="Delete" name="Delete" value="Delete" /> When delete buttom pressed i need to pass two parameters ie name and location. The values of name and location are in the above viewListForm. How i take this value from the viewListForm at run time ? <% } %> </td></tr><table>

    Read the article

  • How do I design a Wizard-based system with SoC in mind?

    - by Erik Forbes
    I'm building a Windows Forms system (in C# if it matters to anyone) that provides an application automation service. As this application is targeted at users who are not computer savvy, I've decided to break up the functions of the application into various tasks, and provide these tasks via a wizard UI. I'd like to avoid coupling the views and view engine (from which the Wizard will be built) to the automation engine. The problem I'm having is that the automation engine, which runs on a separate thread while it does its thing, needs to report status information back to the user, as well as listen for cancel or pause events from the user. Since I don't want the view engine or the automation engine to rely on each other, I'm having a hard time figuring out how to provide for this information conduit. Any insights into this issue I'm having would be greatly appreciated. I've been wracking my brain for a couple weeks now on this point, and I really don't want to give up and just couple everything together. If anyone needs additional details to help come up with some sort of idea please let me know and I'll be happy to provide them.

    Read the article

  • Open the Word Application from a button on a web page

    - by Andrea
    I'm developing a proof of concept web application: A web page with a button that opens the Word Application installed on the user's PC. I'm stuck with a C# project in Visual Studio 2008 Express (Windows XP client, LAMP server). I've followed the Writing an ActiveX Control in .NET tutorial and after some tuning it worked fine. Then I added my button for opening Word. The problem is that I can reference the Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word from the project, but I'm not able to access it from the web page. The error says "That assembly does not allow partially trusted callers". I've read a lot about security in .NET, but I'm totally lost now. Disclaimer: I'm into .NET since 4 days ago. I've tried to work around this issue but I cannot see the light!! I don't even know if it will ever be possible! using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.ComponentModel; using System.Drawing; using System.Data; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows.Forms; using Word = Microsoft.Office.Interop.Word; using System.IO; using System.Security.Permissions; using System.Security; [assembly: AllowPartiallyTrustedCallers] namespace OfficeAutomation { public partial class UserControl1 : UserControl { public UserControl1() { InitializeComponent(); } private void openWord_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { try { Word.Application Word_App = null; Word_App = new Word.Application(); Word_App.Visible = true; } catch (Exception exc) { MessageBox.Show("Can't open Word application (" + exc.ToString() + ")"); } } } }

    Read the article

  • How to Create a Folder in the Current Document Library if it's not already present?

    - by Rosh Malai
    All I want to do is to create a folder "MetaFolder" inside a document library. User can be on any document library and I would like to create this folder after item is added (so on itemAdded event handler). I do NOT want workflow so please dont suggest workflow. This code works but I have to hardcode the url but need to get url from current url. also need to verify the folder uHippo does not exists in the current doc library... public override void ItemAdded(SPItemEventProperties properties) { base.ItemAdded(properties); using (SPSite currentSite = new SPSite(properties.WebUrl)) using (SPWeb currentWeb = currentSite.OpenWeb()) { // This code works and creates Folder in the "My TEST Doc library" //SPList docLib = currentWeb.Lists["My TEST Doc Library"]; //SPListItem folder = docLib.Folders.Add(docLib.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "My folder"); //folder.Update(); string doclibname = "Not a doclib"; //SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetList(HttpContext.Current.Request.RawUrl); // NOT WORKING. Tried properties.weburl SPList doclibList = currentWeb.GetListFromUrl("https://mycompanyportal/sites/testsitecol/testwebsite/My%20TEST%20Doc%20Library/Forms/AllItems.aspx"); if (null != doclibList) { doclibname = doclibList.Title; } // this section also not working. // getting Object reference not set to an instance of an object or something like that. //if (currentWeb.GetFolder("uHippo").Exists == false) //{ SPListItem folder = doclibList.Folders.Add(doclibList.RootFolder.ServerRelativeUrl, SPFileSystemObjectType.Folder, "uHippo"); folder.Update(); //} } }

    Read the article

  • Google Calendar like interface

    - by John Virgolino
    I need to write an application that essentially functions like a week-view of a calendar, columns for the days and then rows for appointments. Where the height of the appointment box visually represents time. In my case, I just don't want the time of day as the vertical axis, I just want hours or mins. The Google AJAX approach is very clean and easy to use and would be perfect, I think, but my major knowledge comes in ASP.Net and Windows Forms (.Net). I don't want to reinvent the wheel, but I find my mind is stuck on this problem and that I would have to create an interface from scratch for this. I have checked out the Infragistics product (used it for other projects) and read up a lot on the Google API's including their Ajax toolkit. I haven't done Java, however learning a language is not my issue, it's learning the particulars that will help me reach my goal that I feel will take most of the time. Am I making a mountain out of a mole hill? Is this really a lot easier than I think? This is starting to sound like a Dear Abby post - I'll stop now. Any advice or insight would be great! Thanks all!

    Read the article

  • SQL - Updating records based on most recent date

    - by Remnant
    I am having difficulty updating records within a database based on the most recent date and am looking for some guidance. By the way, I am new to SQL. As background, I have a windows forms application with SQL Express and am using ADO.NET to interact with the database. The application is designed to enable the user to track employee attendance on various courses that must be attended on a periodic basis (e.g. every 6 months, every year etc.). For example, they can pull back data to see the last time employees attended a given course and also update attendance dates if an employee has recently completed a course. I have three data tables: EmployeeDetailsTable - simple list of employees names, email address etc., each with unique ID CourseDetailsTable - simple list of courses, each with unique ID (e.g. 1, 2, 3 etc.) AttendanceRecordsTable - has 3 columns { EmployeeID, CourseID, AttendanceDate, Comments } For any given course, an employee will have an attendance history i.e. if the course needs to be attended each year then they will have one record for as many years as they have been at the company. What I want to be able to do is to update the 'Comments' field for a given employee and given course based on the most recent attendance date. What is the 'correct' SQL syntax for this? I have tried many things (like below) but cannot get it to work: UPDATE AttendanceRecordsTable SET Comments = @Comments WHERE AttendanceRecordsTable.EmployeeID = (SELECT EmployeeDetailsTable.EmployeeID FROM EmployeeDetailsTable WHERE (EmployeeDetailsTable.LastName =@ParameterLastName AND EmployeeDetailsTable.FirstName =@ParameterFirstName) AND AttendanceRecordsTable.CourseID = (SELECT CourseDetailsTable.CourseID FROM CourseDetailsTable WHERE CourseDetailsTable.CourseName =@CourseName)) GROUP BY MAX(AttendanceRecordsTable.LastDate) After much googling, I discovered that MAX is an aggregate function and so I need to use GROUP BY. I have also tried using the HAVING keyword but without success. Can anybody point me in the right direction? What is the 'conventional' syntax to update a database record based on the most recent date?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216  | Next Page >