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• I cannot seem to load an XML document using ASP (Classic), IIS6. Details inside.

  - by carny666

  So I am writing a web application for use within my organization. The application requires that it know who the current user is. This is done by calling the Request.ServerVariables("AUTH_USER") function, which works great as long as 'Anonymous Access' is disabled (unchecked) and 'Integrated Windows Authentication' is enabled (checked) within IIS for this subweb. Unfortunately by doing this I get an 'Access Denied' error when I hit the load method of the XML DOM. Example code: dim urlToXmlFile urlToXmlFile = "http://currentwebserver/currentsubweb/nameofxml.xml" dim xmlDom set xmlDom = Server.CreateObject("MSXML2.DOMDocument") xmlDom.async = false xmlDom.load( urlToXmlFile ) ' <-- this is where I get the error! I've looked everywhere and cannot find a solution. I should be able to load an XML file into the DOM regardless of the authentication method. Any help would be appreciated. So far the only two solutions I can come up with are: a) create a new subweb that JUST gets the current user name and somehow passes it back to my XML reading subweb. b) open up security on the entire system to 'Everyone', which works but our IS department wouldn't care for that.

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• Insert not working

  - by user1642318

  I've searched evreywhere and tried all suggestions but still no luck when running the following code. Note that some code is commented out. Thats just me trying different things. SqlConnection connection = new SqlConnection("Data Source=URB900-PC\SQLEXPRESS;Initial Catalog=usersSQL;Integrated Security=True"); string password = PasswordTextBox.Text; string email = EmailTextBox.Text; string firstname = FirstNameTextBox.Text; string lastname = SurnameTextBox.Text; //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@UserName", username); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Password", password); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@Email", email); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@FirstName", firstname); //command.Parameters.AddWithValue("@LastName", lastname); command.Parameters.Add("@UserName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@UserName"].Value = username; command.Parameters.Add("@Password", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@Password"].Value = password; command.Parameters.Add("@Email", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@Email"].Value = email; command.Parameters.Add("@FirstName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@FirstName"].Value = firstname; command.Parameters.Add("@LasttName", SqlDbType.VarChar); command.Parameters["@LasttName"].Value = lastname; SqlCommand command2 = new SqlCommand("INSERT INTO users (UserName, Password, UserEmail, FirstName, LastName)" + "values (@UserName, @Password, @Email, @FirstName, @LastName)", connection); connection.Open(); command2.ExecuteNonQuery(); //command2.ExecuteScalar(); connection.Close(); When I run this, fill in the textboxes and hit the button I get...... Must declare the scalar variable "@UserName". Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks.

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• Getting values from another winform and passing it to current!

  - by klm9971

  Hello: I have 2 windows forms. The 1st one who gets active during start of the program has a button in which another 2nd windows form appears which has text field in which user type their name and HIT okay. Now in the 1st form I have a variable name: nameproccessed which takes the name from the second form. But the problem is my button which is in the 1st form has more functions besides taking name, how can I stop the flow of the compiler to take first the name from the second form and then process the rest execution of the function??? Here is the snippet of my code: //1st form //Class1 public string _nameProcessed = ""; private void btnGetSomething_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { showdial(); //some more functionalities in this function!!! } private void showdial() { InputName inm = new InputName(); inm.Show(); } //2nd form //Class2 public string name; private void btnEnterName_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { name = tbxName.Text; Class1 ict = new Class1(); ict._nameProcessed = name; this.Close(); } Now I want to take the 'name' from the second form put it on the _nameprocessed in the 1st form and then execute the rest of the function. How can I do that? Any help!

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• XAMPP, MAMP, MySQL, PDO - A deadly combination?

  - by Rich

  Hey folks, Previously I've worked on a Symfony project (MySQL PDO based) with XAMPP, with no problems. Since then, I've moved to MAMP - I prefer this - but have hit a snag with my database connection. I've created a test.php like this: <?php try { $dbh = new PDO('mysql:host=localhost;dbname=xxx;port=8889', 'xxx', 'xxx'); foreach($dbh->query('SELECT * from FOO') as $row) { print_r($row); } $dbh = null; } catch (PDOException $e) { print "Error!: " . $e->getMessage() . "<br/>"; die(); } ?> Obviously the *xxx*s are real db connection details. Which when served by MAMP seems to work fine. From terminal however I keep getting the following error when running the file: Error!: SQLSTATE[28000] [1045] Access denied for user 'xxx'@'localhost' (using password: YES) Not sure if the terminal is aiming at a different MySQL socket or something along those lines; but I've tried pointing it to the MAMP socket with a local php.ini file. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Invalid table view update with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:

  - by Crystal

  I'm having trouble with insertRowsAtIndexPaths:. I'm not quite sure how it works. I watched the WWDC 2010 video on it, but I'm still getting an error. I thought I was supposed to update the model, then wrap the insertRowsAtIndexPaths: in the tableView beginUpdates and endUpdates calls. What I have is this: self.customTableArray = (NSMutableArray *)sortedArray; [_customTableView beginUpdates]; [tempUnsortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { [sortedArray enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id sortedObj, NSUInteger sortedIdx, BOOL *sortedStop) { if ([obj isEqualToString:sortedObj]) { NSIndexPath *newRow = [NSIndexPath indexPathForRow:sortedIdx inSection:0]; [_customTableView insertRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:newRow] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationAutomatic]; *sortedStop = YES; } }]; }]; [_customTableView endUpdates]; customTableArray is my model array. sortedArray is just the sorted version of that array. When I run this code when I hit my plus button to add a new row, I get this error: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSInternalInconsistencyException', reason: 'Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (2) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (2 inserted, 0 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out).' I'm not sure what I'm doing wrong. Thoughts? Thanks.

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• Python programming - Windows focus and program process

  - by Zack

  I'm working on a python program that will automatically combine sets of files based on their names. Being a newbie, I wasn't quite sure how to go about it, so I decided to just brute force it with the win32api. So I'm attempting to do everything with virtual keys. So I run the script, it selects the top file (after arranging the by name), then sends a right click command,selects 'combine as adobe PDF', and then have it push enter. This launched the Acrobat combine window, where I send another 'enter' command. The here's where I hit the problem. The folder where I'm converting these things loses focus and I'm unsure how to get it back. Sending alt+tab commands seems somewhat unreliable. It sometimes switches to the wrong thing. A much bigger issue for me.. Different combination of files take different times to combine. though I haven't gotten this far in my code, my plan was to set some arbitrarily long time.sleep() command before it finally sent the last "enter" command to finish and confirm the file name completing the combination process. Is there a way to monitor another programs progress? Is there a way to have python not execute anymore code until something else has finished?

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• Stopping a MATLAB GUI callback

  - by leonhart88

  Dear All, I have a START and STOP button. When I hit START, i run a bunch of code in my callback. It's basically a sequential "script" that opens valves, dispenses water and then closes the valves...there is no while() loop and it doesn't repeat. I want to be able to stop this process at any time using the STOP button. Most of the related answers I've seen are in the cases where a while() loop is used. Some people have also suggested to periodically check if the STOP button was pressed (using a variable or handle variable). Since I do not have a while loop, I can't solve it that way. Also, I'd like to be able to exit immediately, without having to periodically check (because checking multiple times in my code would be ugly and confusing). Is there a way to terminate the callback which was interrupted by the STOP button? If not, is it possible to have the START button run a .m file and then have the STOP button terminate that .m file? The worst case scenario would be to check a variable periodically. UPDATE: Well, looks like the worst case scenario is what is suggested by MATLAB... http://www.mathworks.com/support/solutions/en/data/1-33IK85/index.html?product=ML&solution=1-33IK85 Thanks.

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• What's the deal with the hidden Throw when catching a ThreadAbortException?

  - by priehl

  I'm going through a book of general c# development, and I've come to the thread abort section. The book says something along the lines that when you call Thread.Abort() on another thread, that thread will throw a ThreadAbortException, and even if you tried to supress it it would automatically rethrow it, unless you did some bs that's generally frowned upon. Here's the simple example offered. using System; using System.Threading; public class EntryPoint { private static void ThreadFunc() { ulong counter = 0; while (true) { try { Console.WriteLine("{0}", counter++); } catch (ThreadAbortException) { // Attempt to swallow the exception and continue. Console.WriteLine("Abort!"); } } } static void Main() { try { Thread newThread = new Thread(new ThreadStart(EntryPoint.ThreadFunc)); newThread.Start(); Thread.Sleep(2000); // Abort the thread. newThread.Abort(); // Wait for thread to finish. newThread.Join(); } catch (Exception e) { Console.WriteLine(e.ToString()); } } } The book says: When your thread finishes processing the abort exception, the runtime implicitly rethrows it at the end of your exception handler. It’s the same as if you had rethrown the exception yourself. Therefore, any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally. In the example, the call to Join won’t be waiting forever as initially expected. So i wrapped a try catch around the Thread.Abort() call and set a break point, expecting it to hit this, considering the text says "any outer exception handlers or finally blocks will still execute normally". BUT IT DOES NOT. I'm racking my brain to figure out why. Anyone have any thoughts on why this isn't the case? Is the book wrong? Thanks in advance.

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• What's the best practice for handling system-specific information under version control?

  - by Joe

  I'm new to version control, so I apologize if there is a well-known solution to this. For this problem in particular, I'm using git, but I'm curious about how to deal with this for all version control systems. I'm developing a web application on a development server. I have defined the absolute path name to the web application (not the document root) in two places. On the production server, this path is different. I'm confused about how to deal with this. I could either: Reconfigure the development server to share the same path as the production Edit the two occurrences each time production is updated. I don't like #1 because I'd rather keep the application flexible for any future changes. I don't like #2 because if I start developing on a second development server with a third path, I would have to change this for every commit and update. What is the best way to handle this? I thought of: Using custom keywords and variable expansion (such as setting the property $PATH$ in the version control properties and having it expanded in all the files). Git doesn't support this because it would be a huge performance hit. Using post-update and pre-commit hooks. Possibly the likely solution for git, but every time I looked at the status, it would report the two files as being changed. Not really clean. Pulling the path from a config file outside of version control. Then I would have to have the config file in the same location on all servers. Might as well just have the same path to begin with. Is there an easy way to deal with this? Am I over thinking it?

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• Rails RESTful routs without #new, rspec trouble

  - by pdkl95

  I'm currently writing a Rails app, and hit a somewhat strange quirk. I have a controller PermissionsController, which is mainly for display purposes at the moment. So my routing is locked down: map.resources :permissions, :only => [:index, :show] Unfortunately, when writing the tests, one of the routing tests fails: it "does not recognize #new" do { :get => "/permissions/new" }.should_not be_routable end with the error: Expected 'GET /permissions/new' to fail, but it routed to {"action"=>"show", "id"=>"new", "controller"=>"permissions"} instead Obviously, the #show action's route is matching with /permissions/:id, which also gives the expected error Couldn't find Permission with ID=new if you actually browse to that URL. This is not a serious error, as it is correctly raising an exception with the bad :id parameter, but it's kind of ugly. Is there any way to actually make Rails reject that route? Some trick in the routing options that I'm missing? I suppose I should just leave that test out and ignore it, or maybe remove the whole RESTful idea altogether and go back to a simpler map.connect 'permissions/:id' style. I strongly suspect I'll be expanding this in the future, though, and kind of wanted to keep my controllers consistent with each other. Just having to add occasional :only or :except rules made routes.rb nice and clean...

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• How can I add two models in one form, where one model is a has_many :through?

  - by Angela

  How do I model having multiple Addresses for a Company and assign a single Address to a Contact? Contacts belong_to a Company. A Company has_many Contacts. A Company also has_many Addresses. And each Contact has_one Address. I want to be able, whenever I create a New Contact, to access all the addresses in all Contacts that belong to the Company. Here is are my Models: class Company < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :name, :phone, :addresses has_many :contacts has_many :addresses, :through => :contacts end class Contact < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :first_name, :last_name, :title, :phone, :fax, :email, :company, :date_entered, :campaign_id, :company_name, :address belongs_to :company has_one :address accepts_nested_attributes_for :address end class Address < ActiveRecord::Base attr_accessible :street1 has_many :contacts end How do I create the View in the _form for Contacts so that I can 1) Add an Address when creating a Contact; 2) Display the options of the Address. Here is how I am doing step 1, which is just to add a new address for a new contact: <% f.fields_for :addresses do |builder| %> <p> <%= builder.label :street1, "Street 1" %> </br> <%= builder.text_field :street1 %> <p> Right now, what I have doesn't work. The console says I cannot mass-assign addresses when I hit "submit" on this New contact form.

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• How do you handle huge if-conditions?

  - by Teifion

  It's something that's bugged me in every language I've used, I have an if statement but the conditional part has so many checks that I have to split it over multiple lines, use a nested if statement or just accept that it's ugly and move on with my life. Are there any other methods that you've found that might be of use to me and anybody else that's hit the same problem? Example, all on one line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example, multi-line: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true && var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true){ Example-nested: if (var1 = true && var2 = true && var2 = true && var3 = true){     if (var4 = true && var5 = true && var6 = true)     {

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• Building a J2EE dev/test setup on a single PC

  - by John

  It's been a while since I did Java work, and even then I was never responsible for starting a large project from the very start... there were test/staging/production systems already running, etc, etc. Now I am looking to start a J2EE project from scratch on my trusty workstation, which has never been used for Java development and runs Windows 7 64bit. First of all, I'll be getting Eclipse. As far as writing the code goes I'm pretty happy. And running it through Eclipse is OK, but what I'd really want is to have a VM running MySQL and TomCat on which I can properly deploy my project and run/debug it 'remotely' from my dev PC. And I guess this should be done using Ant instead of letting Eclipse build the WAR for me, so that I don't end up with a dependence on Eclipse. I'm certain Eclipse can do this, so you hit a button and it runs Ant scripts, deploys and debugs for instance, but very hazy on it. Are there any good guides on this? I don't want to be taught Java, or even Ant, but rather the 'glue' parts like getting my test VM up and running under Windows, getting a build/test/deploy/run pipeline running through Eclipse, etc. One point, I only plan to use Windows... hosting a Windows VM on my Windwos desktop. And while I can use command-line tools like ant/svn, I'm much more a GUI person who loves IDE integration... I'd rather this didn't end up an argument about Linux or Vi, etc! I am looking for free, but am a MAPS subscriber, and run Win7 Ultimate in case that makes a difference as far as free VM solutions.

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• Where do I control the behavior of the "X" close button in the upper right of a winform?

  - by John at CashCommons

  I'm venturing into making my VB.NET application a little better to use by making some of the forms modeless. I think I've figured out how to use dlg.Show() and dlg.Hide() instead of calling dlg.ShowDialog(). I have an instance of my modeless dialog in my main application form: Public theModelessDialog As New dlgModeless To fire up the modeless dialog I call theModelessDialog.Show() and within the OK and Cancel button handlers in dlgModeless I have Private Sub OK_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles OK_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.OK Me.Hide() End Sub Private Sub Cancel_Button_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Cancel_Button.Click Me.DialogResult = System.Windows.Forms.DialogResult.Cancel Me.Hide() End Sub and that seems to work fine. The "X" button in the upper right is getting me, though. When I close the form with that button, then try to reopen the form, I get ObjectDisposedException was unhandled. Cannot access a disposed object. I feel like I'm most of the way there but I can't figure out how to do either of the following: Hide that "X" button Catch the event so I don't dispose of the object (just treat it like I hit Cancel) Any ideas? The class of this dialog is System.Windows.Forms.Form. Thanks as always!

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• Phonegap: Will my mobile app 'feel' faster or slower once ported to phonegap?

  - by user15872

  So I'm designing everything in mobile Safari and I know that phonegap is essentially a stripped webview but... Question: Will my application will run better in phonegap? (revised below) a)I imagine my navigation and core app will load faster as the scripts and images are on the hard drive. Is this True? b)I assume since they've been working on it for 2 years now that they may have made some optimizations to make it quicker than just an average safari window. Is this true? (Assuming both html5/js/css code bases are pretty much the same and app is running on iOS.) Update: Sorry, I meant to compare apples to slightly different apples. Question 1 revised: Will my app see any performance benefits running with in a phonegap environment vs standard mobile safari? (compare mobile - to mobile) 1b) In what ways, other than loading time has phonegap optimized performance over standard mobile safari? Follow ups: 1) Are there any pitfalls, other than large libraries, that may cause phonegap to suffer a serious performance hit vs stand mobile safari? 2) Can I mix native and webview rendering? (i.e the top half of my app is rendered in with html/css/js and the bottom half native)

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• Calculating collission for a moving circle, without overlapping the boundaries

  - by Robert Vella

  Let's say I have circle bouncing around inside a rectangular area. At some point this circle will collide with one of the surfaces of the rectangle and reflect back. The usual way I'd do this would be to let the circle overlap that boundary and then reflect the velocity vector. The fact that the circle actually overlaps the boundary isn't usually a problem, nor really noticeable at low velocity. At high velocity it becomes quite clear that the circle is doing something it shouldn't. What I'd like to do is to programmitically take reflection into account and place the circle at it's proper position before displaying it on the screen. This means that I have to calculate the point where it hits the boundary between it's current position and it's future position -- rather than calculating it's new position and then checking if it has hit the boundary. This is a little bit more complicated than the usual circle/rectangle collission problem. I have a vague idea of how I should do it -- basically create a bounding rectangle between the current position and the new position, which brings up a slew of problems of it's own (Since the rectangle is rotated according to the direction of the circle's velocity). However, I'm thinking that this is a common problem, and that a common solution already exists. Is there a common solution to this kind of problem? Perhaps some basic theories which I should look into?

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• Nested IF statements in Excel [Over the 7 allowed limit]

  - by Alks

  hey guys, i am trying to create a spreadsheet which automagically gives a grade to a student based on their marks they got. I've apparently hit excels nested IF statement limit which is 7. here's my if statement: =IF(O5>0.895,"A+",IF(O5>0.845,"A",IF(O5>0.795,"A-",IF(O5>0.745,"B+",IF(O5>0.695,"B",IF(O5>0.645,"B-",IF(O5>0.595,"C+",IF(O5>0.545,"C","D")))))))) I was reading online that I could create a VBA script and assign it that, but I dont know anything about VBA....so if someone could help me write a VBA for this, would be awesome. Its still mising the C- grade and anything lower should be awarded a D mark. This is the grading scheme I am trying to create...: A+ 89.500 - 100.000 Pass with Distinction A 84.500 - 89.490 Pass with Distinction A- 79.500 - 84.490 Pass with Distinction B+ 74.500 - 79.490 Pass with Merit B 69.500 - 74.490 Pass with Merit B- 64.500 - 69.490 Pass with Merit C+ 59.500 - 64.490 Pass C 54.500 - 59.490 Pass C- 49.500 - 54.490 Pass D 0.000 - 49.490 Specified Fail I wouldn't mind going down the VBA route, however my understanding of VB language is absolutely minimal (don't like it)...if this gets too tedious, I was thinking to create a small php/mysql application instead. Cheers :)

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• Randomizing Div tags using Java Script

  - by Andrew McNeil

  I've looked around and have been able to find a piece of code that does the job but it doesn't work for all of my tags. I have a total of 8 Div tags that I want to randomize and this piece of code only allows me to randomize 7 of them. If I replace the 7 with an 8 it just shows everything in order. I don't work with Javascript very often and have hit a road block. Any help is greatly appreciated. <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $(".workPiece").hide(); var elements = $(".workPiece"); var elementCount = elements.size(); var elementsToShow = 7; var alreadyChoosen = ","; var i = 0; while (i < elementsToShow) { var rand = Math.floor(Math.random() * elementCount); if (alreadyChoosen.indexOf("," + rand + ",") < 0) { alreadyChoosen += rand + ","; elements.eq(rand).show(); ++i; } } }); </script>

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• Beginner MVC question - Correct approach to render out a List and details?

  - by fizzer

  I'm trying to set up a page where I display a list of items and the details of the selected item. I have it working but wonder whether I have followed the correct approach. I'll use customers as an example I have set the aspx page to inherit from an IEnumerable of Customers. This seems to be the standard approach to display the list of items. For the Details I have added a Customer user control which inherits from customer. I think i'm on the right track so far but I was a bit confused as to where I should store the id of the customer whose details I intend to display. I wanted to make the id optional in the controller action so that the page could be hit using "/customers" or "customers/1" so I made the arg optional and stored the id in the ViewData like this: public ActionResult Customers(string id = "0") { Models.DBContext db = new Models.DBContext(); var cList = db.Customers.OrderByDescending(c => c.CustomerNumber); if (id == "0") { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = cList.First().CustomerNumber.ToString(); } else { ViewData["CustomerNumber"] = id; } return View("Customers", cList); } I then rendered the User control using RenderPartial in the front end: <%var CustomerList = from x in Model where x.CustomerNumber == Convert.ToInt32(ViewData["CustomerNumber"]) select x; Customer c = (Customer)CustomerList.First(); %> <% Html.RenderPartial("Customer",c); %> Then I just have an actionLink on each listed item: <%: Html.ActionLink("Select", "Customers", new { id = item.CustomerNumber })% It all seems to work but as MVC is new to me I would just be interested in others thoughts on whether this is a good approach?

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• Elements of a Java Object Array are created but without correct names

  - by Greenhouse Gases

  Hi all Im having rather an annoying problem. I have a class called Person and a class called Event which serve to create objects to be used for competitors that compete in a certain event. When I add a competitor thats fine and the GUI list updates accordingly, however when I add an event the element in the array does not take on the value of the instance variable name in the class Event and so the GUI does not show the event name, though it is being added in the array correctly. How can I make it so that the event object in each element of the listOfEvents array (which is an array of event objects) has the name of the event. I should add this is for university though this isnt the part for which we will be assessed, it is somethign i have come across and due to not being able to see the code for the GUI, I've hit the proverbial brick wall. I wont include the whole load of code Ive been writing but hopefully my description and snippets below will suffice. Any advice I would appreciate greatly. No doubt I have overlooked something simple! Many thanks. listOfEvents is declared as: Event[] listOfEvents = new Event[20]; A snippet from the Event class: public class Event { String name; Person[] participants = new Person[10]; // array of competitors for the event public Event(String name) { this.name = name; } } and its use in the addEvent method (p is a global variable): public void addEvent(String eventName) { listOfEvents[p] = new Event(eventName); p++; }

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• Major JQuery bug on IE not reproducible - What can i do in this situation to solve this bug?

  - by ming yeow

  I am hoping to get some help on this issue. Some users on IE have been reporting this javascript issue, but I have been unable to re-produce it. In essence, for some class of windows IE users, the game doesn't work (or $.ajax() is not working). What I know: I swapped out an ajax call (ajax_init_trainer) and used a standard link with some request parameters to do the initialization and ppl seemed to get passed the problem until they hit the next ajax call. I read somewhere that IE does crazy caching so you need to make the urls unique, which is why i added the _requestno parameter. However, setting the cache:false is said to also do this. This didn't fix it for someone who was complaining. function done(res, status) { var data = JSON.parse(res.responseText); hide_loading(); if (status == "success") { window.location.href="/bamo/battle/?{{ fb_sig}}"; } else { display_alert("Problem!",data.msg,$("#notifications")); } }; $(".monster_select_class").click(function() { $(this).attr("src","{{MEDIA_URL}}/bamo/button_select_click.png"); monster_class = $(this).attr("monster_class"); monster_type = $(this).attr("monster_type"); ajax_init_trainer(monster_class,monster_type); }); function ajax_init_trainer(trainer_class,monster_type) { var data = {trainer_class:trainer_class,monster_type:monster_type}; var d = new Date(); var args = { type:"POST",url:"/bamo/api/init_trainer/?_requestno="+d.getTime(),data:data,contentType:"application/json;", dataType: "json",cache:false,complete:done}; $.ajax(args); return false; };

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• Setting a cookie based on the name of the link that is clicked.

  - by Ozaki

  TLDR When clicking on a link I want to assign a cookie with a name of instrument and a value of the text on the link clicked. Using Jquery.1.4.2.min.js, Jquery.cookie.1.0.js I am trying to create a cookie when a link is clicked (will always link to "page.html"). name of instrument value of the TEXT So far I am trying to use: Link1: <a href="page.html">link1</a> Link2: <a href="page.html">link2</a> Script: $('a[href=page.html]').click(function() { var name = 'instrument'; var value = $(this).text(); $.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 }); }); When I click the link it just loads the link and no cookie is set. Debugging with firebug, firecookie, firequery. No cookie for instrument or anything along the lines is found. Onload I'll hit the "<a href="page.html">projects</a>" but not the "$.cookie(name, value, { expires: 365 });" at all.

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• Peoplesoft queries - performance

  - by DBa

  Hi, I'm facing a problem with PeopleSoft queries (using Oracle backend database): when a rather complex query involving multiple records is set off by a user, PS does an enforced join of security records, thus producing SQL like this: select .... from ps_job a, PS_EMPL_SRCQRY a1, ps_table2 b, ps_sec_rcd2 b1, ps_table3 c, ps_sec_rcd3 c1 where (...security joins a-a1, b-b1, c-c1...) and (...joins of a, b and c...) and a.setid_dept = 'XYZ'; (let's assume the last condition has a high selectivity and there is an index on the column) Obviously, due to the arrangement of the conditions, first a huge join is created, written to the temp segment, and when the last condition is finally applied, only a small subset is selected. A query formulated in this way is very likely to hit the preset timeout of the APPSRV, and even of the QRYSRV. When writing the query manually, I would rather move the most selective condition to the start, thus limiting the amount of the data being handled, to a considerable level. Any ideas on how to make PS behave like this? Actually, already rewriting "Oracle-styled" SQL to ANSI SQL seems to accelerate the queries - however, PS writes Oracle-style queries... Thanks in advance DBa

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• iPhone producing strange results on 'if' statement

  - by Rob

  I have a UIPicker where the user inputs a specified time (i.e. 13:00, 13:01, 13:02, etc.) - which determines their score. Once they hit the button an alert comes up with the score that is determined through this 'if-else' statement. Everything seems to work great MOST of the time - but I am getting some erratic behavior. This is the code: //Gets my value from the UIPicker and then converts it into a format that can be used in the 'if' statement. NSInteger runRow = [runTimePicker selectedRowInComponent:2]; NSString *runSelected = [runTimePickerData objectAtIndex:runRow]; NSString *runSelectedFixed = [runSelected stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@":" withString:@"."]; //The actual 'if' statment. if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.00) { runScore = 100; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.06) { runScore = 99; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.12) { runScore = 97; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.18) { runScore = 96; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.24) { runScore = 94; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.30) { runScore = 93; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.36) { runScore = 92; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.42) { runScore = 90; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.48) { runScore = 89; } else if ([runSelectedFixed floatValue] <= 13.54) { runScore = 88; } Now, when I test the program, I will get the expected result when I choose '13:00' which is '100'. I also get the expected result of '99' when I choose all of the times between '13:01 and 13:05'. BUT, when I choose '13:06' it gives me a score of '97'. I also get a score of '97' on '13:07 through 13:12' - which is the desired result. Why would I get a '97' right on '13:12' but not get a '99' right on '13:06'???? Could this be a memory leak or something???

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• wordpress add post validation

  - by dskanth

  This is embarrassing, but yet i am surprised to see that there is no validation by default while adding a new post in wordpress. When i don't enter a title and even content, and just hit Publish, it says that the post is published, and when i view the front end, there is no new post. How could wordpress skip the simple validation for adding a post? Atleast i expected a server side validation (if not client side). Don't know why the validation is skipped. It is upto wordpress, whether they incorporate it in the new versions. But i want to know how can i add a javascript (or jquery) validation for adding a post in wordpress. I know it must not at all be difficult. But being new to wordpress, i would like to get some hint. From Firebug, i could see the form is rendering like: <form id="post" method="post" action="post.php" name="post"> ... </form> Where shall i put my javascript validation code?

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