Search Results

Search found 6242 results on 250 pages for 'named pipe'.

Page 210/250 | < Previous Page | 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217  | Next Page >

• How to link a table to a field a in MySQL server

  - by Nek

  I have this data from a xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <words> <id>...</id> <word>...</word> <meaning>...</meaning> <translation> <ES>...</ES> <PT>...</PT> </translation> </words> This forms the table named "words", which has four fields ("id","word","meaning" and "translation"). On the other hand, the "translation" field can hold several languages like ES,PT,EN,JA,KO,etc... So I create a table ("words.translation", one field is "id" and the others ones are languages ids like "ES","PT",...). I'm sorry for this newby question, but I'd like to know a couple of things about this one-to-many relationship. How to join (or link?) this two tables in MySQL? What information does the "translation" field in the "words" table has to store? How is the sql query to get all the word information (JOIN syntax used?) Thanks for your patience.

  Read the article

• If the dependency is a unique snapshot version and install is called, what does maven select?

  - by chrsk

  Imagine two projects. The first is the framework-core project which is in version 1.1.0 and has several snapshot builds. The other is the example-business project which has the following dependency to framework-core on the build-iteration number 9. <dependency> <groupId>org.example</groupId> <artifactId>framework-core</artifactId> <version>1.1.0-20100518.134928-9</version> </dependency> What happens if mvn install is called on the framework-core? I found out that the artifact is copied to the folder and is named to *.1.1.0-SNAPSHOT.jar (as expected). This lead me to the assumption that this version is only used if even this 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT version is defined as dependency and not the precise build. To test something local without deploying it to the maven repository: call mvn install, change the dependency to 1.1.0-SNAPSHOT -- and the artifact just installed is used? Or is it possible to overwrite the specific build (with using the install lifecycle phase)?

  Read the article

• Where is the "ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush" located?

  - by Dimi Toulakis

  I have a problem understanding one style definition in Windows 8 metro apps. When you create a metro style application with VS, there is also a folder named Common created. Inside this folder there is file called StandardStyles.xaml Now the following snippet is from this file: <!-- Grid-appropriate 250 pixel square item template as seen in the GroupedItemsPage and ItemsPage --> <DataTemplate x:Key="Standard250x250ItemTemplate"> <Grid HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="250" Height="250"> <Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <Image Source="{Binding Image}" Stretch="UniformToFill"/> </Border> <StackPanel VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayBackgroundThemeBrush}"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Title}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlayForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource TitleTextStyle}" Height="60" Margin="15,0,15,0"/> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Subtitle}" Foreground="{StaticResource ListViewItemOverlaySecondaryForegroundThemeBrush}" Style="{StaticResource CaptionTextStyle}" TextWrapping="NoWrap" Margin="15,0,15,10"/> </StackPanel> </Grid> </DataTemplate> What I do not understand here is the static resource definition, e.g. for the Border Background="{StaticResource ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush}" It is not about how you work with templates and binding and resources. Where is this ListViewItemPlaceholderBackgroundThemeBrush located? Many thanks for your help. Dimi

  Read the article

• How do I connect to SQL Server with VB?

  - by Wayne Werner

  Hi, I'm trying to connect to a SQL server from VB. The SQL server is across the network uses my windows login for authentication. I can access the server using the following python code: import odbc conn = odbc.odbc('SignInspection') c = conn.cursor() c.execute("SELECT * FROM list_domain") c.fetchone() This code works fine, returning the first result of the SELECT. However, I've been trying to use the SqlClient.SqlConnection in VB, and it fails to connect. I've tried several different connection strings but this is the current code: Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim conn As New SqlClient.SqlConnection conn.ConnectionString = "data source=signinspection;initial catalog=signinspection;integrated security=SSPI" Try conn.Open() MessageBox.Show("Sweet Success") 'Insert some code here, woo Catch ex As Exception MessageBox.Show("Failed to connect to data source.") MessageBox.Show(ex.ToString()) Finally conn.Close() End Try End Sub It fails miserably, and it gives me an error that says "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred... (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) I'm fairly certain it's my connection string, but nothing I've found has given me any solid examples (server=mySQLServer is not a solid example) of what I need to use. Thanks! -Wayne

  Read the article

• How do I write an RSpec test to unit-test this interesting metaprogramming code?

  - by Kyle Kaitan

  Here's some simple code that, for each argument specified, will add specific get/set methods named after that argument. If you write attr_option :foo, :bar, then you will see #foo/foo= and #bar/bar= instance methods on Config: module Configurator class Config def initialize() @options = {} end def self.attr_option(*args) args.each do |a| if not self.method_defined?(a) define_method "#{a}" do @options[:"#{a}"] ||= {} end define_method "#{a}=" do |v| @options[:"#{a}"] = v end else throw Exception.new("already have attr_option for #{a}") end end end end end So far, so good. I want to write some RSpec tests to verify this code is actually doing what it's supposed to. But there's a problem! If I invoke attr_option :foo in one of the test methods, that method is now forever defined in Config. So a subsequent test will fail when it shouldn't, because foo is already defined: it "should support a specified option" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo # ... end it "should support multiple options" do c = Configurator::Config c.attr_option :foo, :bar, :baz # Error! :foo already defined # by a previous test. # ... end Is there a way I can give each test an anonymous "clone" of the Config class which is independent of the others?

  Read the article

• Ant: use include and exclude together

  - by Ken

  OK, this seems like it should be really simple. I'm using Apache Ant 1.8, and I have a target which does: <delete file="output/program.tar.bz2"/> <tar basedir="input" destfile="output/program.tar.bz2" compression="bzip2"> <tarfileset dir="input"> <include name="goodfolder1/**"/> <include name="goodfolder2/**"/> <exclude name="**/badfile"/> <exclude name="**/*.badext"/> </tarfileset> </tar> I want it to make a .tar.bz2 of input/goodfolder1 and input/goodfolder2, excluding files named "badfile", and excluding files with extension ".badext". It's giving me a .tar.bz2, but it's including badfile and *.badext -- the excludes seem to be ignored. The order of include/exclude doesn't seem to make a difference. I tried wrapping the includes/excludes in a (the docs say it's implicit?), but it made no difference. I'm sure there's something simple I'm missing, since the manual has a very similar example, though in a somewhat different context. EDIT: It looks like it could be related to the dir="input" attribute: it's adding everything in "input", and then adding everything in the tarfileset to that. Files I want appear twice in the program.tar.bz2, but files that are excluded only appear once. But dir is mandatory, and I don't see how this is different from the examples in the manual.

  Read the article

• Visual Studio crashes when I add a .settings file in a C++ Windows form application

  - by Ant

  I'm trying to add a .settings file in a windows form application by adding a (whatever) file in the project and have it named smthng.settings. Right after it is created, it crashes (if I look into the project's directory the file is there, but it's not "in" the project). Am I doing it wrong or could it be that the problem lies elsewhere? Edit: It seems that it's the settings designer that crashes. Partially Solved:If I add a (whatever).config file, then rename it to .settings and change it's file type to C/C++ Code (don't ask how I figured this out..) then I can add to it settings, but if I do add something that has any connection to the form then automatically a (whatever).config with thew same name spawns (which is identical to the (whatever).setting even if change one of them) and at the stdafx.cpp a #include '(whatever).h' appears, which is a problem, because there is not such a header. (if I erase it or just create a blank (whatever).h it doesn't work. Apparently I have to somehow connect all the data in the (w/e).settings to (w/e).h as well or maybe something else) Anyone had this problem before? Anyone has any ideas?

  Read the article

• Cannot connect to SQL Server from ASP.NET MVC app

  - by Dan Fergus

  I have an ASP.NET MVC app that has on a hosted server for over a year, connecting to SQL Server. I've had to change hosting services, the new one supports MVC 1.0. I've also moved a non MVC ASP app to the same hosting service. Now, MY MVC based app retturnes this error when I try to validate a user login. A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server) Now, the non-MVC app can access the exact same database and authenticate users just fine. The MVC app, when run from my dev box connects fine. It also run/connects/authenticates without problem when I install and run the site from an internal SQL 2008 server running IIS 7. I, along with the hosting support techs, am at a loss how the exact same connect string works every where except on the hosted server, and only when run from inside an ASP.NET MVC web app. Any ideas would be greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• How to wait until location is completely found? (Core Location)

  - by sudo rm -rf

  Hello. I have a problem within my app. I'm trying to find the user's location to the best preciseness in order to determine their zip-code. Currently I have a button that, when pressed, starts a method named locateMe. -(IBAction)locateMe; { self.locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; locationManager.delegate = self; locationManager.desiredAccuracy = kCLLocationAccuracyBest; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation]; Then I've implemented didUpdateToLocation: -(void)locationManager:(CLLocationManager *)manager didUpdateToLocation:(CLLocation *)newLocation fromLocation:(CLLocation *)oldLocation; { NSLog(@"Found location! %f,%f",newLocation.coordinate.latitude,newLocation.coordinate.longitude); } I had previously done much more complicated stuff in didUpdateToLocation but as I tested some things I realized that the first location it found was not precise in the least. So, I put the NSLog call in there and it gave me an output similar to below... Found location! 39.594093,-98.614834 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.601372,-98.592171 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 Found location! 39.611444,-98.538196 As you can see, it first gives me a value which is not correct, which was causing problems within my app because it wasn't giving the correct location. So, here's my question. Is there any way I can wait for the location manager to finish finding the most precise location? Thanks in advance! EDIT: I'm wanting something like this: if (newLocation.horizontalAccuracy <= locationManager.desiredAccuracy) { } But it never gets called!

  Read the article

• Polling servers at the same port - Threads and Java

  - by John

  Hi there. I'm currently busy working on an IP ban tool for the early versions of Call of Duty 1. (Apparently such a feature wasn't implemented in these versions). I've finished a single threaded application but it won't perform well enough for multiple servers, which is why I am trying to implement threading. Right now, each server has its own thread. I have a Networking class, which has a method; "GetStatus" -- this method is synchronized. This method uses a DatagramSocket to communicate with the server. Since this method is static and synchronized, I shouldn't get in trouble and receive a whole bunch of "Address already in use" exceptions. However, I have a second method named "SendMessage". This method is supposed to send a message to the server. How can I make sure "SendMessage" cannot be invoked when there's already a thread running in "GetStatus", and the other way around? If I make both synchronized, I will still get in trouble if Thread A is opening a socket on Port 99999 and invoking "SendMessage" while Thread B is opening a socket on the same port and invoking "GetStatus"? (Game servers are usually hosted on the same ports) I guess what I am really after is a way to make an entire class synchronized, so that only one method can be invoked and run at a time by a single thread. Hope that what I am trying to accomplish/avoid is made clear in this text. Any help is greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• once again..."$ is not defined" - trying to implement sIFR

  - by supervision

  Hey Guys, my file beginning looks like this: <html> <head> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <title>My title</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="css/style.css" /> <script src="js/update.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <!-- sifr --> <link href="sifr207/sIFR-screen.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" media="screen" /> <script src="sifr207/sifr.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { if(typeof sIFR == "function") { sIFR.replaceElement("sifr", named({sFlashSrc: "sIFR-2.0.7/corporateacon-reg.swf", sColor: "#FF0000" , sWmode: "transparent"})); }; }); </script> <!-- --> </head> I really do not understand why the '$(document).ready(function()' is not found, because I implement sifr.js BEFORE that call. Any suggestions? I would appriciate it, really! shoutz, supervision

  Read the article

• Unpredictable CCK field name in returned View data

  - by AK

  I'm using views_get_view_result to directly access the data in a view. I've stumbled upon this odd behavior where cck fields are prefixed with the first field name as a query optimization. Explained here. What's bizarre though is that fields are named differently depending on whether I retrieve that data as Anonymous or as Admin. I'm pretty sure all my permissions are set up, and the view itself has no restrictions. What is going on here? This is a big problem since I can't know how to retrieve a field. Here's a dump of the two view results. Notice that node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value != node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value. // View as Admin stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 ) // View as Anonymous stdClass Object ( [nid] => 3191 [node_data_field_game_date_field_game_date_value] => 2010-03-27T00:00:00 [node_type] => game [node_vid] => 5039 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_official_value] => 0 [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_title] => TeamA [node_node_data_field_game_home_team_nid] => 3396 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_home_score_value] => 68 [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_title] => TeamB [node_node_data_field_game_visitor_team_nid] => 3442 [node_data_field_game_official_field_game_visitor_score_value] => 118 )

  Read the article

• CSS- How to align background image over bottom border line? Jsfiddle included

  - by John Robinson

  I have an image I am trying to display over the top of a bottom border, but it is being arranged behind the bottom border element (in this example, named "divider"), and I can't get it to align correctly. I would like the image to be displayed in the middle of the the border element and over the top of it. Vertically, I am trying to get the 1px line on the left and right side of the image to align with the 1px border to appear as if it is one element. Here is the code: .divider { border-bottom: 1px solid #c3c3c3; clear: both; display: block; margin-bottom: 20px; padding-top: 20px; width: 100%; } .sidearrow { background: url(http://s16.postimage.org/sbf7v9n75/sidearrow.png) 50% 14px no-repeat; width: 100%; height: 25px; }? <p>Here is some content above</p> <div class="sidearrow"></div> <div class="divider"></div> <p>Here is some content below</p>? And the jsfiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/F5xjx/2/ Any ideas how to get this to work? Thanks in advance.

  Read the article

• mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

  - by axeoth

  See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

  Read the article

• IE "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected"

  - by Stephen Borg

  Hi there, I have problems with regards to javascript only when using IE. The error I am getting is "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected" and I have no idea why. It is then jumping into the JQuery 1.4.2 file, without giving me a proper error message. All I am doing is simply reading on page load the raw URL, and getting a query string named Search. Using that in an AJAX call to return products and put then into a DIV. No biggies, but somehow IE is managing to blow my page up :-( Any ideas? Code as follows : <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function (e) { $('.boxLoader').show(); function getParameterByName(name) { name = name.replace(/[\[]/, "\\\[").replace(/[\]]/, "\\\]"); var regexS = "[\\?&]" + name + "=([^&#]*)"; var regex = new RegExp(regexS); var results = regex.exec(window.location.href); if (results == null) return ""; else return decodeURIComponent(results[1].replace(/\+/g, " ")); } var Search; Search = getParameterByName("search"); $('#searchCriteria').text(Search); $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: Search }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); $('#searchBox').live("click", function () { $.get("/Handlers/processProducts.aspx", { SearchCriteria: $('#searchCriteria').val() }, function (data) { $('#innercontent').html(data); $('#innercontent').fadeIn(200); $('.boxLoader').fadeOut(200); }); }); }); </script>

  Read the article

• Link error for user defined class type template parameter

  - by isurulucky

  Hi, I implemented a Simple STL map in C++. Factored out the comparison as a type as I was instructed to, then implemented the comparison as shown below: template <typename T> int KeyCompare<T>::operator () (T tKey1, T tKey2) { if(tKey1 < tKey2) return -1; else if(tKey1 > tKey2) return 1; else return 0; } here, tKey1 and tKet2 are the two keys I'm comparing. This worked well for all the basic data types and string. I added a template specialization to compare keys of a user defined type named Test and added a specialization as follows: int KeyCompare<Test>::operator () (Test tKey1, Test tKey2) { if(tKey1.a < tKey2.a) return -1; else if(tKey1.a > tKey2.a) return 1; else return 0; } when I run this, I get a linking error saying SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: int __thiscall KeyCompare::operator()(class Test,class Test)" (??R?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAEHVTest@@0@Z) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::~KeyCompare(void)" (??1?$KeyCompare@VTest@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj SimpleMap.obj : error LNK2005: "public: __thiscall KeyCompare::KeyCompare(void)" (??0?$KeyCompare@VTester@@@@QAE@XZ) already defined in MapTest.obj MapTest.cpp is the test harness class in which I wrote the test case. I have used include guards as well, to stop multiple inclusions. Any idea what the matter is?? Thank you very much!!

  Read the article

• PHP Sessions and Passing Session ID

  - by Jason McCreary

  I have an API where I am passing the session id back and forth between calls. I set up the session like so: // start API session session_name('apikey'); session_id($data['apikey']); // required to link session session_start(); Although I named my session and am passing the session id via GET and POST using the name, PHP does not automatically resume that session. It always creates a new one unless I set the explicitly set the session id. I found some old user comments on www.php.net that said unless the session id is the first parameter PHP won't set it automatically. This seems odd, but even when I call tried it still didn't work: rest_services.php?apikey=sdr6d3subaofcav53cpf71j4v3&q=testing I have used PHP for years, but am a little confused on why I needed to explicitly set the session with session_id() when I am naming the session and passing it's key accordingly. UPDATE It seems I wasn't clear. My question is why is setting the session ID with session_id() required when I am passing the id, using the session name apikey, via $_GET or $_POST. Theoretically this is no different than PHP's SID when cookies are disabled. But for me it doesn't work unless I explicitly set the session ID. Why?

  Read the article

• Does C# allow method overloading, PHP style (__call)?

  - by mr.b

  In PHP, there is a special method named __call($calledMethodName, $arguments), which allows class to catch calls to non-existing methods, and do something about it. Since most of classic languages are strongly typed, compiler won't allow calling a method that does not exist, I'm clear with that part. What I want to accomplish (and I figured this is how I would do it in PHP, but C# is something else) is to proxy calls to a class methods and log each of these calls. Right now, I have code similar to this: class ProxyClass { static logger; public AnotherClass inner { get; private set; } public ProxyClass() { inner = new AnotherClass(); } } class AnotherClass { public void A() {} public void B() {} public void C() {} // ... } // meanwhile, in happyCodeLandia... ProxyClass pc = new ProxyClass(); pc.inner.A(); pc.inner.B(); // ... So, how can I proxy calls to an object instance in extensible way? Extensible, meaning that I don't have to modify ProxyClass whenever AnotherClass changes. In my case, AnotherClass can have any number of methods, so it wouldn't be appropriate to overload or wrap all methods to add logging. I am aware that this might not be the best approach for this kind of problem, so if anyone has idea what approach to use, shoot. Thanks!

  Read the article

• How do I solve the .NET CF exception "Can't find PInvoke DLL"?

  - by Ignas Limanauskas

  This is to all the C# gurus. I have been banging my head on this for some time already, tried all kinds of advice on the net with no avail. The action is happening in Windows Mobile 5.0. I have a DLL named MyDll.dll. In the MyDll.h I have: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) int MyDllFunction(int one, int two); The definition of MyDllFunction in MyDll.cpp is: int MyDllFunction(int one, int two) { return one + two; } The C# class contains the following declaration: [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] extern public static int MyDllFunction(int one, int two); In the same class I am calling MyDllFunction the following way: int res = MyDllFunction(10, 10); And this is where the bloody thing keeps giving me "Can't find PInvoke DLL 'MyDll.dll'". I have verified that I can actually do the PInvoke on system calls, such as "GetAsyncKeyState(1)", declared as: [DllImport("coredll.dll")] protected static extern short GetAsyncKeyState(int vKey); The MyDll.dll is in the same folder as the executable, and I have also tried putting it into the /Windows folder with no changes nor success. Any advice or solutions are greatly appreciated.

  Read the article

• Doctrine2 - relationship

  - by Filip Golonka

  I'm developing an application, which is looking for optimal route and timetable in public transport. I have some experience about Doctrine1, but it's my first time with Doctrine2. There is soem new fields to describe relations (mappedBy and inversedBy) and also some new ways of mapping. I have following code: $query = $this->em->createQuery("SELECT partial cls.{stop}, partial t.{arriveTime, departureTime} FROM \Entities\Timetable t JOIN t.ride r JOIN t.carrierLineStop cls WHERE t.departureTime>=:time AND r.idCarrierLine=:carrierLine AND (cls.idStop=:firstStop OR cls.idStop=:lastStop)"); $query->setParameters(array( 'time' => $time, 'carrierLine' => $path->getLine(), 'firstStop' => $path->getFirstStop(), 'lastStop' => $path->getLastStop() )); When I try to execute that script I've got an error: [Semantical Error] line 0, col 24 near '}, partial t.{arriveTime,': Error: There is no mapped field named 'stop' on class Entities\CarrierLineStop. Mapping files: Entities\CarrierLineStop: type: entity table: carrier_line_stop fields: idCarrierLineStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_carrier_line_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY nextStop: type: integer unsigned: false nullable: true column: next_stop manyToOne: idCarrierLine: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLine cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_carrier_line: referencedColumnName: id_carrier_line orphanRemoval: false stop: column: id_stop targetEntity: Entities\Stop cascade: { } mappedBy: null inversedBy: carrierLineStop joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } - Entities\Stop: type: entity table: stop fields: idStop: id: true type: integer unsigned: false nullable: false column: id_stop generator: strategy: IDENTITY name: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true miejscowosc: type: string length: 45 fixed: false nullable: true latitude: type: decimal nullable: true longitude: type: decimal nullable: true oneToMany: carrierLineStop: targetEntity: Entities\CarrierLineStop cascade: { } mappedBy: stop inversedBy: null joinColumns: id_stop: referencedColumnName: id_stop orphanRemoval: false lifecycleCallbacks: { } I have no idea about where the problem is...

  Read the article

• MS Acess SQL - where clause to get year from date based on the year - data located in MS access form

  - by primus285

  OK, back again. I have a problem getting a drop down list to populate based on information in two fields. I have got the SQL correct as to Select just one year if I put DateValue('01/01/2001') in both places, but I am trying now to get it to grab the year data from the MS access form - another drop down named "cboYear". I'd hate to have to do something in VB, unless necessary. so far I have gotten this to pull up something (its always incorrect) SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' & [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' & [cboYear]); and SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' + [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' + [cboYear]); SELECT DISTINCT Database_New.ASEC FROM Database_New WHERE Database_New.Date>=DateValue('01/01/' AND [cboYear]) And Database_New.Date<=DateValue('12/31/' AND [cboYear]); both give errors saying that it is too complex to compute. Its probably something simple, but where do I go from here?

  Read the article

• shell script filter du and find by a string inside a file in a subfolder

  - by Jason

  I have the following command that I run on cygwin: find /cygdrive/d/tmp/* -maxdepth 0 -mtime -150 -type d | xargs du --max-depth=0 > foldersizesreport.csv I intended to do the following with this command: for each folder under /d/tmp/ that was modified in last 150 days, check its total size including files within it and report it to file foldersizesreport.csv however that is now not good enough for me, as it turns out inside each /d/tmp/subfolder1/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder2/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder3/somefile.properties /d/tmp/subfolder4/somefile.properties so as you see inside each subfolderX there is a file named somefile.properties inside it there is a property SOMEPROPKEY=3808612800100 (among other properties) this is the time in millisecond, i need to change the command so that instead of -mtime -150 it will include in the whole calculation only subfolderX that has a file inside them somefile.properties where the SOMEPROPKEY=3808612800100 is the time in millisecond in future, if the value SOMEPROPKEY=23948948 is in past then dont at all include the folder in the foldersizesreport.csv because its not relevant to me. so the result report should be looking like: /d/tmp/,subfolder1,<itssizein KB> /d/tmp/,subfolder2,<itssizein KB> and if subfolder3 had a SOMEPROPKEY=34243234 (time in ms in past) then it would not be in that csv file. so basically I'm looking for: find /cygdrive/d/tmp/* -maxdepth 0 -mtime -150 -type d | <only subfolders that have in them property in file SOMEPROPKEY=28374874827 - time in ms in future and not in past | xargs du --max-depth=0 > foldersizesreport.csv

  Read the article

• application trying to connect to mirrored sql db

  - by hp

  Hello, We have 4 web servers that host our asp.net (3.5) application. Randomly, we get error messages like : 1) "Login failed for user 'userid'" 2) "A network-related or instance-specific error occurred while establishing a connection to SQL Server. The server was not found or was not accessible. Verify that the instance name is correct and that SQL Server is configured to allow remote connections. (provider: Named Pipes Provider, error: 40 - Could not open a connection to SQL Server)" we are running sql2005 and have a principle and a mirror db (sync). When these exceptions are thrown, I look at the SQL error logs on the mirrored db and noticed the failed login messages in there. The principle db is running fine and the other web apps are working great. this will happen for maybe 10 min, then the app pool recycles and it starts hitting the principle db again. Is there a configuration I have incorrect? my theory is that our principle db is forwarding the request to the mirror, but that should never happen. any help??

  Read the article

• XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

  - by Danny

  As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

  Read the article

• Drawing and filling different polygons at the same time in MATLAB

  - by Hossein

  Hi,I have the code below. It load a CSV file into memory. This file contains the coordinates for different polygons.Each row of this file has X,Y coordinates and a string which tells that to which polygon this datapoint belongs. for example a polygone named "Poly1" with 100 data points has 100 rows in this file like : Poly1,X1,Y1 Poly1,X2,Y2 ... Poly1,X100,Y100 Poly2,X1,Y1 ..... The index.csv file has the number of datapoint(number of rows) for each polygon in file Polygons.csv. These details are not important. The thing is: I can successfully extract the datapoints for each polygon using the code below. However, When I plot the lines of different polygons are connected to each other and the plot looks crappy. I need the polygons to be separated(they are connected and overlapping the some areas though). I thought by using "fill" I can actually see them better. But "fill" just filles every polygon that it can find and that is not desirable. I only want to fill inside the polygons. Can someone help me? I can also send you my datapoint if necessary, they are less than 200Kb. Thanks [coordinates,routeNames,polygonData] = xlsread('Polygons.csv'); index = dlmread('Index.csv'); firstPointer = 0 lastPointer = index(1) for Counter=2:size(index) firstPointer = firstPointer + index(Counter) + 1 hold on plot(coordinates(firstPointer:lastPointer,2),coordinates(firstPointer:lastPointer,1),'r-') lastPointer = lastPointer + index(Counter) end

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217  | Next Page >