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• Using "ocamlfind" to make the OCaml compiler and toplevel find (project specific) libraries

  - by CharlieP

  Hello, I'm trying to use ocamlfind with both the OCaml compiler and toplevel. From what I understood, I need to place the required libraries in the _tags file at the root of my project, so that the ocamlfind tool will take care of loading them - allowing me to open them in my modules like so : open Sdl open Sdlvideo open Str Currently, my _tags file looks like this : <*>: pkg_sdl,pkg_str I can apparently launch the ocamlfind command with the ocamlc or ocamlopt argument, provided I wan't to compile my project, but I did not see an option to launch the toplevel in the same manner. Is there any way to do this (something like "ocamlfind ocaml")? I also don't know how to place my project specific modules in the _tags file : imagine I have a module name Land. I am currently using the #use "land.ml" directive to open the file and load the module, but it has been suggested that this is not good practice. What syntax should I use in _tags to specify it should be loaded by ocamlfind (considering land.ml is not in the ocamlfind search path) ? Thank you, Charlie P. Edit : According to the first answer of this post, the _tags file is not to be used with ocamlfind. The questions above still stand, there is just a new one to the list : what is the correct way to specify the libraries to ocamlfind ?

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• Rails 3.0 console won't run

  - by Waheedi

  bash-3.2# rails console /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/1.9.1/irb/completion.rb:9:in `require': dlopen(/opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/1.9.1/i386-darwin10/readline.bundle, 9): Library not loaded: /opt/local/lib/libncurses.5.dylib (LoadError) Referenced from: /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/1.9.1/i386-darwin10/readline.bundle Reason: no suitable image found. Did find: /opt/local/lib/libncurses.5.dylib: no matching architecture in universal wrapper /usr/lib/libncurses.5.dylib: no matching architecture in universal wrapper - /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/1.9.1/i386-darwin10/readline.bundle from /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/1.9.1/irb/completion.rb:9:in `<top (required)>' from /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/railties-3.0.0.beta3/lib/rails/commands/console.rb:3:in `require' from /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/railties-3.0.0.beta3/lib/rails/commands/console.rb:3:in `<top (required)>' from /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/railties-3.0.0.beta3/lib/rails/commands.rb:32:in `require' from /opt/local/lib/ruby1.9/gems/1.9.1/gems/railties-3.0.0.beta3/lib/rails/commands.rb:32:in `<top (required)>' from script/rails:9:in `require' from script/rails:9:in `<main>' while "rails server" works pretty well any help would be appreciated.

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• Splitting build cross the network?

  - by Dandikas

  Is there a known solution for splitting build process cross the network machines? Use case: We are an average software development company. We own around 50 development workstations (Quad Core 2.66Ghz, 4 GB ram, 200 GB raid). No need to tell that at any single moment not every machine is loaded to the max. There are 5 to 15 projects running simultaneously at any single moment. Obviously all of them are continuously build on server, than deployed to proper environment. Single project build is taking from 3 to 15 minutes. The problem: Whenever we build 5 projects in a row the last project is going to be ready after around 25 - 50 minutes. Building in parallel does not solve the problem (build is only a part of the game, than you need to deploy, run tests etc.) YES the correct solution is to add another build server, but "That involves buying new Expensive hardware, and we already spent a lot!". Yea, right(damn them)! Anyway. What about splitting build among developers workstation? Lets say whenever we need to build project "A" we check 5 workstations and start build on all that are not overloaded. The build can be canceled by a developer if he really needs all the power of his machine as long as there is at least 1 machine that is still building. After build is finished deployment can be performed to a proper environment (hosted on some server, not on workstation :) ). The bigger the company the more this makes sense to me. Anyone tried something like this? Are there any good practices? Any helpful software? (90% of the projects are .net C#)

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• Simple Prototype.js code to select multiple elements with the same classname

  - by stephemurdoch

  I have one link with an id of "link", and I use the javascript below to open that link up in a modalbox: #In my template I have: <a href="some/path" id="link">link</a> #Then in my application.js file I have: document.observe('dom:loaded', function() { $('login-link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500}); }); }) Since id's must be unique, this javascript only works for one element per page so I use it to observe my login-link and it has served me well. Until now. I want to use the same javascript to observe multiple links which have classnames instead of id's as below: <a href="link/to/some/stuff" class="link">link 1</a> <a href="link/to/some/other/stuff" class="link">link 2</a> When I do this, I can't get any of the links to open in a modalbox. If I change the class to an id for each link, then I can get the first link in the list to open in a modalbox. I've tried to use the '$$' notation to build an array of links in my javascript (shown below) but if I do that, then none of the links open correctly #document.observe method removed for display purposes $$('link').observe('click', function(event) { event.stop(); Modalbox.show(this.href,{title: 'some title', width: 500} ); }); My javascript skills obviously suck. Does anyone know how to fix the problem?

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• Gracefully handling screen orientation change during activity start

  - by Steve H

  I'm trying to find a way to properly handle setting up an activity where its orientation is determined from data in the intent that launched it. This is for a game where the user can choose levels, some of which are int portrait orientation and some are landscape orientation. The problem I'm facing is that setRequestedOrientation(ActivityInfo.SCREEN_ORIENTATION_LANDSCAPE) doesn't take effect until the activity is fully loaded. This is a problem for me because I do some loading and image processing during startup, which I'd like to only have to do once. Currently, if the user chose a landscape level: the activity starts onCreate(), defaulting to portrait discovers from analysing its launching Intent that it should be in landscape orientation continues regardless all the way to onResume(), loading information and performing other setup tasks at this point setRequestedOrientation kicks in so the application runs through onPause() to onDestroy() it then again starts up from onCreate() and runs to onResume() repeating the setup from earlier Is there a way to avoid that and have it not perform the loading twice? For example, ideally, the activity would know before even onCreate was called whether it should be landscape or portrait depending on some property of the launching intent, but unless I've missed something that isn't possible. I've managed to hack together a way to avoid repeating the loading by checking a boolean before the time-consuming loading steps, but that doesn't seem like the right way of doing it. I imagine I could override onSaveInstanceState, but that would require a lot of additional coding. Is there a simple way to do this? Thanks!

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• AVAudioPlayer not unloading cached memory after each new allocation

  - by Rob

  I am seeing in Instruments that when I play a sound via the standard "AddMusic" example method that Apple provides, it allocates 32kb of memory via the prepareToPlay call (which references the AudioToolBox framework's Cache_DataSource::ReadBytes function) each time a new player is allocated (i.e. each time a different sound is played). However, that cached data never gets released. This obviously poses a huge problem if it doesn't get released and you have a lot of sound files to play, since it tends to keep allocating memory and eventually crashes if you have enough unique sound files (which I unfortunately do). Have any of you run across this or what am I doing wrong in my code? I've had this issue for a while now and it's really bugging me since my code is verbatim of what Apple's is (I think). How I call the function: - (void)playOnce:(NSString *)aSound { // Gets the file system path to the sound to play. NSString *soundFilePath = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:aSound ofType:@"caf"]; // Converts the sound's file path to an NSURL object NSURL *soundURL = [[NSURL alloc] initFileURLWithPath: soundFilePath]; self.soundFileURL = soundURL; [soundURL release]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL: soundFileURL error:nil]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely // this is where the prior cached data never gets released [theAudio prepareToPlay]; // set it up and play [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio setDelegate: self]; [theAudio play]; } and then theAudio gets released in the dealloc method of course.

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• SSIS - Bulk Update at Database Field Level

  - by Adam

  Hello, Here's our mission: Receive files from clients. Each file contains anywhere from 1 to 1,000,000 records. Records are loaded to a staging area and business-rule validation is applied. Valid records are then pumped into an OLTP database in a batch fashion, with the following rules: If record does not exist (we have a key, so this isn't an issue), create it. If record exists, optionally update each database field. The decision is made based on one of 3 factors...I don't believe it's important what those factors are. Our main problem is finding an efficient method of optionally updating the data at a field level. This is applicable across ~12 different database tables, with anywhere from 10 to 150 fields in each table (original DB design leaves much to be desired, but it is what it is). Our first attempt has been to introduce a table that mirrors the staging environment (1 field in staging for each system field) and contains a masking flag. The value of the masking flag represents the 3 factors. We've then put an UPDATE similar to... UPDATE OLTPTable1 SET Field1 = CASE WHEN Mask.Field1 = 0 THEN Staging.Field1 WHEN Mask.Field1 = 1 THEN COALESCE( Staging.Field1 , OLTPTable1.Field1 ) WHEN Mask.Field1 = 2 THEN COALESCE( OLTPTable1.Field1 , Staging.Field1 ) ... As you can imagine, the performance is rather horrendous. Has anyone tackled a similar requirement? We're a MS shop using a Windows Service to launch SSIS packages that handle the data processing. Unfortunately, we're pretty much novices at this stuff.

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• Binding type variables that only occur in assertions

  - by Giuseppe Maggiore

  Hi! I find it extremely difficult to describe my problem, so here goes nothing: I have a bunch of assertions on the type of a function. These assertions rely on a type variable that is not used for any parameter of the function, but is only used for internal bindings. Whenever I use this function it does not compile because, of course, the compiler has no information from which to guess what type to bind my type variable. Here is the code: {-# LANGUAGE MultiParamTypeClasses, FunctionalDependencies, FlexibleInstances, UndecidableInstances, FlexibleContexts, EmptyDataDecls, ScopedTypeVariables, TypeOperators, TypeSynonymInstances #-} class C a a' where convert :: a -> a' class F a b where apply :: a -> b class S s a where select :: s -> a data CInt = CInt Int instance S (Int,String) Int where select (i,_) = i instance F Int CInt where apply = CInt f :: forall s a b . (S s a, F a b) => s -> b f s = let v = select s :: a y = apply v :: b in y x :: Int x = f (10,"Pippo") And here is the generated error: FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4: No instances for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) arising from a use of `f' at FunctorsProblems.hs:21:4-17 Possible fix: add an instance declaration for (F a Int, S (t, [Char]) a) In the expression: f (10, "Pippo") In the definition of `x': x = f (10, "Pippo") Failed, modules loaded: none. Prelude>

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• Where can I find a professional image gallery built on a javascript framework?

  - by user278457

  I'm looking to find a galleria replacement, hopefully using jQuery but other javascript frameworks such as prototype or mootools are fine too. I used galleria a while back, and I need a similar product now. Unfortunately, the devkick.com domain seems to have disappeared in the meantime and I'm wary of using products that aren't actively maintained. I'm willing to pay up to $50 per site for licensing costs, if the product meets my needs. I'm specifically looking for a gallery with the following features: Every image in the gallery preloads asap, not as the user clicks "next" Minimalist default css to keep my subsequent styling headaches down, preferably a "darkroom" style by default, much as galleria looks Each element that constructs the image gallery should be simple and logical to reference with CSS As easy to install as adding a css class to a single unordered list No dependencies other than the core jQuery/other library, including "easing" and other effects must be optional Works on browsers back to IE6, Firefox 3, Safari (and iPhone), Chrome, Opera Has a javascript API that lets me trigger callback functions on common events such as "user clicks next" or "image loads" degrades gracefully without javascript, either displays images as a list, or just displays the first image in the list bonus: The gallery can display other content, such as video or external sites, like the modal boxes at shadowbox-js.com well documented minimal bandwidth requirement - .js file should be ~10kb minified bonus: The gallery source is hosted on a reliable CDN like google's bonus: Thumbnails for images do not appear until the main image has loaded bonus: includes ability to set parameters with JSON to change common behaviours, such as slide/fade transitions or automatic image switch every X seconds

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• PNG Transparency Problems in IE8

  - by user138777

  I'm having problems with a transparent PNG image showing black dithered pixel artifacts around the edge of the non transparent part of the image. It only does this in Internet Explorer and it only does it from a Javascript file it is used in. Here's what I'm talking about... http://70.86.157.71/test/test3.htm (link now dead) ...notice the girl in the bottom right corner. She has artifacts around her in IE8 (I haven't tested it in previous versions of IE, but I'm assuming it probably does the same). It works perfectly in Firefox and Chrome. The image is loaded from a Javascript file to produce the mouseover effect. If you load the image all by itself, it works fine. Here's the image... http://70.86.157.71/test/consultant2.png Does anyone know how to fix this? The image was produced in Photoshop CS3. I've read things about removing the Gama, but that apparently was in previous versions of Photoshop and when I load it in TweakPNG, it doesn't have Gama. Please help!

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• Setting spring bean property value using ref-bean

  - by Apache Fan

  Hi, I am trying to set a property value using spring. <bean id="velocityPropsBean" class="com.test.CustomProperties" abstract="false" singleton="true" lazy-init="false" autowire="default" dependency-check="default"> <property name="properties"> <props> <prop key="resource.loader">file</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.cache">true</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.class">org.apache.velocity.runtime.resource.loader.FileResourceLoader</prop> <prop key="file.resource.loader.path">NEED TO INSERT VALUE AT STARTUP</prop> </props> </property> </bean> <bean id="velocityResourcePath" class="java.lang.String" factory-bean="velocityHelper" factory-method="getLoaderPath"/> Now what i need to do is insert the result from getLoaderPath into file.resource.loader.path. The value of getLoaderPath changes so it has to be loaded at server startup. Any thoughts how i can inset the velocityResourcePath value to the property?

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• Dependency Injection: How to maintain multiple configurations?

  - by Malax

  Hi StackOverflow, Lets assume we've build a system with a DI framework which is working quite fine. This system currently uses JMS to "talk" with other systems not maintained by us. The majority of our customers like the JMS approach and uses it according to our specification. The component which does all the messaging is injected with Spring into the rest of the application. Now we got the case that one customer cannot implement the JMS solution and want to use another messaging technology. Thats not a problem because we can simply implement a messaging service using this technology and inject it in the rest of the application. But how are we supposed to handle the deployment and maintenance of the configuration? Since the application uses Spring i could imagine to check in all the configurations i have for this application and the system administrator could start the application and passing the name of the DI XML file to specify which configuration should be loaded. But... it just don't feel right. Are there any solutions for such cases available? What are the best-practices you use? I could even imagine more complex scenarios which do not contain only one service substitution... Thanks a lot!

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• Hidden div height

  - by fudgey

  Ok, I was going to answer someone's question here on SO about why their script wasn't working. They loaded content into a hidden div, then got the height so they could animate the wrapping div. But I always try to test the code I provide. So I made this demo to prove it to them. So, umm, have I entered the twilight zone or am I dreaming right now? pinches self OUCH! I tried that demo in Firefox, IE and Chrome and both methods return the same value. Firebug says zero! I rebooted my computer and I even changed the code a bit (removed the height function) and tried it with jQuery 1.3.2 and it still worked! I know hidden elements USED to return a zero value. Even this SO Answer is giving the advice I would have! So I guess my question is... did I miss something or are we giving bad advice?

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• RSA_sign and RSACryptoProvider.VerifySignature

  - by Miky D

  I'm trying to get up to speed on how to get some code that uses OpenSSL for cryptography, to play nice with another program that I'm writing in C#, using the Microsoft cryptography providers available in .NET. More to the point, I'm trying to have the C# program verify an RSA message signature generated by the OpenSSL code. The code that generates the signature looks something like this: // Code in C, using the OpenSSL RSA implementation char msgToSign[] = "Hello World"; // the message to be signed char signature[RSA_size(rsa)]; // buffer that will hold signature int slen = 0; // will contain signature size // rsa is an OpenSSL RSA context, that's loaded with the public/private key pair memset(signature, 0, sizeof(signature)); RSA_sign(NID_sha1 , (unsigned char*)msgToSign , strlen(msgToSign) , signature , &slen , rsa); // now signature contains the message signature // and can be verified using the RSA_verify counterpart // .. I would like to verify the signature in C# In C#, I would do the following: import the other side's public key into an RSACryptoServiceProvider object receive the message and it's signature try to verify the signature I've got the first two parts working (I've verified that the public key is loading properly because I managed to send an RSA encrypted text from the C# code to the OpenSSL code in C and successfully have it decrypted) In order to verify the signature in C#, I've tried using the: VerifySignature method of the RSACryptoServiceProvider but that didn't work. And digging around the internet I was only able to find some vague information pointing out that .NET uses a different method for generating the signature than OpenSSL does. So, does anybody know how to accomplish this?

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• How can display gif on a subview in iPhone using glgif?

  - by iPhoney

  I want to display a gif image on a subview in iPhone. The sample code glgif shows the gif image on the controller's root view, but when I make the following modifications, the application just crashes: IBOutlet UIView *gifView; // gifView is added as a subview of controller's root view //PlayerView *plView = (PlayerView *)self.view; PlayerView *plView = (PlayerView *)gifView; // Load test.gif VideoSource NSString *str = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"test" ofType:@"gif"]; FILE *fp = fopen([str UTF8String], "r"); VideoSource *src = VideoSource_init(fp, VIDEOSOURCE_FILE); src->writeable = false; // Init video using VideoSource Video *vid = [[GifVideo alloc] initWithSource:src inContext:[plView context]]; VideoSource_release(src); // Start if loaded if (vid) { [plView startAnimation:vid]; [vid release]; return; } // Cleanup if failed fclose(fp); Now the app crashes in this line: Video *vid = [[GifVideo alloc] initWithSource:src inContext:[plView context]]; with the error message:-[UIView context]: unrecognized selector sent to instance. Any ideas about how to add the plView to the subview properly?

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• RoR: Replace_html with partial and collection not functioning

  - by Jack

  I am trying to create a tabbed interface using the prototype helper method "replace_html." I have three different partials I am working with. The first one is the 'main tab' and it is loaded automatically like so: <div id = "grid"> <% things_today = things.find_things_today %> <%= render :partial => "/todaything", :collection => things_today, :as =>:thing %> </div> ...which works fine. Similarly, I have a _tomorrowthing partial which would replace the content in the 'grid' div like so: <%things_tomorrow = things.find_things_tomorrow%> <%= link_to_function('Tomorrow',nil, :id=>'tab') do |page| page.replace_html 'grid' , :partial => '/tomorrowthing',:collection => things_tomorrow, :as => :thing end %> If I click on this tab nothing happens at all. Using firebug, the only errors I find are a missing ) after argument list which is contained in the Element.update block where the link_to_function is called. What am I doing wrong?

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• Whats wrong with this function? .each related

  - by Ritz

  When I uncomment the alert the data is there... like: { 'Huishoudelijke hulp': 'Huishoudelijke hulp', 'Verpleging thuis': 'Verpleging thuis', 'Verzorging thuis': 'Verzorging thuis', '24 uurs zorg': '24 uurs zorg', 'Ondersteunende begeleiding': 'Ondersteunende begeleiding', } But instead of populating the key and the value it takes the whole var and start to create a key and value pair for each character. You can see this in action here: http://www.zorgzuster-zeeland.nl/site/static/calendar_test.php create a task in the calendar and then try to edit the task by clicking on it. It should populate the dropdown field properly. When i create a static var with the same values the dropdown works. static variable var zvmlist = { 'Huishoudelijke hulp': 'Huishoudelijke hulp', 'Verpleging thuis': 'Verpleging thuis', 'Verzorging thuis': 'Verzorging thuis', '24 uurs zorg': '24 uurs zorg', 'Ondersteunende begeleiding': 'Ondersteunende begeleiding', }; This is my function, anybody has a clue? $.get('get_zorgvormen.php', function(zvmlist) { //alert("Data Loaded: " + zvmlist); $.each(zvmlist, function(key, value) { var selected=''; if(key==eventdata.title){var selected='selected' } $('<option value="'+key+'" '+selected+'>'+value+'</option>').appendTo($('#calendar_edit_entry_form_title')); }); });

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• passing in javascript values into iframe tag

  - by Cedar Jensen

  What's the best way to pass in the value held in a javascript variable into an iframe call on the same html page? I'm trying to improve my site's page response times by moving ad serving javascript code (the typical document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="..") into a separate iframe. (Based on this posting) The request to the ad server typically require a seed variable declared once per site and incremented each time page is loaded by the client. What I want to do is pass in the seed variable into the document invoked by my iframe section. The seed variable is initialized in the 'head' tag of my main html document: <head> <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- custom_seed=1; //--> </script> </head> Later in the html document, I make the request through an iframe which returns the html necessary to invoke the ad server. <body> <!-- a bunch of html to display the page --> <iframe src="somepage.html" width="100%" height="100%"> <p>No support for iframe</p> </iframe> </body> The html returned in the 'somepage.html' has a script used to call the ad server and needs to use the earlier declared seed variable as a parameter: <script type="text/javascript"> document.write('<script type="text/javascript" src="http://ad.server.net/...seed='+ custom_seed +'?"></script>'); custom_seed++; </script> What's a good way to achieve this?

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• Silverlight 3 data-binding child property doesn't update

  - by sonofpirate

  I have a Silverlight control that has my root ViewModel object as it's data source. The ViewModel exposes a list of Cards as well as a SelectedCard property which is bound to a drop-down list at the top of the view. I then have a form of sorts at the bottom that displays the properties of the SelectedCard. My XAML appears as (reduced for simplicity): <StackPanel Orientation="Vertical"> <ComboBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=Cards}" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedCard, Mode=TwoWay}" /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.Name}" /> <ListBox DisplayMemberPath="Name" ItemsSource="{Binding Path=SelectedCard.PendingTransactions}" /> </StackPanel> I would expect the TextBlock and ListBox to update whenever I select a new item in the ComboBox, but this is not the case. I'm sure it has to do with the fact that the TextBlock and ListBox are actually bound to properties of the SelectedCard so it is listening for property change notifications for the properties on that object. But, I would have thought that data-binding would be smart enough to recognize that the parent object in the binding expression had changed and update the entire binding. It bears noting that the PendingTransactions property (bound to the ListBox) is lazy-loaded. So, the first time I select an item in the ComboBox, I do make the async call and load the list and the UI updates to display the information corresponding to the selected item. However, when I reselect an item, the UI doesn't change! For example, if my original list contains three cards, I select the first card by default. Data-binding does attempt to access the PendingTransactions property on that Card object and updates the ListBox correctly. If I select the second card in the list, the same thing happens and I get the list of PendingTransactions for that card displayed. But, if I select the first card again, nothing changes in my UI! Setting a breakpoint, I am able to confirm that the SelectedCard property is being updated correctly. How can I make this work???

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• Win32 DLL importing issues (DllMain)

  - by brady

  I have a native DLL that is a plug-in to a different application (one that I have essentially zero control of). Everything works just great until I link with an additional .lib file (links my DLL to another DLL named ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll). This file contains some additional API from the parent application that I would like to utilize. I haven't even written any code to use any of the functions exported but just linking in this new DLL is causing problems. Specifically I get the following error when I attempt to run the program: The application failed to initialize properly (0xc0000025). Clock on OK to terminate the application. I believe I have read somewhere that this is typically due to a DllMain function returning FALSE. Also, the following message is written to the standard output: ERROR: Memory allocation attempted before component initialization I am almost 100% sure this error message is coming from the application and is not some type of Windows error. Looking into this a little more (aka flailing around and flipping every switch I know of) I linked with /MAP turned on and found this in the resulting .map file: 0001:000af220 ??3@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0220 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af226 ??2@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b0226 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af22c ??_U@YAPEAX_K@Z 00000001800b022c f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll 0001:000af232 ??_V@YAXPEAX@Z 00000001800b0232 f ABQSMABasCoreUtils_import:ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll If I undecorate those names using "undname" they give the following (same order): void __cdecl operator delete(void * __ptr64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new(unsigned __int64) void * __ptr64 __cdecl operator new[](unsigned __int64) void __cdecl operator delete[](void * __ptr64) I am not sure I understand how anything from ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll can exist within this .map file or why my DLL is even attempting to load ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll if I don't have any code that references this DLL. Can anyone help me put this information together and find out why this isn't working? For what it's worth I have confirmed via "dumpbin" that the parent application imports the same DLL (ABQSMABasCoreUtils.dll), so it is being loaded no matter what. I have also tried delay loading this DLL in my DLL but that did not change the results.

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• Can Core Data be used for objects with variable schemas?

  - by glenc

  I'm implementing a new iPhone app and am relatively new to Cocoa development overall. I am at the stage of choosing how the persistence layer of this app will work, and it looks like I'm basically choosing between Core Data and sqlite3. The persisted models in this app are intended to have a schema that is loaded at runtime (from some kind of defn file, probably XML). By which I mean, this app is intended to have objects that are user-definable to some extent, e.g. the Customer type (which has certain built-in fields like "name" and "email") can be modified to have extra fields based on the user's specific needs (e.g. a user might want to add a "favourite fruit" field to their Customer type). Having said that, will Core Data work for an app with a non-baked-in data model like this? I've just started playing around with the Core Data object designer thing in XCode and it seems like this thing wants to work with objects that have fixed fields that are compiled in. I'm definitely trying to take the path of least resistance here, and I can see the benefits of using an Apple-supplied data framework, but don't want to start down that path if it's going to lock me into a data model that's defined at compile time.

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• Which apache worker to use with passenger and how?

  - by Millisami

  I've this config in my apache2.conf <IfModule mpm_prefork_module> StartServers 5 MinSpareServers 5 MaxSpareServers 10 MaxClients 150 MaxRequestsPerChild 0 </IfModule> # worker MPM # StartServers: initial number of server processes to start # MaxClients: maximum number of simultaneous client connections # MinSpareThreads: minimum number of worker threads which are kept spare # MaxSpareThreads: maximum number of worker threads which are kept spare # ThreadsPerChild: constant number of worker threads in each server process # MaxRequestsPerChild: maximum number of requests a server process serves <IfModule mpm_worker_module> StartServers 2 MaxClients 15 MinSpareThreads 4 MaxSpareThreads 5 ThreadsPerChild 15 MaxRequestsPerChild 50000 </IfModule> Now I'm confused here. Which module gets loaded on which conditions? The phusion guys have suggested to use the worker module. Since both are present in apache conf file, do I have to comment the mpm_prefork_module or leave it as it is? Following is my passenger conf file for apache: LoadModule passenger_module /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.4/ext/apache2/mod_passenger.so PassengerRoot /usr/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/passenger-2.2.4 PassengerRuby /usr/bin/ruby1.8 PassengerMaxPoolSize 3 PassengerPoolIdleTime 999999 RailsFrameworkSpawnerIdleTime 0 RailsAppSpawnerIdleTime 0 I'm running just a single Rails 2.3.2 app on 256MB slice at slicehost. I'm not quite satisfied with the performance yet. Are the settings above are any good??

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• Authentication using cookie key with asynchronous callback

  - by greg

  I need to write authentication function with asynchronous callback from remote Auth API. Simple authentication with login is working well, but authorization with cookie key, does not work. It should checks if in cookies present key "lp_login", fetch API url like async and execute on_response function. The code almost works, but I see two problems. First, in on_response function I need to setup secure cookie for authorized user on every page. In code user_id returns correct ID, but line: self.set_secure_cookie("user", user_id) does't work. Why it can be? And second problem. During async fetch API url, user's page has loaded before on_response setup cookie with key "user" and the page will has an unauthorized section with link to login or sign on. It will be confusing for users. To solve it, I can stop loading page for user who trying to load first page of site. Is it possible to do and how? Maybe the problem has more correct way to solve it? class BaseHandler(tornado.web.RequestHandler): @tornado.web.asynchronous def get_current_user(self): user_id = self.get_secure_cookie("user") user_cookie = self.get_cookie("lp_login") if user_id: self.set_secure_cookie("user", user_id) return Author.objects.get(id=int(user_id)) elif user_cookie: url = urlparse("http://%s" % self.request.host) domain = url.netloc.split(":")[0] try: username, hashed_password = urllib.unquote(user_cookie).rsplit(',',1) except ValueError: # check against malicious clients return None else: url = "http://%s%s%s/%s/" % (domain, "/api/user/username/", username, hashed_password) http = tornado.httpclient.AsyncHTTPClient() http.fetch(url, callback=self.async_callback(self.on_response)) else: return None def on_response(self, response): answer = tornado.escape.json_decode(response.body) username = answer['username'] if answer["has_valid_credentials"]: author = Author.objects.get(email=answer["email"]) user_id = str(author.id) print user_id # It returns needed id self.set_secure_cookie("user", user_id) # but session can's setup

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• restrict script inside iframe to run only within pages of same top-level domain?

  - by Justin Grant

  I'd like to enforce a requirement that client script inside a page (which in turn is loaded inside an iframe of another page) will only run when the parent page is on the same top-level domain as the framed page (although it may be on another hostname in that domain). Is this do-able? I assume that the easy solution of looking at top.location.host won't be available due to cross-site scripting limitations, but I'm wondering if other javascript hackery could suffice. Constraints on any potential solution inculde: I need to be able to run XmlHttpRequest calls inside the child page, and I need to validate that the hostname is in the same domain before I make those calls. (this makes a document.domain solution challenging because AFAIK setting document.domain disables the ability to make XmlHttpRequest calls. I can control client-side script and HTML on both parent or child (and I can create new pages if needed), but I can't make any server-side code changes. I can't simulate the above via server-side calls or proxies, because the child page's hostname uses a forms auth system with hostname-scoped cookies that I can't get access to from the parent page since it's on a different hostname. I don't have enough control over the child-frame site to be able to put both sites behind the same reverse-proxy or load-balancer (which would enable me to put both sites on the same hostname). I don't actually need to access any UI inside the IFrame-- the iframe is invisible and I'm only using it to run javascript within the security context of a site on a different hostname from the parent page. So at this point I'm stumped. Got any ideas? I want to make sure I'm not overlooking an easy solution before giving up.

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• JSF 2 f:ajax lifecycle problem

  - by gerry

  The problem is, that if a property is changed during an f:ajax request and a binded panelGroup should be newly created depending on that changed value, the old value is used. This code will explain the problem. Here is the backingbean TestBean: public String getFirst() { return first; } public void setFirst(String first) { this.first = first; } public String getLast() { return last; } public void setLast(String last) { this.last = last; } public String getName(){ return first+" "+last; } public void setDynamicPanel(HtmlPanelGroup panel){ } public HtmlPanelGroup getDynamicPanel(){ Application app = FacesContext.getCurrentInstance().getApplication(); HtmlPanelGroup component = (HtmlPanelGroup)app.createComponent(HtmlPanelGroup.COMPONENT_TYPE); HtmlOutputLabel label1 = (HtmlOutputLabel)app.createComponent(HtmlOutputLabel.COMPONENT_TYPE); label1.setValue(" --> "+getFirst()+" "+getLast()); component.getChildren().add(label1); return component; } and now the jsf/facelet code: <h:form id="form"> <h:panelGrid columns="1"> <h:inputText id="first" value="#{testBean.first}" /> <h:inputText id="last" value="#{testBean.last}" /> <h:commandButton value="Show"> <f:ajax execute="first last" render="name dyn" /> </h:commandButton> </h:panelGrid> <h:outputText id="name" value="#{testBean.name}" /> <h:panelGroup id="dyn" binding="#{testBean.dynamicPanel}" /> </h:form> After the page was initially loaded the outputText and panelGroup shows both "null" as first and last. But after the button is pressed, the outputText is updated well, but the the panelgroup shows again only "null". This is due to the problem, that the "binded method" dynamicPanel is executed before the update of the first and last properties. how can workaround this behaviour or what is wrong with my code?

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