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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • How to structure code with 2 methods, one after another, which throw the same two exceptions?

    - by dotnetdev
    Hi, I have two methods, one called straight after another, which both throw the exact same 2 exceptions (IF an erroneous condition occurs, not stating that I'm getting exceptions). For this, should I write seperate try and catch blocks with the one statement in each try block and catch both exceptions (Both of which I can handle as I checked MSDN class library reference and there is something I can do, eg, re-open SqlConnection or run a query and not a stored proc which does not exist). So code like this: try { obj.Open(); } catch (SqlException) { // Take action here. } catch (InvalidOperationException) { // Take action here. } And likewise for the other method I call straight after. This seems like a very messy way of coding. The other way is to code with the exception variable (that is ommited as I am using AOP to log the exception details, using a class-level attribute). Doing this, this could aid me in finding out which method caused an exception and then taking action accordingly. Is this the best approach or is there another best practise altogether? I also assume that, as only these two methods are thrown, I do not need to catch Exception as that would be for an exception I cannot handle (causes way out of my control). Thanks

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  • How to provide warnings during validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by Alex
    Sometimes user input is not strictly invalid but can be considered problematic. For example: A user enters a long sentence in a single-line Name field. He probably should have used the Description field instead. A user enters a Name that is very similar to that of an existing entity. Perhaps he's inputting the same entity but didn't realize it already exists, or some concurrent user has just entered it. Some of these can easily be checked client-side, some require server-side checks. What's the best way, perhaps something similar to DataAnnotations validation, to provide warnings to the user in such cases? The key here is that the user has to be able to override the warning and still submit the form (or re-submit the form, depending on the implementation). The most viable solution that comes to mind is to create some attribute, similar to a CustomValidationAttribute, that may make an AJAX call and would display some warning text but doesn't affect the ModelState. The intended usage is this: [WarningOnFieldLength(MaxLength = 150)] [WarningOnPossibleDuplicate()] public string Name { get; set; } In the view: @Html.EditorFor(model => model.Name) @Html.WarningMessageFor(model => model.Name) @Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.Name) So, any ideas?

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  • My website keeps crashing IE, can't debug

    - by Ninja rhino
    I have a website that suddenly started to crash internet explorer. The website loads and starts executing javascript but somewhere in there the machinery explodes. I don't even get a script error, it just crashes. I've tried to manually step through every single line of js with the built in debugger but then of course the problem doesn't occur. If i choose to debug the application when it crashes i see the following message. Unhandled exception at 0x6c5dedf5 in iexplore.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x00000090. The top 5 items in the call stack looks like this VGX.dll!6c5dedf5() [Frames below may be incorrect and/or missing, no symbols loaded for VGX.dll] VGX.dll!6c594d70() VGX.dll!6c594f63() VGX.dll!6c595350() VGX.dll!6c58f5e3() mshtml.dll!6f88dd17() VGX.dll seems to be part of the vml renderer and i am in fact using VML. I'm not suprised because i've had so many problems with vml, attributes has to be set in specific order, sometimes you cant set attributes when you have elements attached to the dom or vice versa (everything undocumented btw) but then the problems can usually be reproduced when debugging but not now :( The problem also occurs in no plugin-mode. Is there a better approach than trial and error to solve this? Edit: Adding a console outputting every suspect modification to the DOM made the problem only occur sometimes. (the console is also implemented in javascript on the same page, i'm able to see the output even after a crash as the window is still visible) Apparently it seems to be some kind of race condition. I managed to track it down even further, and it seems to occur when you remove an object from the DOM too quickly after it's just been added. (most likely only for vml-elements with some special attribute, didn't try further) And it can't be fixed by adding a dead loop in front of removeChild(pretty bad solution anyway), the page has to be rendered by the browser once after the addChild before you can call removeChild. sigh

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  • Localization of DisplayNameAttribute

    - by PowerKiKi
    Hi, I am looking for a way to localize properties names displayed in a PropertyGrid. The property's name may be "overriden" using the DisplayNameAttribute attribute. Unfortunately attributes can not have non constant expressions. So I can not use strongly typed resources such as: class Foo { [DisplayAttribute(Resources.MyPropertyNameLocalized)] // do not compile string MyProperty {get; set;} } I had a look around and found some suggestion to inherit from DisplayNameAttribute to be able to use resource. I would end up up with code like: class Foo { [MyLocalizedDisplayAttribute("MyPropertyNameLocalized")] // not strongly typed string MyProperty {get; set;} } However I lose strongly typed resource benefits which is definitely not a good thing. Then I came across DisplayNameResourceAttribute which may be what I'm looking for. But it's supposed to be in Microsoft.VisualStudio.Modeling.Design namespace and I can't find what reference I am supposed to add for this namespace. Anybody know if there's a easier way to achieve DisplayName localization in a good way ? or if there is as way to use what Microsoft seems to be using for Visual Studio ?

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  • IE8 and below <input type="image"> value work around

    - by kielie
    Hi guys, I have a slight problem, I am trying to capture the input of two buttons, one yes, one no, into a database but for some reason the database doesn't always show the value of the button clicked, it just shows up blank. <form action="refer.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: left;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/yes.jpg" alt="submit" value="yes" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="yes"> </div> </form> <form action="thank_you.php" method="post" id="formID" > <div class="prompt_container" style="float: right;"> <span class="prompt_item"><input type="image" src="images/no.jpg" alt="submit" value="no" onclick="this.disabled=true,this.form.submit();" /></span> <input type="hidden" name="refer" value="no" > </div> </form> Apparently anything lower than IE8 will ignore the value attribute of all form inputs. How could I get this to work properly in all browsers? jQuery or Javascript maybe?

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  • HTML prevent line break (between two table tags)

    - by arik-so
    Hello, I have following code: <table> <tr> <td>Table 1</td> </tr> </table> <table> <tr> <td>Table 2</td> </tr> </table> Very unfortunately, a line break is inserted between these two tables. I have tried putting them both in a single span and setting the whitespace to nowrap, but at no avail. Please, could you tell me how I can simply put these elements in a single row, without setting the float attribute in CSS and without surrounding each table with a <td> {table} </td> and then putting this in a table row. Thanks a lot in advance. I have asked Google, but it just wouldn't say anything ^^ StackOverflow remained silent so far, too

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  • ReplaceAll not working as expected

    - by Tim Kemp
    Still early days with Mathematica so please forgive what is probably a very obvious question. I am trying to generate some parametric plots. I have: ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} No joy: the replacement rules are not applied and a, b and h remain undefined. If I instead do: Hold@ParametricPlot[{ (a + b) Cos[t] - h Cos[(a + b)/b t], (a + b) Sin[t] - h Sin[(a + b)/b t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All] /. {a -> 2, b -> 1, h -> 1} it looks like the rules ARE working, as confirmed by the output: Hold[ParametricPlot[{(2 + 1) Cos[t] - 1 Cos[(2 + 1) t], (2 + 1) Sin[t] - 1 Sin[(2 + 1) t]}, {t, 0, 2 \[Pi]}, PlotRange -> All]] Which is what I'd expect. Take the Hold off, though, and the ParametricPlot doesn't work. There's nothing wrong with the equations or the ParametricPlot itself, though, because I tried setting values for a, b and h in a separate expression (a=2; b=1; h=1) and I get my pretty double cardoid out as expected. So, what am I doing wrong with ReplaceAll and why are the transformation rules not working? This is another fundamentally important aspect of MMA that my OOP-ruined brain isn't understanding. I tried reading up on ReplaceAll and ParametricPlot and the closest clue I found was that "ParametricPlot has attribute HoldAll and evaluates f only after assigning specific numerical values to variables" which didn't help much or I wouldn't be here. Thanks.

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  • xpath php attributes not working?

    - by Jared
    Getting this error Call to a member function attributes() on a non-object I have found multiple answers to this on SO, but none of them seem to solve my problem? Here is the XML: <Routes> <Route type="source" name="incoming"> </Route> <Routes> Here is the PHP: $doc = new SimpleXMLElement('routingConfig.xml', null, true); class traverseXML { function getData() { global $doc; $routeCount = count($doc -> xpath("Route")); //this value returns correctly $routeArr = array(); for ($i = 1; $i <= $routeCount; $i++) { $name = $doc -> Route[$i] -> attributes() -> name; array_push($routeArr, $name); } return $routeArr; } } $traverseXML = new traverseXML; var_dump($traverseXML -> getData()); I understand what the error means, but how is it a non-object? How do I return the name attribute of Routes/Route[1] ?

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  • What is the meaning of @ModelAttribute annotation at method argument level?

    - by beemaster
    Spring 3 reference teaches us: When you place it on a method parameter, @ModelAttribute maps a model attribute to the specific, annotated method parameter I don't understand this magic spell, because i sure that model object's alias (key value if using ModelMap as return type) passed to the View after executing of the request handler method. Therefore when request handler method executes the model object's name can't be mapped to the method parameter. To solve this contradiction i went to stackoverflow and found this detailed example. The author of example said: // The "personAttribute" model has been passed to the controller from the JSP It seems, he is charmed by Spring reference... To dispel the charms i deployed his sample app in my environment and cruelly cut @ModelAttribute annotation from method MainController.saveEdit. As result the application works without any changes! So i conclude: the @ModelAttribute annotation is not needed to pass web form's field values to the argument's fields. Then i stuck to the question: what is the mean of @ModelAttribute annotation? If the only mean is to set alias for model object in View, then why this way better than explicitly adding of object to ModelMap?

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  • jQuery : how to apply effect on a child element

    - by Tristan
    Hello, instead of re-writting the same function, i want to optimise my code : <div class="header"> <h3>How to use the widget</h3> <span id="idwidget" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="widget"> the JS : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { var showText="Show"; var hideText="Hide"; $("#idwidget").before("<a href='#' class='button' id='toggle_link'>"+showText+"</a>"); $('#widget').hide(); $('a#toggle_link').click(function() { if ($('a#toggle_link').text()==showText) { $('a#toggle_link').text(hideText); } else { $('a#toggle_link').text(showText); } $('#widget').toggle('slow'); return false; }); }); This is working just with the div which is called widget and the button called idwidget. But on this page i have also : <div class="header"> <h3>How to eat APPLES</h3> <span id="IDsomethingelse" ></span> </div> <div class="content" id="somethingelse"> And i want it to be compatible with the code. I heard about children attribute, do you have an idea how to do that please ? Thank you

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  • Disable Products in different Magento Store Views

    - by Robert
    I have a Magento Multi-Store installation (not multi-site) and some products are available in more than one store. However, these products that are available in, let's say storeA and storeB, have related products, BUT, the related products are not available in both stores. The problem is this, Product1, which has Product2, Product3, and Product4 as related products, appears in storeA. No Problem. Product1 is also available in storeB, but NOT Product2-3-4. However, those products, though not shown in the general catalog of storeB, are visible as related products to Product1 in storeB. If I use the drop down to manage products in storeB, and I remove the related products in Product1, it removes the related products from Product1 in storeA, where they should be available. I cannot change the status attribute to storeview in Manage Attributes, because the only choices are Global or Website, not Store View. I can change the skin to show UPSELL products instead, and set up different UPSELL products, but that limits my stores to only two. Any ideas?

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  • Why can't multiple programmatically generated FilteringSelect's share a single store?

    - by yarmiganosca
    Before you ask, a MultiSelect wouldn't really be intuitive for the user in this instance. I have an object, with an array as its value for 'items', that's provided on the page in a var statement. I also have a function that generates and places dijit.form.FilteringSelects and is triggered on a certain button's click event. Every one of these selects should have the aformentioned object as their 'store' attribute. If I write store: new dojo.data.ItemFileReadStore({ data: object_name }), in my select initialization code, I get weird behavior: I click the generate button 2 times and get 2 FilteringSelects (call them A,B). I click on B's dropdown piece, and the menu appears attached to B. Then I click on A's dropdown button, and menu appears attached to A. If I then go back and click on B's dropdown button again, nothing happens (well not nothing; an error gets thrown). However, if instead, I have data: {items: array_literal} everything works fine, and I switch back and forth between the 2 as much as I want. As the data: statement appears once in the javascript code, this isn't a big deal (now that I have a workaround at least). It is however, exceedingly odd. I attempted to dig into the source code, to no avail.Anybody have any idea what's going on here?

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  • managedObjectContext question...

    - by treasure
    Hello, I have an app which is a UITabBarController, I have defined two subviews Both tabs have their Class attribute in the Identity Inspector set to UINavigationController. Now i have managed to get this far with my coding after VERY LONG trials. - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; myAppDelegate *appDelegate = (myAppDelegate *)[[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; self.managedObjectContext = appDelegate.managedObjectContext; { NSError *error = nil; NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [fetchRequest setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]]; NSArray *fetchedItems = [self.managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:fetchRequest error:&error]; NSEntityDescription *entityDesc = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"User" inManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; // replace the old data with new. this DOESNT WORK if (fetchedItems.count > 0) { Usr *newUsr; for (newUsr in fetchedItems) { if ([newUsr.name isEqualToString:@"Line One"]) { newUsr.uName = @"Line One (new)"; } } } //add a new default data. THIS ADDS DATA TO MY TABLEVIEW BUT IT DOESNT SAVE THEM TO THE SQLITE User *addedDefaultdata = nil; addedDefaultdata = [[User alloc] initWithEntity:entityDesc insertIntoManagedObjectContext:self.managedObjectContext]; addedDefaultdata.name = @"Added new 1"; [addedDefaultdata release]; } NSError *error = nil; if (![[self fetchedResultsController] performFetch:&error]) { NSLog(@"Unresolved error %@, %@", error, [error userInfo]); abort(); } } and my appdelegate looks like this: - (void)applicationDidFinishLaunching:(UIApplication *)application { [application setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackOpaque]; [window addSubview:navigationController.view]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; } now I cannot quire the "User" at all! although i get no errors or warnings! Any suggestions would be much appreciated! Thanks

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  • Angular throws "Error: Invalid argument." in IE

    - by przno
    I have a directive which takes element's text and places wbr elements after every 10th character. I'm using it for example on table cells with long text (e.g. URLs), so it does not span over the table. Code of the directive: myApp.directive('myWbr', function ($interpolate) { return { restrict: 'A', link: function (scope, element, attrs) { // get the interpolated text of HTML element var expression = $interpolate(element.text()); // get new text, which has <wbr> element on every 10th position var addWbr = function (inputText) { var newText = ''; for (var i = 0; i < inputText.length; i++) { if ((i !== 0) && (i % 10 === 0)) newText += '<wbr>'; // no end tag newText += inputText[i]; } return newText; }; scope.$watch(function (scope) { // replace element's content with the new one, which contains <wbr>s element.html(addWbr(expression(scope))); }); } }; }); Works fine except in IE (I have tried IE8 and IE9), where it throws an error to the console: Error: Invalid argument. Here is jsFiddle, when clicking on the button you can see the error in console. So obvious question: why is the error there, what is the source of it, and why only in IE? (Bonus question: how can I make IE dev tools to tell me more about error, like the line from source code, because it took me some time to locate it, Error: Invalid argument. does not tell much about the origin.) P.S.: I know IE does not know the wbr at all, but that is not the issue. Edit: in my real application I have re-written the directive to not to look on element's text and modify that, but rather pass the input text via attribute, and works fine now in all browsers. But I'm still curious why the original solution was giving that error in IE, thus starting the bounty.

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  • Is inheritance bad nowadays?

    - by mafutrct
    Personally, I think inheritance is a great tool, that, when applied reasonably, can greatly simplify code. However, I seems to me that many modern tools dislike inheritance. Let's take a simple example: Serialize a class to XML. As soon as inheritance is involved, this can easily turn into a mess. Especially if you're trying to serialize a derived class using the base class serializer. Sure, we can work around that. Something like a KnownType attribute and stuff. Besides being an itch in your code that you have to remember to update every time you add a derived class, that fails, too, if you receive a class from outside your scope that was not known at compile time. (Okay, in some cases you can still work around that, for instance using the NetDataContract serializer in .NET. Surely a certain advancement.) In any case, the basic principle still exists: Serialization and inheritance don't mix well. Considering the huge list of programming strategies that became possible and even common in the past decade, I feel tempted to say that inheritance should be avoided in areas that relate to serialization (in particular remoting and databases). Does that make sense? Or am messing things up? How do you handle inheritance and serialization?

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  • jquery - index of click element on the list is different on IE 7

    - by surajz
    cms is generating content in this format. <ul id="slide_nav" class="tabs"> <a name="ctn2363_2465" id="ctn2363_2465" class="hidden"></a><li id="button_1"><a class="ohlord" href="javascript: void(0);" id="b1">Bookbag</a></li> <a name="ctn2363_2466" id="ctn2363_2466" class="hidden"></a><li id="button_2"><a class="ohlord" href="javascript: void(0);" id="b2">help</a></li> <a name="ctn2363_2467" id="ctn2363_2467" class="hidden"></a><li id="button_3"><a class="ohlord" href="javascript: void(0);" id="b3">Team</a></li> <a name="ctn2363_2468" id="ctn2363_2468" class="hidden"></a><li id="button_4"><a class="ohlord" href="javascript: void(0);" id="b4">At</a></li> </ul> To get a correct index of the clicked link I have to do this in IE 7 (use class info in selector) $("#slide_nav li a").click(function(){ var index = $("#slide_nav li > a.ohlord").index(this); }); On firefox $("#slide_nav li > a").index(this); works. On IE this produces incorrect index (0, 2, 4, 6 ..). Is there a way to get the correct index in IE 7 for the above html without using class information in the selector? My second question is $('#slides img')[index].attr('style', 'display: block;'); does not work. I have to iterate through each $('#slides img') elements to set the attribute. Isn't HTMLElement object returned from $('#slides img')[index] an jquery object?

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  • Odd Things of ASP.NET MVC Deployment on IIS 6

    - by misaxi
    Recently, I am a bit interested in the deployment of ASP.NET MVC application on IIS6 because Phil Haack posted an easier way to deploy ASP.NET MVC application on ASP.NET 4. So I decided to see how different version of ASP.NET MVC works on different version of ASP.NET. First off, I created an ASP.NET MVC 2 project in Visual Studio 2010 and deploy it to IIS 6 on Windows Server 2003 (only .NET framework 3.5 installed). I set the application to run in ASP.NET 2.0 and no extra stuff. Because I just wanted to see what sort of error would occur. And as expected, some error was reported as following. Then, I set the Copy Local attribute of System.Web.Mvc assembly to true as following and deploy again. As a result, the application ran smoothly. I had read tons of materials talked about the mess of deploying MVC application on IIS 6. And I did fight to tackle the deploying issues in my previous project. At least, if had used Extensionless Url in your application, you should have configured wildcard mapping in IIS. But in this case, I even didn’t have chance to do so. What the heck was going on exactly? Did I discover a new continent?

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  • Checking Selected Radio Button after POST

    - by coffeeaddict
    I've been using ASP.NET controls which perform a lot of the manual for you. But I'm going back to the basics, what everyone else does. I'm using standard input tags. So for example if I have a radio button group and I select a button. When the form submits and does a POST back to whatever action="MyPage.aspx" then to grab and check the radio button's value that was selected is it always done like this below? <label><input type="radio" name="rbGroup" value='<%# ((Action)Container.DataItem).ID %>'/><%# ((Action)Container.DataItem).Name %></label> So here I'm appending the ID to the value. And then when it hits the page that my action specifies, I'm checking to see which was selected by trimming off and getting that ID from the value: string selection = Request.Form["rbGroup"]; string dbRecordIdSelected = int.Parse(selection.Substring(1)); so now I can check the id they selected...that is the ID of the db record that gave that selected radio it's name. Is that how you basically always check what radio was selected by checking the name/value pair that comes across for that selected radioButton group name? And then you can append stuff like IDs or whatever you want to grab and parse out to then do additional logic on the server-side once that header reaches the server and your specified page in the action attribute? The above code is not production code, just something to explain what I'm talking about.

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  • disable .click function on an anchor in jquery

    - by user554014
    This is written in an external .js with jquery... I have two windows that slide in and out of view like: $(document).ready(function() { // hides gallery1 as soon as the DOM is ready $('#gallery1').hide(); // shows the menu on click $('#showgal1').click(function() { $('#gallery1').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'left'}); $('#gallery2').hide('slide', {direction:'right'}); //need code to disable showgal1 and enable showgal2 }); $('#showgal2').click(function() { $('#gallery2').delay(490).show('slide', {direction:'right'}); $('#gallery1').hide('slide', {direction:'left'}); //need code to disable showgal2 and enable showgal1 }); }); 'gallery1' and 'gallery2' are DIV's with flash image galleries and 'showgal1' and 'showgal2' are id's of anchors... looks like <a href="#" id="showgal1">gallery 1</a> I cannot find a way to disable the .click function when one is clicked and re-enable the other... i want to disable 'showgal1' by default and when 'showgal2' event takes place it removes the attribute and makes 'showgal2' disabled until 'showgal1' is clicked... the .attr('disabled','disabled') hasn't worked yet...

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • Force screen size when testing embedded DOS app in Windows 7 command window

    - by tomlogic
    I'm doing some embedded DOS development with OpenWatcom (great Windows-hosted compiler for targeting 16-bit DOS applications). The target hardware has a 24x16 character screen (that supposedly emulates CGA to some degree), and I'm trying to get the CMD.EXE window on my Windows 7 machine to stay at a fixed 24x16 without any scroll bars. I've used both the window properties and MODE CON: COLS=24 LINES=16 to get the screen size that I wanted, but as soon as my application uses an INT10 BIOS calls to clear the screen, the mode jumps back to 80x24. Here's what I'm using to clear the screen: void cls(void) { // Clear screen and reset cursor position to (0,0) union REGS regs; regs.w.cx = 0; // Upper left regs.w.dx = 0x1018; // Lower right (of 16x24) regs.h.bh = 7; // Blank lines attribute (white text on black) regs.w.ax = 0x0600; // 06 = scroll up, AL=00 to clear int86( 0x10, &regs, &regs ); } Any ideas? I can still do my testing at 80x24 (or 80x25), but it doesn't entirely behave like the 24x16 mode.

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  • ASP.NET Custom Control - Template Allowing Literal Content

    - by Bob Fincheimer
    I want my User Control to be able to have Literal Content inside of it. For Example: <fc:Text runat="server">Please enter your login information:</fc:Text> Currently the code for my user control is: <ParseChildren(True, "Content")> _ Partial Public Class ctrFormText Inherits FormControl Private _content As ArrayList <PersistenceMode(PersistenceMode.InnerDefaultProperty), _ DesignerSerializationVisibility(DesignerSerializationVisibility.Content), _ TemplateInstance(TemplateInstance.Single)> _ Public Property Content() As ArrayList Get If _content Is Nothing Then Return New ArrayList End If Return _content End Get Set(ByVal value As ArrayList) _content = value End Set End Property Protected Overrides Sub CreateChildControls() If _content IsNot Nothing Then ctrChildren.Controls.Clear() For Each i As Control In _content ctrChildren.Controls.Add(i) Next End If MyBase.CreateChildControls() End Sub End Class And when I put text inside this control (like above) i get this error: Parser Error Message: Literal content ('Please enter your login information to access CKMS:') is not allowed within a 'System.Collections.ArrayList'. This control could have other content than just the text, so making the Content property an attribute will not solve my problem. I found in some places that I need to implement a ControlBuilder Class, along with another class that implements IParserAccessor. Anyway I just want my default "Content" property to have all types of controls allowed in it, both literal and actual controls.

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  • PHP Dropdown menu [closed]

    - by rShetty
    <br><h2>Select a Tag</h2></br> <?php $con = mysql_connect("localhost","root",""); if (!$con) { die('Could not connect: ' . mysql_error()); } mysql_select_db("portal", $con); $query = "SELECT tag_name FROM tags"; $result = mysql_query($query); ?> <select name="tag_name" id="abc"> <option size=30 selected>Select</option> <?php while($array = mysql_fetch_assoc($result)){ ?> <option value ="<?php echo $array['tag_name'];?>"><?php echo $array['tag_name'];?> </option> <?php } ?> </select> <br><br> This is a snippet of code for getting the dropdown menu in the page. I have a database named portal and table named tags with tag_name as the attribute. Do help me to find the error in the program. I am not getting the tag_names in the dropdown menu

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  • Xml updating with linq not working when quering

    - by user1734230
    I have problem i'm trying to update a specific part of the XML with the linq query but it doesn't work. So i an xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <DesignConfiguration> <Design name="CSF_Packages"> <SourceFolder>C:\CSF_Packages</SourceFolder> <DestinationFolder>C:\Documents and Settings\xxx</DestinationFolder> <CopyLookups>True</CopyLookups> <CopyImages>False</CopyImages> <ImageSourceFolder>None</ImageSourceFolder> <ImageDesinationFolder>None</ImageDesinationFolder> </Design> </DesignConfiguration> I want to select the part where the part where there is Design name="somethning" and get the descendants and then update the descendants value that means this part: <SourceFolder>C:\CSF_Packages</SourceFolder> <DestinationFolder>C:\Documents and Settings\xxx</DestinationFolder> <CopyLookups>True</CopyLookups> <CopyImages>False</CopyImages> <ImageSourceFolder>None</ImageSourceFolder> <ImageDesinationFolder>None</ImageDesinationFolder> I have this code: XDocument configXml = XDocument.Load(configXMLFileName); var updateData = configXml.Descendants("DesignConfiguration").Elements().Where(el => el.Name == "Design" && el.Attribute("name").Value.Equals("AFP_GRAFIKA")).FirstOrDefault(); configXml.Save(configXMLFileName); I'm getting the null data in the updateData varibale. When I'm trying the Descendat's function through QuickWatch it also returns a null value. When I'm checking the configXML variable it has data that is my whole xml. What am I doing wrong?

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