Search Results

Search found 9536 results on 382 pages for 'aspnet mvc'.

Page 211/382 | < Previous Page | 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218  | Next Page >

  • MsChart : Partial view error

    - by Poomjai
    Hi I have a problem when i using Mschart on my MVC project, when i use the first index page of project to render for the partial view name index2 the code is <% Html.RenderPartial("Index2"); %> But when i run it the error is occur which the message is CS0029: Cannot implicitly convert type 'ASP.views_home_index2_ascx' to 'System.Web.UI.Page' -it said that the problem line of code is : // Render chart control Line 52: Chart2.Page = this; << At here Line 53: HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(Page.Response.Output); Line 54: Chart2.RenderControl(writer); But when i put all of code in Index2.ascx to the index.aspx and not to render the partial view it work fine Code of Index2.ascx is <% System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.Chart Chart2 = new System.Web.UI.DataVisualization.Charting.Chart(); Chart2.Width = 412; Chart2.Height = 296; Chart2.RenderType = RenderType.ImageTag; Chart2.Palette = ChartColorPalette.BrightPastel; Title t = new Title("No Code Behind Page", Docking.Top, new System.Drawing.Font("Trebuchet MS", 14, System.Drawing.FontStyle.Bold), System.Drawing.Color.FromArgb(26, 59, 105)); Chart2.Titles.Add(t); Chart2.ChartAreas.Add("Series 1"); Chart2.Series.Add("Series 1"); // add points to series 1 Chart2.Series["Series 1"].Points.AddY(3); Chart2.Series["Series 1"].Points.AddY(4); Chart2.Series["Series 1"].Points.AddY(5); Chart2.BorderSkin.SkinStyle = BorderSkinStyle.Emboss; Chart2.BorderColor = System.Drawing.Color.FromArgb(26, 59, 105); Chart2.BorderlineDashStyle = ChartDashStyle.Solid; Chart2.BorderWidth = 2; Chart2.Legends.Add("Legend1"); // Render chart control Chart2.Page = this; HtmlTextWriter writer = new HtmlTextWriter(Page.Response.Output); Chart2.RenderControl(writer); %

    Read the article

  • Diff between <head id="Head1" runat="server"> and <asp:ContentPlaceHolder runat="server" ID="HeadCon

    - by justSteve
    Looking for an better understanding of how an mvc project should define javascript and css includes. I'm working with sample code where includes are defined like: <head id="Head1" runat="server"> <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" />Affiliate Checkout</title> <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=iso-8859-1" /> <meta http-equiv="pragma" content="no-cache"> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.7.2.custom.min.js"></script> . . . <asp:ContentPlaceHolder runat="server" ID="HeadContent"></asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </head> I'm reading that to be that _all pages looking at this MasterPage will get jquery and jqueryUI and, additionally, each page will have the opportunity to add head elements thankx to the content placeholder HeadContent tag. The specific problem i'm troubleshooting is an instance where my rendered page is not including the 'prama no-cache' tag - as you see, it's defined in the upper level header section. Other .js and .css elements are making it into the rendered page so it very confusing to see that the no-cache tag isn't. When execute a 'View Generated Source' - the 'charset' is present the 'no-cache' is not.

    Read the article

  • Inheriting from ViewPage forces explicit casting of model in view

    - by Martin Hansen
    I try to inhering from ViewPage as shown in this question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/370500/inheriting-from-viewpage But I get a Compiler Error Message: CS1061: 'object' does not contain a definition for 'Spot' and no extension method 'Spot' accepting a first argument of type 'object' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) My viewpage, normally I can do Model.ChildProperty(Spot) when I inherit from ViewPage directly, so I do that here too. But it fails. <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(Model.Spot.Title) %></h1> To get it working correctly I have to do like this: <%@ Page Language="C#" Inherits="Company.Site.ViewPageBase<WebSite.Models.SpotEntity>" %> <h1><%= Html.Encode(((WebSite.Models.SpotEntity)Model).Spot.Title) %></h1> Here is my classes: namespace Company.Site { public class ViewPageBase<TModel> : Company.Site.ViewPageBase where TModel:class { private ViewDataDictionary<TModel> _viewData; [System.Diagnostics.CodeAnalysis.SuppressMessage("Microsoft.Usage", "CA2227:CollectionPropertiesShouldBeReadOnly")] public new ViewDataDictionary<TModel> ViewData { get { if (_viewData == null) { SetViewData(new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>()); } return _viewData; } set { SetViewData(value); } } protected override void SetViewData(ViewDataDictionary viewData) { _viewData = new ViewDataDictionary<TModel>(viewData); base.SetViewData(_viewData); } } public class ViewPageBase : System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage { } } So how do I get it to work without the explicit cast?

    Read the article

  • Why 'timeout expired' exception thrown with StructureMap?

    - by Martin
    I'm getting a "timeout expired" exception thrown from a relatively heavily trafficked ASP.NET MVC 2 site I developed using StructureMap and Fluent NHibernate. I think that perhaps the connections aren't being disposed properly. What do you think may be causing this? Could it be my use of InstanceScope.Hybrid? Here's my NHibernateRegistry class; thanks in advance for your help: using MyProject.Core.Persistence.Impl; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg; using FluentNHibernate.Cfg.Db; using NHibernate; using NHibernate.ByteCode.LinFu; using NHibernate.Cfg; using MyProject.Core.FluentMapping; using StructureMap.Attributes; using StructureMap.Configuration.DSL; namespace MyProject.Core.Persistence { public class NHibernateRegistry : Registry { public NHibernateRegistry() { FluentConfiguration cfg = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MsSqlConfiguration.MsSql2005.ConnectionString( x => x.FromConnectionStringWithKey( "MyConnectionString")) .ProxyFactoryFactory(typeof (ProxyFactoryFactory).AssemblyQualifiedName)) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<EntryMap>()); Configuration configuration = cfg.BuildConfiguration(); ISessionFactory sessionFactory = cfg.BuildSessionFactory(); ForRequestedType<Configuration>().AsSingletons() .TheDefault.IsThis(configuration); ForRequestedType<ISessionFactory>().AsSingletons() .TheDefault.IsThis(sessionFactory); ForRequestedType<ISession>().CacheBy(InstanceScope.Hybrid) .TheDefault.Is.ConstructedBy(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); ForRequestedType<IUnitOfWork>().CacheBy(InstanceScope.Hybrid) .TheDefaultIsConcreteType<UnitOfWork>(); ForRequestedType<IDatabaseBuilder>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<DatabaseBuilder>(); } } }

    Read the article

  • Request.IsAuthenticated problem with Cache in ASP.NET

    - by Julien
    Hello guys or girls..! I'm new in ASP.NET and I have a problem... When I want to cache I View or an Action like this : <%@ Page title="" language="C#" masterpagefile="~/Views/Shared/MemberHome.Master" inherits="System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage<IndexViewData>" %> <%@ OutputCache duration="400" varybyparam="divId;regionId;page" %> I know that it cache all data in my page ... But in my page I have a condition like this : <% if(Request.IsAuthenticated) { %> <a href="/fr/Advertiser/Search"><img src="/content/images/v_2/bot.jpg" alt="Entreprises liées à vos passions" title="Entreprises liées à vos passions" /></a> <% } else { %> <a href="/fr/Advertiser/OpenSearch"><img src="/content/images/v_2/bot.jpg" alt="Entreprises liées à vos passions" title="Entreprises liées à vos passions" /></a> <% } %> I dont want to cache this variable : Request.IsAuthenticated ... because some result depend of this condition ... I try the donut caching by scottgu's but it return (I think) just some text not a bool ... http://weblogs.asp.net/scottgu/archive/2006/11/28/tip-trick-implement-donut-caching-with-the-asp-net-2-0-output-cache-substitution-feature.aspx Now I'm tired to try anything that come to my mind .. can you help me pleaseee! :) Julien.

    Read the article

  • ASPXAUTH cookie is not being saved.

    - by kripto_ash
    Hi, Im working on a web project in ASP .NET MVC 2. In this project we store some info inside an ecripted cookie (the ASPXAUTH cookie) to avoid the need to query the db for every request. The thing is the code for this part has suddenly stopped working. I reviewed the changes made to the code on the source control server for anything that could be causing it, I found nothing. I even reverted to a known working copy (working on some other persons PC, same code, etc) but after debugging, it seems the .ASPXAUTH cookie is not getting saved anymore. Instead the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie is being set... (wich before wasn't) I changed the web.config file to turn off the sessionState. This eliminated the ASP.NET_SessionId cookie from being set, but it is still not saving the auth cookie. Ive recently installed some Microsoft Windows XP Updates, but the other person (whos PC runs the application just fine) also did. After googling, some info i found pointed out to a problem with the expiration date of the cookie. Ether cus the pc didnt have the right time/date (this was not the case) and others cus of the cookie expiration date being wrongly set. (I checked and it is being set correctly)... The problem persists with other browsers besides the one im using (Chrome) i tried it with IE6. Any ideas on why this is happening? Ill continue to post any helpful information i can find. Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • TypeConverter prevents ApplyPropertyChanges in EntityFramework

    - by Felix
    I ran into an interesting problem (hopefully, interesting not just for me :) I am running Entity Framework 1 (.NET 3.5) and ASP.NET MVC 2. I have a Customer class that has many-to-one relationship with Country class (in other words, Country is a lookup table for customers - I described more in this post: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2404801/explicit-casting-doesnt-work-in-default-model-binding ) I got TypeConverter to work; so I am getting a perfect object into controller's Post method. Create works fine; however, in Edit I am getting the following error when I call ApplyPropertyChanges: The existing object in the ObjectContext is in the Added state. Changes can only be applied when the existing object is in an unchanged or modified state. The controller code is fairly trivial: public ActionResult Edit(Customer customerToEdit) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { Customer cust = (Customer)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Customers", "CustomerID", customerToEdit.CustomerID)); context.ApplyPropertyChanges(cust.EntityKey.EntitySetName, customerToEdit); context.SaveChanges(); } return View(...); } If I remove country from the form, it works fine; and if I assign dropdown value to EntityReference "manually" - it works as well. TypeConverter code is also fairly simple, but I've never used TypeConverter before, so I may be missing something here: public override object ConvertFrom(ITypeDescriptorContext typeContext, CultureInfo culture, object value) { if (value is string) { int countryID = Int16.Parse((string)value); Country country = (Country)context.GetObjectByKey( new EntityKey("BAEntities.Countries", "CountryID", countryID)); return country; } return base.ConvertFrom(typeContext, culture, value); }

    Read the article

  • How to check if returning View is of type PartialViewResult or a ViewUserControl

    - by mare
    In the method FindView() I have to somehow check if the View we are requesting is a ViewUserControl. Because otherwise I get an error saying: "A master name cannot be specified when the view is a ViewUserControl." This is my custom view engine code right now: public class PendingViewEngine : VirtualPathProviderViewEngine { public PendingViewEngine() { // This is where we tell MVC where to look for our files. /* {0} = view name or master page name * {1} = controller name */ MasterLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/Shared/{0}.master", "~/Views/{0}.master"}; ViewLocationFormats = new[] { "~/Views/{1}/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.aspx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx" }; PartialViewLocationFormats = new[] {"~/Views/{1}/{0}.ascx", "~/Views/Shared/{0}.ascx"}; } protected override IView CreatePartialView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string partialPath) { return new WebFormView(partialPath, ""); } protected override IView CreateView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewPath, string masterPath) { return new WebFormView(viewPath, masterPath); // this line produces the error because we cannot set master page on ASCXs, so I need an "if" here } public override ViewEngineResult FindView(ControllerContext controllerContext, string viewName, string masterName, bool useCache) { if (controllerContext.HttpContext.Request.IsAjaxRequest()) return base.FindView(controllerContext, viewName, "Modal", useCache); return base.FindView(controllerContext, viewName, "Site", useCache); } } The above ViewEngine fails on calls like this: <% Html.RenderAction("Display", "MyController", new { zoneslug = "some-zone-slug" });%> The action I am rendering here is this: public ActionResult Display(string zoneslug) { WidgetZone zone; if (!_repository.IsUniqueSlug(zoneslug)) zone = (WidgetZone) _repository.GetInstance(zoneslug); else { // do something here } // WidgetZone used here is WidgetZone.ascx, so a partial return View("WidgetZone", zone); } I cannot use RenderPartial because you cannot send route values to RenderPartial the way you can to RenderAction. To my knowledge there is no way to provide RouteValueDictionary to RenderPartial() like the way you can to RenderAction().

    Read the article

  • Redirect on Ajax Jquery Call

    - by Mark Estrada
    Hi, I am newbie to ajax here and I know somebody would have encountered this problem already. I have a legacy app built on Spring MVC, it has a interceptor(filter) that redirects the user to the login page whenever there is no session. public class SessionCheckerInterceptor extends HandlerInterceptorAdapter { public boolean preHandle(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response, Object handler) throws Exception { HttpSession session = request.getSession(); // check if userInfo exist in session User user = (User) session.getAttribute("user"); if (user == null) { response.sendRedirect("login.htm"); return false; } return true; } } For non-xmlhttp request, this works fine.. but when I try to use ajax in my application, everything gets weird, it is not able to redirect to the login page correctly. As check the value of the xhr.status = 200 textStatus = parseError errorThrown = "Invalid JSON -Markup of my HTML Login Page- $(document).ready(function(){ jQuery.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "populateData.htm", dataType:"json", data:"userId=SampleUser", success:function(response){ //code here }, error: function(xhr, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error! Status = ' + xhr.status); } }); }); I checked on my firebug that there is a 302 HTTP response but I am not sure how to catch the response and redirect the user to the login page. Any idea here? Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Do I really need an ORM?

    - by alchemical
    We're about to begin development on a mid-size ASP.Net MVC 2 web site. For a typical page, we grab data and throw it up on the web page, i.e. there is not much pre-processing of the data before it is sent to the UI. We're now making the decision whether or not to use an ORM and if yes, which one. We had been looking at EF2 AKA EF4 (ASP.Net Entity Framework in VS 2010) as one possibility. However, I'm thinking a simple solution in this case may be just to use datatables. The reason being that we don't plan to move the data around or process it a lot once we fetch it, so I'm not sure there is that much value in having strongly-typed objects as DTOs. Also, this way we avoid mapping altogether, thereby I think simplifying the code and allowing for faster development. I should mention budget is an issue on this project, as well as speed of execution. We are striving for simplicity anywhere we can, both to keep the budget smaller, the schedule shorter, and performance fast. We haven't fully decided this yet, but are currently leaning towards no ORM. Will we be OK with the no ORM approach or is an ORM worth it?

    Read the article

  • Writing files in App_Data causes tempdata to be null

    - by RAMX
    I have a small asp.net MVC 1 web app that can store files and create directories in the App_Data directory. When the write operation succeeds, I add a message to the tempdata and do a redirectToRoute. The problem is that the tempdata is null when the action is executed. If i write the files in a directory outside of the web applications root directory, the tempdata is not null and everything works correctly. Any ideas why writing in the app_data seems to clear the tempdata ? edit: if DRS.Logic.Repository.Manager.CreateFile(path, hpf, comment) writes in the App_Data, TempData will be null in the action being redirected to. if it is a directory out of the web app root it is fine. No exceptions are being thrown. [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Create(int id, string path, FormCollection form) { ViewData["path"] = path; ViewData["id"] = id; HttpPostedFileBase hpf; string comment = form["FileComment"]; hpf = Request.Files["File"] as HttpPostedFileBase; if (hpf.ContentLength != 0) { DRS.Logic.Repository.Manager.CreateFile(path, hpf, comment); TempData["notification"] = "file was created"; return RedirectToRoute(new { controller = "File", action ="ViewDetails", id = id, path = path + Path.GetFileName(hpf.FileName) }); } else { TempData["notification"] = "No file were selected."; return View(); } }

    Read the article

  • Linq to Entities and POCO foreign key relations mapping (1 to 0..1) problem

    - by brainnovative
    For my ASP.NET MVC 2 application I use Entity Framework 1.0 as my data access layer (repository). But I decided I want to return POCO. For the first time I have encountered a problem when I wanted to get a list of Brands with their optional logos. Here's what I did: public IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> GetAll() { IQueryable<Model.Products.Brand> brands = from b in EntitiesCtx.Brands.Include("Logo") select new Model.Products.Brand() { BrandId = b.BrandId, Name = b.Name, Description = b.Description, IsActive = b.IsActive, Logo = /*b.Logo != null ? */new Model.Cms.Image() { ImageId = b.Logo.ImageId, Alt = b.Logo.Alt, Url = b.Logo.Url }/* : null*/ }; return brands; } You can see in the comments what I would like to achieve. It worked fine whenever a Brand had a Logo otherwise it through an exception that you can assign null to the non-nullable type int (for Id). My workaround was to use nullable in the POCO class but that's not natural - then I have to check not only if Logo is null in my Service layer or Controllers and Views but mostly for Logo.ImageId.HasValue. It's not justified to have a non null Logo property if the id is null. Can anyone think of a better solution?

    Read the article

  • castle PerRequestLifestyle not recognize

    - by Herman
    Hi all, New to Castle/Windsor, please bear with me. I am currently using the framework System.Web.Mvc.Extensibility and in its start up code, it registered HttpContextBase like the following: container.Register(Component.For<HttpContextBase>().LifeStyle.Transient.UsingFactoryMethod(() => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current))); What I wanted to do is to change the behavior and change the lifestyle of httpContextBase to be PerWebRequest. so I have change the code to the following: container.Register(Component.For<HttpContextBase>().LifeStyle.PerWebRequest.UsingFactoryMethod(() => new HttpContextWrapper(HttpContext.Current))); However, when I do this, I got the following error: System.Configuration.ConfigurationErrorsException: Looks like you forgot to register the http module Castle.MicroKernel.Lifestyle.PerWebRequestLifestyleModule Add '<add name="PerRequestLifestyle" type="Castle.MicroKernel.Lifestyle.PerWebRequestLifestyleModule, Castle.MicroKernel" />' to the <httpModules> section on your web.config which I did under <system.web> and <system.webServer>, however, I am still getting the same error. Any hints? Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Model Binding, a simple, simple question

    - by Paul Hatcherian
    I have a struct which works much like the System.Nullable type: public struct SpecialProperty<T> { public static implicit operator T(SpecialProperty<T> value) { return value.Value; } public static implicit operator SpecialProperty<T>(T value) { return new TrackChanges<T> { Value = value }; } T internalValue; public T Value { get { return internalValue; } set { internalValue = value; } } public override bool Equals(object other) { return Value.Equals(other); } public override int GetHashCode() { return Value.GetHashCode(); } public override string ToString() { return Value.ToString(); } } I'm trying to use it with ASP.NET MVC binding. Using the default customer model binder the property will always yield null. I can fix this by adding ".Value" to the end of every form input name, but I just want it to bind to the new type directly using some sort of custom model binder, but all the solutions I've tried seemed needlessly complex. I feel like I should be able to extend the default binder and with a few lines of code redirect the property binding to the entire model using implicit conversion. I don't quite get the binding paradigm of the default binder, but it seems really stuck on this distinction between the model and model properties. What is the simplest method to do this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • nHibernate strategies in a web farm

    - by Pete Nelson
    Our current project at work is a new MVC web site that will use a WCF service primarily to access a 3rd party billing system via a web service as well as a small SQL database for user personalization. The WCF service uses nHibernate for the SQL database. We'd like to implement some sort of web farm for load balancing as well as failover and maintenance. I'm trying to decide the best way to handle nHibernate's caching and database concurrency if there are multiple WCF services running. Some scenarios I've been thinking about... 1) Multiple IIS servers, one WCF server. With this setup, the WCF server would be a single point of failure, but there would be no issues with nHibernate caching or database concurrency. 2) Multiple IIS servers, each with it's own WCF service. This removes a single point of failure, but now nHibernate on one machine would not know about database changes done by another machine. Some solutions to number 2 would be to use an IStatelessSession so we're not doing any caching and nHibernate is always fetching directly from the database. This might be the most feasible as our personalization database has very few objects in it. I'm also considering a 2nd-level cache such as memcached or Velocity, but it may be overkill for this system. I'm putting this out there to see if anyone has experience doing this sort of architecture and to get some ideas for a solution. Thanks!

    Read the article

  • What should be the responsibility of a presenter here?

    - by Achu
    I have a 3 layer design. (UI / BLL / DAL) UI = ASP.NET MVC In my view I have collection of products for a category. Example: Product 1, Product 2 etc.. A user able to select or remove (by selecting check box) product’s from the view, finally save as a collection when user submit these changes. With this 3 layer design how this product collection will be saved? How the filtering of products (removal and addition) to the category object? Here are my options. (A) It is the responsibility of the controller then the pseudo Code would be Find products that the user selected or removed and compare with existing records. Add or delete that collection to category object. Call SaveCategory(category); // BLL CALL Here the first 2 process steps occurs in the controller. (B) It is the responsibility of BLL then pseudo Code would be Collect products what ever user selected SaveCategory(category, products); // BLL CALL Here it's up to the SaveCategory (BLL) to decide what products should be removed and added to the database. Thanks

    Read the article

  • An unhandled exception of type 'System.StackOverflowException' occurred in mscorlib.dll

    - by mazhar
    Ok the thing is that I am using asp.net mvc with linq to sql. I have a scenario where there are two tables group and features with many to many relationship with the third table groupfeatures. I have drag and drop all three table in the dbml file. The thing is that it runs fine with group but when I call the Feature things the above error occured and the compilers stops at this line in ((())). public partial class EgovtDataContext : System.Data.Linq.DataContext { private static System.Data.Linq.Mapping.MappingSource mappingSource = new AttributeMappingSource(); #region Extensibility Method Definitions partial void OnCreated(); partial void InsertGroup(Group instance); partial void UpdateGroup(Group instance); partial void DeleteGroup(Group instance); partial void InsertFeature(Feature instance); partial void UpdateFeature(Feature instance); partial void DeleteFeature(Feature instance); partial void InsertGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void UpdateGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void DeleteGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); #endregion (((public EgovtDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["egovtsConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource)))) The code in both the controller Group and features file is ditto copied. Note the group things are working, the features things are not. FeaturesRepository.cs public IQueryable<Feature> FindAllFeatures() { return db.Features; } FeaturesController.cs FeaturesRepository FeatureRepository = new FeaturesRepository(); public ActionResult Index() { var Feature = FeatureRepository.FindAllFeatures(); return View(Feature); } So what could be wrong?

    Read the article

  • The ViewData item that has the key 'MY KEY' is of type 'System.String' but must be of type 'IEnumerable<SelectListItem>'.

    - by JBibbs
    I am trying to populate a dropdown list from a database mapped with Linq 2 SQL, using ASP.NET MVC 2, and keep getting this error. I am so confused because I am declaring a variable with the type IEnumerable<SelectListItem> on the second line, but the error makes me think this is not the case. I feel like this should be very simple, but I am struggling. Any help is appreciated. Here are the interesting bits of my controller: public ActionResult Create() { var db = new DB(); IEnumerable<SelectListItem> basetypes = db.Basetypes.Select(b => new SelectListItem { Value = b.basetype, Text = b.basetype }); ViewData["basetype"] = basetypes; return View(); } And here are the interesting bits of my view: <div class="editor-label"> <%: Html.LabelFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("basetype") %> <%: Html.ValidationMessageFor(model => model.basetype) %> </div> Here is the Post action when submitting the Form // POST: /Meals/Create [HttpPost] public ActionResult Create(Meal meal) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { try { // TODO: Add insert logic here var db = new DB(); db.Meals.InsertOnSubmit(meal); db.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch { return View(meal); } } else { return View(meal); } } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Calculate time of method execution and send to WCF service async

    - by Tim
    I need to implement time calculation for repository methods in my asp .net mvc project classes. The problem is that i need to send time calculation data to WCF Service which is time consuming. I think about threads which can help to cal WCF service asynchronously. But I have very little experience with it. Do I need to create new thread each time or I can create a global thread, if so then how? I have something like that: StopWatch class public class StopWatch { private DateTime _startTime; private DateTime _endTime; public void Start() { _startTime = DateTime.Now; } protected void StopTimerAndWriteStatistics() { _endTime = DateTime.Now; TimeSpan timeResult = _endTime - _startTime; //WCF proxy object var reporting = AppServerUtility.GetProxy<IReporting>(); //Send data to server reporting.WriteStatistics(_startTime, _endTime, timeResult, "some information"); } public void Stop() { //Here is the thread I have question with var thread = new Thread(StopTimerAndWriteStatistics); thread.Start(); } } Using of StopWatch class in Repository public class SomeRepository { public List<ObjectInfo> List() { StopWatch sw = new StopWatch(); sw.Start(); //performing long time operation sw.Stop(); } } What am I doing wrong with threads?

    Read the article

  • RESTful WCF Data Service Authentication

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'd like to implement a REST api to an existing ASP.NET MVC website. I've managed to set up WCF Data services so that I can browse my data, but now the question is how to handle authentication. Right now the data service is secured via the site's built in forms authentication, and that's ok when accessing the service from AJAX forms. However, It's not ideal for a RESTful api. What I would like as an alternative to forms authentication is for the users to simply embed the user name and password into the url to the web service or as request parameters. For example, if my web service is usually accessible as http://localhost:1234/api.svc I'd like to be able to access it using the url http://localhost:1234/api.svc/{login}/{password} So, my questions are as follows: Is this a sane approach? If yes, how can I implement this? It seems trivial redirecting GET requests so that the login and password are attached as GET parameters. I also know how to inspect the http context and use those parameters to filter the results. But I am not sure if / how the same approach could be applied to POST, PUT and DELETE requests. Thanks, Adrian

    Read the article

  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

    Read the article

  • MVC2 and jquery.validate.js

    - by Will I Am
    I am experiencing some confusion with jquery.validate.js First of all, what is MicrosoftMvcJqueryValidation.js. It is referenced in snippets on the web but appears to have dissapeared from the RTM MVC2 and is now in futures. Do I need it? The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to use the validator with MVC and I can't get it to work. I defined my JS as: $(document).ready(function () { $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { f_fullname: { required: true }, f_email: { required: true, email: true }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "#f_email" }, f_password: { required: true, minlength: 6 }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "#f_password" } }, messages: { f_fullname: { required: "* required" }, f_email: { required: "* required", email: "* not a valid email address" }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" }, f_password: { required: "* required", minlength: "password must be at least 6 characters long" }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" } } }); }); and my form on the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm("CreateNew", "Account", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "myForm" })) { %> <fieldset> <label for="f_fullname">name:</label><input id="f_fullname"/> <label for="f_email"><input id="f_email"/> ...etc... <input type="submit" value="Create" id="f_submit"/> </fieldset> <% } %> and the validation method gets called on .ready() with no errors in firebug. however when I submit the form, nothing gets validated and the form gets submitted. If I create a submitHandler() it gets called, but the plugin doesn't detect any validation errors (.valid() == true) What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

    Read the article

  • Mock versus Implementation. How to share both approaches in a single Test class ?

    - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia
    Hi, See the following Mock Test by using Spring/Spring-MVC public class OrderTest { // SimpleFormController private OrderController controller; private OrderService service; private MockHttpServletRequest request; @BeforeMethod public void setUp() { request = new MockHttpServletRequest(); request.setMethod("POST"); Integer orderNumber = 421; Order order = new Order(orderNumber); // Set up a Mock service service = createMock(OrderService.class); service.save(order); replay(service); controller = new OrderController(); controller.setService(service); controller.setValidator(new OrderValidator()); request.addParameter("orderNumber", String.valueOf(orderNumber)); } @Test public void successSave() { controller.handleRequest(request, new MockHttpServletResponse()); // Our OrderService has been called by our controller verify(service); } @Test public void failureSave() { // Ops... our orderNumber is required request.removeAllParameters(); ModelAndView mav = controller.handleRequest(request, new MockHttpServletResponse()); BindingResult bindException = (BindingResult) mav.getModel().get(BindingResult.MODEL_KEY_PREFIX + "command"); assertEquals("Our Validator has thrown one FieldError", bindException.getAllErrors(), 1); } } As you can see, i do as proposed by Triple A pattern Arrange (setUp method) Act (controller.handleRequest) Assert (verify and assertEquals) But i would like to test both Mock and Implementation class (OrderService) by using this single Test class. So in order to retrieve my Implementation, i re-write my class as follows @ContextConfiguration(locations="/app.xml") public class OrderTest extends AbstractTestNGSpringContextTests { } So how should i write my single test to Arrange both Mock and Implementation OrderService without change my Test method (sucessSave and failureSave) I am using TestNG, but you can show in JUnit if you want regards,

    Read the article

  • Use spring tag in XSLT

    - by X-Pippes
    I have a XSL/XML parser to produce jsp/html code. Using MVC model I need to accees spring library in order to perform i18n translation. Thus, given the xml <a> ... <country>EN</country> ... </a> and using <spring:message code="table_country_code.EN"/> tag, choose based on the browser language, the transalation into England, Inglaterra, etc... However, the XSL do not support <spring:message> tag. The idea is to have a XSLT with something like this <spring:message code="table_country_code.><xsl:value-of select="country"/>"/>` I also tried to create the spring tag in Java when I make a parse to create the XML but I sill have the same error. ERROR [STDERR] (http-0.0.0.0-8080-1) file:///C:/Software/Jboss/jboss-soa-p-5/jboss-as/bin/jstl:; Line #5; Column #58; The prefix "spring" for element "spring:message" is not bound. How can I resolve?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218  | Next Page >