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  • PayPal IPN Response

    - by Gorkem Tolan
    I am having a problem with PayPal IPN response. After payment is made by the customer, PayPal IPN returns this URL: www.mywebsite.com?orderid=32&tx=2AC67201DL3533325&st=Pending&amt=2.50&cc=USD&cm=&item_number=32 There are a couple of issues Post-back field names are undefined or missing. Thus I can get the INVALID message. I am not sure if my website does not read POST variables. When I looked at IPN history, it shows that each IPN has been sent with the complete url. Payment status keeps coming Pending. Does this issue cause the first issue? Thank you for your responses in advance. Here is the code: Dim strSandbox As String, strLive As String Dim req As HttpWebRequest strSandbox = "http://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr/" strLive = "https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" req = CType(WebRequest.Create(strSandbox), HttpWebRequest) 'Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST" req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Dim param() As Byte param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength) Dim strRequest As String strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param) strRequest = strRequest & "&cmd=_notify-validate" req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length 'Response.Write(strRequest) 'Send the request to PayPal and get the response Dim streamOut As StreamWriter streamOut = New StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII) streamOut.Write(strRequest) streamOut.Close() Dim streamIn As StreamReader streamIn = New StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()) Dim strResponse As String strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd() Response.Write(strResponse) streamIn.Close() If (strResponse = "VERIFIED") Then Response.Redirect("thankyou.aspx") ElseIf (strResponse = "INVALID") Then End If

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  • Azure - Unable To Get SQL Azure Invitation Code!

    - by Goober
    Scenario I'm trying to convert my Silverlight Business Application over to the cloud with the help of Azure. I have been following this link from Brad Abrams blog. Both the links to Windows Azure and SQL Azure crash out in Google Chrome, they work in Internet Explorer, but it's literally one of the worst user experiences I've ever had. The Problem I'm asked to sign in to Microsoft connect with my Live ID. I do so, I'm then asked to register!? - I do so. I'm then sent a verification email which I verify. I'm then signed out!?!?! When I sign back in, it repeats the process.... ANY IDEAS!??! Edit/Update: Finally managed to get signed up/in to connect. From here I was able to get hold of an invitation code to Windows Azure. Now I need an invitation code for SQL Azure. I cannot see ANYWHERE that advertises a way of getting this SQL Azure code, the only thing that I have seen is some text saying that there "may be a delay" in receiving codes due to volume of interest, which quite frankly I find hard to believe......... It's so far been 3 days now.This officially Sucks! If I have any more news I'll post back here.

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  • James - mail server configuration help needed

    - by Chaitanya
    Hi, I am trying to setup James mail server on a linux machine. The linux machine has public static ip address assigned. I installed James and added in the config.xml added the servername as mydomain.com. In the DNS for mydomain.com, I have created a A-record, say mx.mydomain.com, which corresponds to the ipaddress of the above mail server machine. Then added mx.mydomain.com as MX record for mydomain.com. In James, I have created a new user test. Then from gmail, I sent a mail to [email protected]. The mail is not received back and it didn't even bounce back. The linux machine is behind a firewall with only 22, 80, 8080 ports open for external network. My question here is, Do I require do open any other ports on the firewall so that the mail I send from gmail arrives to James? If it's not the port problem, any views on solving this issue? I don't want to send mails from this server. It's only for receiving the mails.

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  • Rewind request body stream

    - by Despertar
    I am re-implementing a request logger as Owin Middleware which logs the request url and body of all incoming requests. I am able to read the body, but if I do the body parameter in my controller is null. I'm guessing it's null because the stream position is at the end so there is nothing left to read when it tries to deserialize the body. I had a similar issue in a previous version of Web API but was able to set the Stream position back to 0. This particular stream throws a This stream does not support seek operations exception. In the most recent version of Web API 2.0 I could call Request.HttpContent.ReadAsStringAsync()inside my request logger, and the body would still arrive to the controller in tact. How can I rewind the stream after reading it? or How can I read the request body without consuming it? public class RequestLoggerMiddleware : OwinMiddleware { public RequestLoggerMiddleware(OwinMiddleware next) : base(next) { } public override Task Invoke(IOwinContext context) { return Task.Run(() => { string body = new StreamReader(context.Request.Body).ReadToEnd(); // log body context.Request.Body.Position = 0; // cannot set stream position back to 0 Console.WriteLine(context.Request.Body.CanSeek); // prints false this.Next.Invoke(context); }); } } public class SampleController : ApiController { public void Post(ModelClass body) { // body is now null if the middleware reads it } }

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  • How does [self.tableView reloadData] know what data to reload?

    - by Scott Pendleton
    It bugs me to death that my viewcontroller, which happens to be a tableViewController, knows without being told that its property that is an NSArray or an NSDictionary holds the data that is to be loaded into the table for display. Seems like I should explicitly say something like: [self.tableView useData:self.MyArray]; Because, THAT'S WHAT I WANT TO DO! I want to have more than one array inside my tableViewController, and switch between one and the other programmatically. Please do not give me an answer like: "Never mind what you want to do, just set up two different tableViewControllers." No. I want to do it my way. I notice that when a tableViewController makes use of a searchViewController, you can do this: if (tableView == self.searchDisplayController.searchResultsTableView) { YES! I have even been able to do this: self.tableView = self.searchDisplayController.searchResultsTableView; [self.tableView reloadData]; But nowhere can I find how to set self.tableView back to the main datasource! I'm so tired of sifting, sifting through code for incomplete nuggets of enlightenment. Allow me to understate that Apple's documentation is grossly inadequate. It's astounding that so many slick iPhone programs came to be created. People said that once I went Mac, I'd never go back to Windows. Well, I'm anything but a convert.

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  • Translating EventAggregators usage of SynchronizationContext to VB.Net

    - by Phil Sayers
    Working with a fairly large VB.Net back office winforms application. 1 million+ LOC. Big ball of mud, 90% of all code is in Forms & other UI controls. Slowly introducing better architecture as time & recources allows, We've been using ideas from the EventAggrgator by Jeremy Miller. http://codebetter.com/blogs/jeremy.miller/archive/2008/01/11/build-your-own-cab-extensible-pub-sub-event-aggregator-with-generics.aspx Initially I stripped out the usage of SynchronizationContext. Now I'm trying to introduce it back, and I'm struggling with the translation of the lamda stuff from c# to vb.net. Specifically this line of c# _context.Send(delegate { receiver.Handle(subject); }, null); This is the vb.net I have so far: _context.Send(New SendOrPostCallback(AddressOf listener.Handle(message)), Nothing) The error I'm getting is listener.Handle(message) <-- AddressOf operand must be the name of a method. I'm sure I'm missing something simple, but after staring at this for 2 days, I'm lost.

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  • Synchronizing Asynchronous request handlers in Silverlight environment

    - by Eric Lifka
    For our senior design project my group is making a Silverlight application that utilizes graph theory concepts and stores the data in a database on the back end. We have a situation where we add a link between two nodes in the graph and upon doing so we run analysis to re-categorize our clusters of nodes. The problem is that this re-categorization is quite complex and involves multiple queries and updates to the database so if multiple instances of it run at once it quickly garbles data and breaks (by trying to re-insert already used primary keys). Essentially it's not thread safe, and we're trying to make it safe, and that's where we're failing and need help :). The create link function looks like this: private Semaphore dblock = new Semaphore(1, 1); // This function is on our service reference and gets called // by the client code. public int addNeed(int nodeOne, int nodeTwo) { dblock.WaitOne(); submitNewNeed(createNewNeed(nodeOne, nodeTwo)); verifyClusters(nodeOne, nodeTwo); dblock.Release(); return 0; } private void verifyClusters(int nodeOne, int nodeTwo) { // Run analysis of nodeOne and nodeTwo in graph } All copies of addNeed should wait for the first one that comes in to finish before another can execute. But instead they all seem to be running and conflicting with each other in the verifyClusters method. One solution would be to force our front end calls to be made synchronously. And in fact, when we do that everything works fine, so the code logic isn't broken. But when it's launched our application will be deployed within a business setting and used by internal IT staff (or at least that's the plan) so we'll have the same problem. We can't force all clients to submit data at different times, so we really need to get it synchronized on the back end. Thanks for any help you can give, I'd be glad to supply any additional information that you could need!

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  • Using ViewModel in ASP.NET MVC with FluentValidation

    - by Brian McCord
    I am using ASP.NET MVC with Entity Framework POCO classes and the FluentValidation framework. It is working well, and the validation is happening as it should (as if I were using DataAnnotations). I have even gotten client-side validation working. And I'm pretty pleased with it. Since this is a test application I am writing just to see if I can get new technologies working together (and learn them along the way), I am now ready to experiment with using ViewModels instead of just passing the actual Model to the view. I'm planning on using something like AutoMapper in my service to do the mapping back and forth from Model to ViewModel but I have a question first. How is this going to affect my validation? Should my validation classes (written using FluentValidation) be written against the ViewModel instead of the Model? Or does it need to happen in both places? One of the big deals about DataAnnotations (and FluentValidation) was that you could have validation in one place that would work "everywhere". And it fulfills that promise (mostly), but if I start using ViewModels, don't I lose that ability and have to go back to putting validation in two places? Or am I just thinking about it wrong?

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  • Losing sessions with window.open and cakephp redirection in PHP with cakephp

    - by vsecades
    Hi guys, Ok, here goes a very strange problem... Our team is using cakephp to develop a large application. Everything session related is working properly so far. The only issues we've had so far are related to iframes and opening windows in other subdomains. I'll explain: User opens up site A and logs into it, creation a User in a session. Cookies are set, everything works as expected. The user clicks a link that opens up Site B via Javascript. When they go to that site, they are automatically logged in by a backend mechanism and infrastructure. Site B is a subdomain of Site A. On that site there is another mechanism to go back to the first page (a link rather) that logs them back in to site A. The fun part about this whole process is the following, and that on step 3, when we click on the link, the session on Site A has been lost. I know it's lost because it is forcing login again. I am a bit lost, as the rest of the application that work with AJAX and uses iframes and stuff works flawlessly, just this one item does not work as one would expect. Any assistance would be appreciated. Cheers, Valentin

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  • SSRS for Sharepoint, Images in a report from a Sharepoint List URL?

    - by James Polhemus
    Greetings Sabios, I have several reports I run successfully where the data comes from a Sharepoint list in the form of an XML dataset. I am however having trouble with one. I have a report that pulls an image file onto the main body of the report. This data too comes from a Sharepoint list in the form of an XML dataset which sends me the URL to the jpeg or bmp or gif... whatever the case may be. I can successfully pull this off in my own Visual Studio IDE. My Local Report Server will render it as well It won't run on my Sharepoint Report Server (My MOSS runs through https while my Shartpoint Report Server is http might this matter?) When I upload it to Sharepoint and run it through the Sharepoint Report Server, I get back EVERYTHING in the report Header and Footer (dataset text and embedded Images) but just a big RED X where the Main Image should be. I have done everything the boards say: A. I made sure the Unattended Execution Account is running on the Reports Server B. I have insured the URL comes back in clean format (else the images wouldn't render locally either and they do) The report logs throw this exception: e ERROR: Throwing Microsoft.ReportingServices.Diagnostics.Utilities.ContainerTypeNotSupportedException: The target location you specified is not supported by the report server. A report definition (.rdl), report model (.smdl), resource, or shared data source (.rsds) file must be located within a library or a folder within it., ; Info: Microsoft.ReportingServices.Diagnostics.Utilities.ContainerTypeNotSupportedException: The target location you specified is not supported by the report server. A report definition (.rdl), report model (.smdl), resource, or shared data source (.rsds) file must be located within a library or a folder within it. Any takers? Even my Sharepoint Administrator can't help me:) James

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  • iPhone SDK UIScrollView doesn't get touch events after moving it

    - by newbie
    Hi! I'm subclassing UIScrollView and on the start I fill this ShowsScrollView with some items. After filling it, I setup frame and contentSize to this ShowsScrollView. Everything works fine for now, i get touches events, scrolling is working.. But after rotation to landscape, I change x and y coordinates of ShowsScrollView frame, to move it from bottom to top right corner. Then I resize it (change width and height of ShowsScrollView frame) and reorder items in this scroll. At the end I setup new contentSize. Now i get touches event only on first 1/4 of scrollview, scrolling also work only on 1/4 of scrollview, but scroll all items in scrollview. After all actions I write a log: NSLog(@"ViewController: setLandscape finished: size: %f, %f content: %f,%f",scrollView.frame.size.width,scrollView.frame.size.height, scrollView.contentSize.width, scrollView.contentSize.height ); Values are correct: ViewController: setLandscape finished: size: 390.000000, 723.000000 content: 390.000000,950.000000 On rotating back to portrait, I move and resize all thing back and everything works fine.. Please help!

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  • Deserializing a complex JSON result (array of dictionaries) with TouchJSON

    - by jpm
    I did a few tests with TouchJSON last night and it worked pretty well in general for simple cases. I'm using the following code to read some JSON content from a file, and deserialize it: NSString *jsonString = [[NSString alloc] initWithContentsOfFile:@"data.json"]; NSData *jsonData = [jsonString dataUsingEncoding:NSUTF32BigEndianStringEncoding]; NSError *error = nil; NSDictionary *items = [[CJSONDeserializer deserializer] deserializeAsDictionary:jsonData error:&error]; NSLog(@"total items: %d", [items count]); NSLog(@"error: %@", [error localizedDescription]); That works fine if I have a very simple JSON object in the file (i.e. a dictionary): {"id": "54354", "name": "boohoo"} This way I was able to get access to the array of values, as I wanted to get the item based on its index within the list: NSArray *items_list = [items allValues]; NSString *name = [items_list objectAtIndex:1]; (I understand that I could have fetched the name with the dictionary API) Now I would like to deserialize a semi-complex JSON string, which represents an array of dictionaries. An example of such a JSON string is below: [{"id": "123456", "name": "touchjson"}, {"id": "3456", "name": "bleh"}] When I try to run the same code above against this new content in the data.json file, I don't get any results back. My NSLog() call says "total items: 0", and no error is coming back in the NSError object. Any clues on what is going on? I'm completely lost on what to do, as there isn't much documentation available for TouchJSON, and much less usage examples.

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  • Very strange iSeries Provider behavior

    - by AJ
    We've been given a "stored procedure" from our RPG folks that returns six data tables. Attempting to call it from .NET (C#, 3.5) using the iSeries Provider for .NET (tried using both V5R4 and V6R1), we are seeing different results based on how we call the stored proc. Here's way that we'd prefer to do it: using (var dbConnection = new iDB2Connection("connectionString")) { dbConnection.Open(); using(var cmd = dbConnection.CreateCommand()) { cmd.CommandType = CommandType.StoredProcedure; cmd.CommandText = "StoredProcName"; cmd.Parameters.Add(new iDB2Parameter("InParm1", iDB2DbType.Varchar).Value = thing; var ds = new DataSet(); var da = new iDB2DataAdapter(cmd); da.Fill(ds); } } Doing it this way, we get FIVE tables back in the result set. However, if we do this: cmd.CommandType = CommandType.Text; cmd.CommandText = "CALL StoredProcName('" + thing + "')"; We get back the expected SIX tables. I realize that there aren't many of us sorry .NET-to-DB2 folks out here, but I'm hoping someone has seen this before. TIA.

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  • jquery WebService responseXML / responseText

    - by Kevin
    I get an empty response back from this local WebService call via jquery / ajax. I have verified the URL and XML input string by invoking the call in a browser. I DO get XML code back as expected. What am I missing? Could it have something to do with the return type "XmlDocument"? I have tried changing out text/xml to text. No affect. Tried a GET instead of POST. Webservice (running locally)... _ Public Function GetXML(ByVal strXML As String) As XmlDocument... Dim retXML As XmlDocument = New XmlDocument() ...CODE.... Return retXML Calling Function: # GetStat() { var Url = 'http://localhost/myService.asmx?op=GetXML'; var msg = ' 55 POPE myUser myPwd '; $.ajax({ url: Url, type: "POST", dataType: "text/xml", data: msg, complete: processResult, contentType: "text/xml" }); return false; } function processResult(xmlData, status) { var jData = $(xmlData); } # Thanks!

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  • Is Rails Metal (& Rack) a good way to implement a high traffic web service api?

    - by Greg
    I am working on a very typical web application. The main component of the user experience is a widget that a site owner would install on their front page. Every time their front page loads, the widget talks to our server and displays some of the data that returns. So there are two components to this web application: the front end UI that the site owner uses to configure their widget the back end component that responds to the widget's web api call Previously we had all of this running in PHP. Now we are experimenting with Rails, which is fantastic for #1 (the front end UI). The question is how to do #2, the back serving of widget information, efficiently. Obviously this is much higher load than the front end, since it is called every time the front page loads on one of our clients' websites. I can see two obvious approaches: A. Parallel Stack: Set up a parallel stack that uses something other than rails (e.g. our old PHP-based approach) but accesses the same database as the front end B. Rails Metal: Use Rails Metal/Rack to bypass the Rails routing mechanism, but keep the api call responder within the Rails app My main question: Is Rails/Metal a reasonable approach for something like this? But also... Will the overhead of loading the Rails environment still be too heavy? Is there a way to get even closer to the metal with Rails, bypassing most of the environment? Will Rails/Metal performance approach the perf of a similar task on straight PHP (just looking for ballpark here)? And... Is there a 'C' option that would be much better than both A and B? That is, something before going to the lengths of C code compiled to binary and installed as an nginx or apache module? Thanks in advance for any insights.

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  • Best way to escape characters before jquery post ASP.NET MVC

    - by Darcy
    Hello, I am semi-new to ASP.NET MVC. I am building an app that is used internally for my company. The scenario is this: There are two Html.Listbox's. One has all database information, and the other is initally empty. The user would add items from the database listbox to the empty listbox. Every time the user adds a command, I call a js function that calls an ActionResult "AddCommand" in my EditController. In the controller, the selected items that are added are saved to another database table. Here is the code (this gets called every time an item is added): function Add(listbox) { ... //skipping initializing code for berevity var url = "/Edit/AddCommand/" + cmd; $.post(url); } So the problem occurs when the 'cmd' is an item that has a '/', ':', '%', '?', etc (some kind of special character) So what I'm wondering is, what's the best way to escape these characters? Right now I'm checking the database's listbox item's text, and rebuilding the string, then in the Controller, I'm taking that built string and turning it back into its original state. So for example, if the item they are adding is 'Cats/Dogs', I am posting 'Cats[SLASH]Dogs' to the controller, and in the controller changing it back to 'Cats/Dogs'. Obviously this is a horrible hack, so I must be missing something. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Version control a content management system?

    - by Mike
    I have the following directory structure in the CMS application we have written: /application /modules /cms /filemanager /block /pages /sitemap /youtube /rss /skin /backend /default /css /js /images /frontend /default /css /js /images Application contains code specific to the current CMS implementation, i.e code for this specific cms. Modules contain reusable portions of code that we share across projects, such as libraries to work with youtube or rss feeds. We include these as git submodules, so that we can update the module in any website and push the changes back across all other projects. It makes it really easy to apply a change to our code and distribute it. We wanted to turn the CMS into a module so we get the same benefit - we can run the entire project under source control, then update the cms as required through a git-submodule. We have run into a problem however: the cms requires javascript/images/css in order for it to work correctly. Things we have thought about: We could create 2 submodules, one for cms-skin and one for cms, but this means you cannot "git pull" one version without having some idea of which versions of skin work with which versions of cms. i.e version 1.2.2 CMS might have issues with 1.0.3 CMS-Skin We could add the skin to the cms module but this has the following problems: Skin should be available on the document root, module code shouldn't be, and if it is it should probably be secured via .htaccess It doesn't seem to make any sense bundling assets with php code We could create a symlink between /skin/backend/ to go to /modules/cms/skin but does this cause any security problems, and do we want to require something like a symlink for the application to work? We could create a hook for git or a shell script that copies files from modules/cms/skin to skin/backend when an update occurs, but this means we lose the ability to edit CMS core files in a project then push them back How is this typically done in large scale cms's? How is it possible to get the source code for a cms under version control, work on the application for a client, then update the sourcecode as releases and given by the vendor? How do applications like Magento or Drupal do this?

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  • How to start an iPhone 3.1.3 project in Xcode 3.2.3 (iPhone SDK 4 beta)

    - by Zordid
    Hi there! I am having big problems since I downloaded the beta version of iPhone SDK 4.0. Okay, I just started to look at iPhone development a few weeks ago, but I cannot figure out how Xcode is supposed to work: whenever I start a new project, I choose a template like "View-based application" or so. Now, the target will always (at least I did not find a preference anywhere!) be the latest SDK: 4.0. But then: switching the target back to, say, 3.1.3 the template files seem to contain errors! Starting an empty application this way yields an exception: Terminating app due to uncaught exception 'NSUnknownKeyException', reason: [...] this class is not key value coding-compliant for the key rootViewController sick Now, my (stupid) question: How do I develop an application NOT targeting the latest SDK, but the standard 3.1.3 SDK?? In other words: I would expect Xcode not only to ask for a project type in the New Project window, but also for my desired target!! Am I right that the templates generated with this step are not valid for any other target than 4.0? How can that be?? ...I want my Eclipse back! sigh Can anybody help me please?

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  • HTTPWebResponse returning no content

    - by Richard Yale
    Our company works with another company called iMatrix and they have an API for creating our own forms. They have confirmed that our request is hitting their servers but a response is supposed to come back in 1 of a few ways determined by a parameter. I'm getting a 200 OK response back but no content and a content-length of 0 in the response header. here is the url: https://secure4.office2office.com/designcenter/api/imx_api_call.asp I'm using this class: namespace WebSumit { public enum MethodType { POST = 0, GET = 1 } public class WebSumitter { public WebSumitter() { } public string Submit(string URL, Dictionary<string, string> Parameters, MethodType Method) { StringBuilder _Content = new StringBuilder(); string _ParametersString = ""; // Prepare Parameters String foreach (KeyValuePair<string, string> _Parameter in Parameters) { _ParametersString = _ParametersString + (_ParametersString != "" ? "&" : "") + string.Format("{0}={1}", _Parameter.Key, _Parameter.Value); } // Initialize Web Request HttpWebRequest _Request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create(URL); // Request Method _Request.Method = Method == MethodType.POST ? "POST" : (Method == MethodType.GET ? "GET" : ""); _Request.UserAgent = "Mozilla/4.0 (compatible; MSIE 6.0; Win32)"; // Send Request using (StreamWriter _Writer = new StreamWriter(_Request.GetRequestStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _Writer.Write(_ParametersString); } // Initialize Web Response HttpWebResponse _Response = (HttpWebResponse)_Request.GetResponse(); // Get Response using (StreamReader _Reader = new StreamReader(_Response.GetResponseStream(), Encoding.UTF8)) { _Content.Append(_Reader.ReadToEnd()); } return _Content.ToString(); } } } I cannot post the actual parameters because they are to the live system, but can you look at this code and see if there is anything that is missing? Thanks!

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  • Problem Rendering SIFR with revision 436 on IE6 and IE7

    - by Mark
    Hi, I seem to have a problem with SIFR3. I'm using version 436 and from all my testing it appears to be a problem associated with IE6 and IE7 as I cannot replicate the issue in Firefox, Chrome, Safari for Windows, or even IE8. The problem is occurring on my company's website and can be seen here: http://www.wyldeia.co.uk/blog.php When you first go to the page in IE6 or IE7 it appears to render fine. However if you click away onto another page and then click the back button in the browser, all of the text is replaced by an error saying "Rendered with sIFR3 revision 436". If you refresh the page, then the problem goes away, that is until you browse away and come back again. I've tried this on two separate machines both running IE7.0.6000.16809, and a further separate machine running IE6 which I then upgraded to IE8. I thought initially it might be Flash player related but on upgrading from version 9 to 10 of the flash player the problem remains. Further digging around indicated that the error can be caused by having a corrupted flash font file, or having one present that was generated with a previous revision of SIFR3. However I have exported the flash font file using the supplied fla with revision 436 but the problem remains. Usually I like to track the answer down myself but as it is I'm at a bit of a loss on this one so if anyone has any ideas what might be happening here then I would be very grateful! Regards, Mark

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  • MVC Multiple submit buttons on a array of objects

    - by Kieron
    Hi, I've got a list of objects in an MVC view, each with a set of submit buttons - Move up, Move down and Remove. Using the answer from this question, I can get the button clicked - but I need to know which item it would be operating on. The problem comes from the fact the input's value attribute is passed back, I need more information than that - i.e. an id. Below is a snippet of the contents of a for loop, rendering each item. <ul> <li><input type="submit" name="SubmitButton" value="Move-Up" class="linked-content-position-modifier" /></li> <li><input type="submit" name="SubmitButton" value="Move-Down" class="linked-content-position-modifier" /></li> <li><input type="submit" name="SubmitButton" value="Remove" class="linked-content-modifier" /></li> <li><%= Model.Contents[i] %></li> </ul> When the form is posted back, I can see that the SubmitButton has a value of either Move-Up, Move-Down or Remove - but no idea which item in the array it's referring too. Without changing the value to something really ugly, how would I tell which item it's referring to?

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  • Focussing on Style Sheets and Cross Browser Compatibility.

    - by Sam
    Hello everyone, Let me begin this topic by explaining my background experience with web design. I have always been more of a back end programmer, with PHP and SQL and things. However I do have a shallow background with HTML and CSS. The problem is, I don't know it all. What I do know is, when it comes to designing (not back end dirty work) I understand basic CSS properties and I also understand HTML and I can usually throw together a sloppy web page with the two and a couple bazillion DIV tags. Anyways.. The problem I always have encountered is that when I design a website in a browser such as IE7 (and then it looks perfect on IE7), and then look at it on IE8 or IE6 or Mozilla (etc.) it gets all spacey and ugly and looks totally different than the way it should look on IE7. Question one: Basically, what I am asking everyone is what route should I take to learn how to properly build the website? Build as in put it togehter with CSS standards and HTML standards that will make my site look the same on every brwoser. (Not only learning standards but where can I learn to properly write my code?) Where is a strong free resource I can use to learn how to these things? Question two: How do I properly code my website? Do I use all external style sheets to make dynamic page design simplistic or do I hard code some things into the DIV tags on each page? What is proper? Oh, and if anyone has any tutorials on how to properly design a complete layout feel free to throw it in a response somewhere. Thank you for taking the time to read my questions, and hopefully you will understand what I am trying to get out to everyone. I need to get on the right route of the designing side of web programming so that I will know how to create successful websites in the future. Thank you, Sam Pardee

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  • QFileDialog filter from mime-types

    - by Mathias
    I want the filter in a QFileDialog to match all audio file types supported by Phonon on the platform in question. 1 - However I am not able to find a way in Qt to use mime types in a filter. How can I do that? 2 - Or how can I find the corresponding file extensions for the mimetypes manually? The solution should be Qt based, or at least be cross platform and supported everywhere Qt is. Following is a short code describing my problem: #include <QApplication> #include <QFileDialog> #include <QStringList> #include <phonon/backendcapabilities.h> QString mime_to_ext(QString mime) { // WHAT TO REALLY DO ?? // NEEDLESS TO SAY; THIS IS WRONG... return mime.split("/").back().split('-').back(); } int main(int argc, char **argv) { QApplication app(argc, argv); QStringList p_audio_exts; QStringList p_mime_types = Phonon::BackendCapabilities::availableMimeTypes(); for(QStringList::iterator i = p_mime_types.begin(), ie = p_mime_types.end(); i != ie; i++) { if((*i).startsWith("audio")) p_audio_exts << mime_to_ext(*i); } QString filter = QString("All Files(*)"); if(!p_audio_exts.isEmpty()) { QString p_audio_filter = QString("Audio Files (*.%1)").arg(p_audio_exts.join(" *.")); filter = QString("%1;;%2").arg(p_audio_filter).arg(filter); } QFileDialog dialog(NULL, "Open Audio File", QString::null, filter); dialog.exec(); }

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  • Web-based clients vs thick/rich clients?

    - by rudolfv
    My company is a software solutions provider to a major telecommunications company. The environment is currently IBM WebSphere-based with front-end IBM Portal servers talking to a cluster of back-end WebSphere Application Servers providing EJB services. Some of the portlets use our own home-grown MVC-pattern and some are written in JSF. Recently we did a proof-of-concept rich/thick-client application that communicates directly with the EJB's on the back-end servers. It was written in NetBeans Platform and uses the WebSphere application client library to establish communication with the EJB's. The really painful bit was getting the client to use secure JAAS/SSL communications. But, after that was resolved, we've found that the rich client has a number of advantages over the web-based portal client applications we've become accustomed to: Enormous performance advantage (CORBA vs. HTTP, cut out the Portal Server middle man) Development is simplified and faster due to use of NetBeans' visual designer and Swing's generally robust architecture The debug cycle is shortened by not having to deploy your client application to a test server No mishmash of technologies as with web-based development (Struts, JSF, JQuery, HTML, JSTL etc., etc.) After enduring the pain of web-based development (even JSF) for a while now, I've come to the following conclusion: Rich clients aren't right for every situation, but when you're developing an in-house intranet-based solution, then you'd be crazy not to consider NetBeans Platform or Eclipse RCP. Any comments/experiences with rich clients vs. web clients?

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  • Cannot rollback ransaction with Entity Framework

    - by Luca
    I have to do queries on uncommitted changes and I tried to use transactions, but I found that it do not work if there are exceptions. I made a simple example to reproduce the problem. I have a database with only one table called "Tabella" and the table has two fields: "ID" is a autogenerated integer, and "Valore" is an integer with a Unique constraint. Then I try to run this code: using (TransactionScope scope = new TransactionScope()) { Db1Container db1 = new Db1Container(); try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 1 }); db1.SaveChanges(); //Unique constraint is violated here and an exception is thrown } catch { } try { db1.AddToTabella(new Tabella() { Valore = 2 }); db1.SaveChanges(); } catch { } //scope.Complete(); //NEVER called } //here everything should be rolled back Now if I look into the database it should contain no records because the transaction should rollback, instead I find two records!!!! One with Valore=1 and one with Valore=2. I am missing something? It looks like the second call to SaveChanges method rollback its own changes and "deletes" the transaction, then the third call to SaveChanges commits the changes of the first and the third insert (at this point it is like the transaction not exists). I also tried to use SaveChanges(false) method (even without calling AcceptAllChanges method), but with no success: I have the same behaviour. I do not want the transaction to be rolled back automatically by SaveChanges, because I want to correct the errors (for example by user interaction in the catch statement) and make a retry. Can someone help me with this? It seems like a "bug", and it is giving me a really big headache...

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