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  • Where should 'CreateMap' statements go?

    - by jonathanconway
    I frequently use AutoMapper to map Model (Domain) objects to ViewModel objects, which are then consumed by my Views, in a Model/View/View-Model pattern. This involves many 'Mapper.CreateMap' statements, which all must be executed, but must only be executed once in the lifecycle of the application. Technically, then, I should keep them all in a static method somewhere, which gets called from my Application_Start() method (this is an ASP.NET MVC application). However, it seems wrong to group a lot of different mapping concerns together in one central location. Especially when mapping code gets complex and involves formatting and other logic. Is there a better way to organize the mapping code so that it's kept close to the ViewModel that it concerns? (I came up with one idea - having a 'CreateMappings' method on each ViewModel, and in the BaseViewModel, calling this method on instantiation. However, since the method should only be called once in the application lifecycle, it needs some additional logic to cache a list of ViewModel types for which the CreateMappings method has been called, and then only call it when necessary, for ViewModels that aren't in that list.)

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  • ASP.NET Line Breaks in Title Element

    - by Nathan Taylor
    I'm trying to optimize SEO readability on our websites and one issue I've come across is ASP.NET butchering the title element of my MasterPage. Entered as such in my MasterPage (manually reformatted to remove line breaks caused by the <% %> tags): <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /> - <%=WebsiteSettings.WebsiteName %></title> This is the output I receive: <title> Home - Website Name</title> As you can see ASP.NET is adding preceding and trailing line breaks where the <asp:ContentPlaceHolder /> is substitute becaused Visual Studio auto-formats <asp:Content /> to start and end with a line break. Obviously, this can be prevented in the Visual Studio formatting options, but this is not ideal because I only would want to remove that behavior for the TitleContent placeholder and not the rest. Is there any way I can ensure my Title is trimmed before it is rendered? I am using MVC so code-behind is not an acceptable option.

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  • HtmlHelper Getting the route name

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've created a html helper that adds a css class property to a li item if the user is on the current page. The helper looks like this: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class if ( currentControllerName.Equals( controllerName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) && currentActionName.Equals( actionName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) ) builder.AddCssClass( "active" ); // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.ActionLink( linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } I want to expand this class so I can pass a route name to the helper and if the user is on that route then it adds the css class to the li item. However I'm having difficulty finding the route the user is on. Is this possible? The code I have so far is: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string routeName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class // Some code for here // if ( routeName == currentRoute ) AddCssClass; // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.RouteLink( linkText, routeName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } BTW I'm using MVC 1.0. Thanks

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  • SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action.

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been using my website (ASP.NET MVC) in visual studio but now I want to host it on my server. I published from visual studio onto the network share to be used. The server is running Windows Home Server, IIS 6 and SQL Server 2008 R2 (express). In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, I've attached the database and made sure that the user IUSR_SERVER is owner of the db. I also made sure that the user Network Service has access. The Web Site is configured in IIS to run anonymously as IUSR_SERVER. I have granted write and read access to IUSR_SERVER as well as Network Service and made sure that nothing is read only. The web.config has this connectionstring: <connectionStrings> <remove name="ApplicationServices" /> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=.\SQLExpress;Integrated Security=True;Initial Catalog=MyDatebase" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> However, I cannot browse my web site. I only get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. User does not have permission to perform this action. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4846887 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 Feels like I've tried everything. Would be very grateful for your aid in this.

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  • Time to start returning IQueryable<T> instead of IList<T> to my Web UI / Web API Layer?

    - by JohnnyO
    I've got a multi-layer application that starts with the repository pattern for all data access and it returns IQueryable to the Services layer. The Services layer, which includes all of the business logic, returns IList to the Controllers (note: I'm using ASP.NET MVC for the UI layer). The benefit of returning IQueryable in the data access layer is that it allows my repositories to be extremely simple and the database queries to be deferred. However, I'm triggering the database queries in my services layer so that my unit tests is more reliable and I don't give flexibility to the Controllers to reshape my queries. However, I've recently encountered several situations where deferring the execution of queries down to the Controllers would have been significantly more performant because the Controllers had to do some projections on the data that was UI specific. Additionally, with the emergence of things like oData, I was starting to wonder if end points (e.g. web UI or web apis) should be working directly with IQueryable. What are your thoughts? Is it time to start returning IQueryable from the services layer to the UI layer? Or stick with IList? This thread here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/718624/to-return-iqueryablet-or-not-return-iqueryablet seems to vouch for returning IList to the UI layers, but I was wondering if things are changing because of new emerging technologies and techniques.

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  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

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  • Facebook Graph API authentication in canvas app and track session

    - by cdpnet
    Short question is: how can i use graph api oauth redirects mechanism to authenticate user and save retrieved access_token and also use javascript SDK when needed (the problem is javascript SDK will have different access_token when initialized). I have initially setup my facebook iframe canvas app, with single sign on. This works well with graph api, as I am able to use access_token saved by facebook's javascript when it detects sessionchange(user logged in). But, I want to rather not do single sign-on. But, use graph api redirect and force user to send to a permissions dialog. But, if he has already given permissions, I shouldn't redirect user. How to handle this? Another question: I have done graph api redirects for authentication and have retrieved access_token also. But then, what if I want to use javascript call FB.ui to do stream.Publish? I think it will use it's own access_token which is set during FB.init and detecting session. So, I am looking for some path here. How to use graph api for authentication and also use facebook's javascript SDK when needed. P.S. I'm using ASP .NET MVC 2. I have an authentication filter developed, which needs to detect the user's authentication state and redirect.(currently it does this to graph api authorize url)

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  • Class Structure w/ LINQ, Partial Classes, and Abstract Classes

    - by Jason
    I am following the Nerd Dinner tutorial as I'm learning ASP.NET MVC, and I am currently on Step 3: Building the Model. One part of this section discusses how to integrate validation and business rule logic with the model classes. All this makes perfect sense. However, in the case of this source code, the author only validates one class: Dinner. What I am wondering is, say I have multiple classes that need validation (Dinner, Guest, etc). It doesn't seem smart to me to repeatedly write these two methods in the partial class: public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) { throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving."); } } What I'm wondering is, can you create an abstract class (because "GetRuleViolations" needs to be implemented separately) and extend a partial class? I'm thinking something like this (based on his example): public partial class Dinner : Validation { public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { yield break; } } This doesn't "feel" right, but I wanted to check with SO to get opinions of individuals smarter than me on this. I also tested it out, and it seems that the partial keyword on the OnValidate method is causing problems (understandably so). This doesn't seem possible to fix (but I could very well be wrong). Thanks!

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  • Render a Form from an XSLT file

    - by Russ Clark
    I've generated the following XSLT file, and have created a Form that will post to an ASP.Net MVC action called Home/ProcessRequest: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" > <xsl:output method="html" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html> <body> <xsl:value-of select="Employee/Name"/> <br /> <xsl:value-of select="Employee/ID"/> <form method="post" action="/Home/ProcessRequest?id=42"> <input id="Action" name="Action" type="radio" value="Approved"></input> Approved <br /> <input id="Action" name="Action" type="radio" value="Rejected"></input> Rejected <br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit"></input> </form> </body> </html> Here is my XML File: <Employee xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Name>Russ</Name> <ID>42</ID> </Employee> This works fine the way it is, but I need to change the id parameter in my from from a hard coded integer, to use the ID element from my XML file. Does anyone know how to do this?

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  • How to explain to someone that a data structure should not draw itself, explaining separation of con

    - by leeand00
    I have another programmer who I'm trying to explain why it is that a UI component should not also be a data-structure. For instance say that you get a data-structure that contains a record-set from the "database", and you wish to display that record-set in a UI component within your application. According to this programmer (who will remain nameless, he's young and I'm teaching him...), we should subclass the data-structure into a class that will draw the UI component within our application!!!!!! And thus according to this logic, the record-set should manage the drawing of the UI. **Head Desk*** I know that asking a record-set to draw itself is wrong, because, if you wish to render the same data-structure on more than one type of component on your UI, you are going to have a real mess on your hands; you'll need to extend yet another class for each and every UI component that you render from the base-class of your record-set; I am well aware of the "cleanliness" of the of the MVC pattern (and by that what I really mean is you don't confuse your data (the Model) with your UI (the view) or the actions that take place on the data (the Controller more or less...okay not really the API should really handle that...and the Controller should just make as few calls to it as it can, telling it which view to render)) But it's certainly alot cleaner than using data-structures to render UI components! Is there any other advice I could send his way other than the example above? I understand that when you first learn OOP you go through "a stage" where you where just want to extend everything. Followed by a stage when you think that Design Patterns are the solution every single problem...which isn't entirely correct either...thanks Jeff. Is there a way that I can gently nudge this kid in the right direction? Do you have any more examples that might help explain my point to him?

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  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

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  • Run ajax scripts on page when navigating with ajax?

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I got a bit of an issue in my ASP.NET MVC project. I have a chat div in the bottom right corner (like facebook), and of course I do not want this to reload when navigating to all my navigation is ajax. The problem I am facing is that I use the following code on the top of the view page: <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $('#divTS').hide(); $('a#showTS').click(function() { $('#divTS').slideToggle(400); return false; }); }); </script> The problem is that this code is only loaded with ajax and does not seem to fire? I would like to run all scripts in the newly loaded view, just as if I hadn't navigated with ajax. I cannot put this in the site.master as it only loads once and then probably the divs I am trying to hide doesn't exist. Is there a good way to run scripts in the ajax-loaded div?

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  • refactor LINQ TO SQL custom properties that instantiate datacontext

    - by Thiago Silva
    I am working on an existing ASP.NET MVC app that started small and has grown with time to require a good re-architecture and refactoring. One thing that I am struggling with is that we've got partial classes of the L2S entities so we could add some extra properties, but these props create a new data context and query the DB for a subset of data. This would be the equivalent to doing the following in SQL, which is not a very good way to write this query as oppsed to joins: SELECT tbl1.stuff, (SELECT nestedValue FROM tbl2 WHERE tbl2.Foo = tbl1.Bar), tbl1.moreStuff FROM tbl1 so in short here's what we've got in some of our partial entity classes: public partial class Ticket { public StatusUpdate LastStatusUpdate { get { //this static method call returns a new DataContext but needs to be refactored var ctx = OurDataContext.GetContext(); var su = Compiled_Query_GetLastUpdate(ctx, this.TicketId); return su; } } } We've got some functions that create a compiled query, but the issue is that we also have some DataLoadOptions defined in the DataContext, and because we instantiate a new datacontext for getting these nested property, we get an exception "Compiled Queries across DataContexts with different LoadOptions not supported" . The first DataContext is coming from a DataContextFactory that we implemented with the refactorings, but this second one is just hanging off the entity property getter. We're implementing the Repository pattern in the refactoring process, so we must stop doing stuff like the above. Does anyone know of a good way to address this issue?

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  • Calling SubmitChanges on DataContext does not update database.

    - by drasto
    In C# ASP.NET MVC application I use Link to SQL to provide data for my application. I have got simple database schema like this: In my controller class I reference this data context called Model (as you can see on the right side of picture in properties) like this: private Model model = new Model(); I've got a table (List) of Series rendered on my page. It renders properly and I was able to add delete functionality to delete Series like this: public ActionResult Delete(int id) { model.Series.DeleteOnSubmit(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } Where appropriate action link looks like this: <%: Html.ActionLink("Delete", "Delete", new { id=item.ID })%> Also create (implemented in similar way) works fine. However edit does not work. My edit looks like this: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { return View(model.Series.SingleOrDefault(s => s.ID == id)); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Series series) { if (ModelState.IsValid) { UpdateModel(series); series.Title = series.Title + " some string to ensure title has changed"; model.SubmitChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } I have controlled that my database has a primary key set up correctly. I debugged my application and found out that everything works as expected until the line with model.SubmitChanges();. This command does not apply the changes of Title property(or any other) against the database. Please help.

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  • Database design for credit based purchases

    - by FreshCode
    I need an elegant way to implement credit-based purchases for an online store with a small variety of products which can be purchased using virtual credit or real currency. Alternatively, products could only be priced in credits. Previous work I have implemented credit-based purchasing before using different product types (eg. Credit, Voucher or Music) with post-order processing to assign purchased credit to users in the form of real currency, which could subsequently be used to discount future orders' charge totals. This worked fairly well as a makeshift solution, but did not succeed in disconnecting the virtual currency from the real currency, which is what I'd like to do, since spending credits is psychologically easier for customers than spending real currency. Design I need guidance on designing the database correctly with support for the simultaneous bulk purchase of credits at a discount along with real currency products. Alternatively, should all products be priced in credits and only credit have a real currency value? Existing Database Design Partial Products table: ProductId Title Type UnitPrice SalePrice Partial Orders table: OrderId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Status Value Total Partial OrderItems table (similar to CartItems table): OrderItemId OrderId (related to Orders table) ProductId (related to Products table) Quantity UnitPrice SalePrice Prospective UserCredits table: CreditId UserId (related to Users table, not shown) Value (+/- value. Summed over time to determine saldo.) Date I'm using ASP.NET MVC and LINQ-to-SQL on a SQL Server database.

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  • ASP.NET: Custom MembershipProvider with a custom user table

    - by blahblah
    I've recently started tinkering with ASP.NET MVC, but this question should apply to classic ASP.NET as well. For what it's worth, I don't know very much about forms authentication and membership providers either. I'm trying to write my own MembershipProvider which will be connected to my own custom user table in my database. My user table contains all of the basic user information such as usernames, passwords, password salts, e-mail addresses and so on, but also information such as first name, last name and country of residence. As far as I understand, the standard way of doing this in ASP.NET is to create a user table without the extra information and then a "profile" table with the extra information. However, this doesn't sound very good to me, because whenever I need to access that extra information I would have to make one extra database query to get it. I read in the book "Pro ASP.NET 3.5 in C# 2008" that having a separate table for the profiles is not a very good idea if you need to access the profile table a lot and have many different pages in your website. Now for the problem at hand... As I said, I'm writing my own custom MembershipProvider subclass and it's going pretty well so far, but now I've come to realize that the CreateUser doesn't allow me to create users in the way I'd like. The method only takes a fixed number of arguments and first name, last name and country of residence are not part of them. So how would I create an entry for the new user in my custom table without this information at hand in CreateUser of my MembershipProvider?

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  • How to get interpolated message in NHibernate.Validator

    - by SztupY
    Hi! I'm trying to integrate NHibernate.Validator with ASP.NET MVC client side validations, and the only problem I found is that I simply can't convert the non-interpolated message to a human-readable one. I thought this would be an easy task, but turned out to be the hardest part of the client-side validation. The main problem is that because it's not server-side, I actually only need the validation attributes that are being used, and I don't actually have an instance or anything else at hand. Here are some excerpts from what I've been already trying: // Get the the default Message Interpolator from the Engine IMessageInterpolator interp = _engine.Interpolator; if (interp == null) { // It is null?? Oh, try to create a new one interp = new NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator(); } // We need an instance of the object that needs to be validated, se we have to create one object instance = Activator.CreateInstance(Metadata.ContainerType); // we enumerate all attributes of the property. For example we have found a PatternAttribute var a = attr as PatternAttribute; // it seems that the default message interpolator doesn't work, unless initialized if (interp is NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator) { (interp as NHibernate.Validator.Interpolator.DefaultMessageInterpolator).Initialize(a); } // but even after it is initialized the following will throw a NullReferenceException, although all of the parameters are specified, and they are not null (except for the properties of the instance, which are all null, but this can't be changed) var message = interp.Interpolate(new InterpolationInfo(Metadata.ContainerType, instance, PropertyName, a, interp, a.Message)); I know that the above is a fairly complex code for a seemingly simple question, but I'm still stuck without solution. Is there any way to get the interpolated string out of NHValidator?

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  • database design to speed up hibernate querying of large dataset

    - by paddydub
    I currently have the below tables representing a bus network mapped in hibernate, accessed from a Spring MVC based bus route planner I'm trying to make my route planner application perform faster, I load all the above tables into Lists to perform the route planner logic. I would appreciate if anyone has any ideas of how to speed my performace Or any suggestions of another method to approach this problem of handling a large set of data Coordinate Connections Table (INT,INT,INT)( Containing 50,000 Coordinate Connections) ID, FROMCOORDID, TOCOORDID 1 1 2 2 1 17 3 1 63 4 1 64 5 1 65 6 1 95 Coordinate Table (INT,DECIMAL, DECIMAL) (Containing 4700 Coordinates) ID , LAT, LNG 0 59.352669 -7.264341 1 59.352669 -7.264341 2 59.350012 -7.260653 3 59.337585 -7.189798 4 59.339221 -7.193582 5 59.341408 -7.205888 Bus Stop Table (INT, INT, INT)(Containing 15000 Stops) StopID RouteID COORDINATEID 1000100001 100 17 1000100002 100 18 1000100003 100 19 1000100004 100 20 1000100005 100 21 1000100006 100 22 1000100007 100 23 This is how long it takes to load all the data from each table: stop.findAll = 148ms, stops.size: 15670 Hibernate: select coordinate0_.COORDINATEID as COORDINA1_2_, coordinate0_.LAT as LAT2_, coordinate0_.LNG as LNG2_ from COORDINATES coordinate0_ coord.findAll = 51ms , coordinates.size: 4704 Hibernate: select coordconne0_.COORDCONNECTIONID as COORDCON1_3_, coordconne0_.DISTANCE as DISTANCE3_, coordconne0_.FROMCOORDID as FROMCOOR3_3_, coordconne0_.TOCOORDID as TOCOORDID3_ from COORDCONNECTIONS coordconne0_ coordinateConnectionDao.findAll = 238ms ; coordConnectioninates.size:48132 Hibernate Annotations @Entity @Table(name = "STOPS") public class Stop implements Serializable { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDINATEID") private Integer CoordinateID; @Column(name = "LAT") private double latitude; @Column(name = "LNG") private double longitude; } @Table(name = "COORDINATES") public class Coordinate { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDINATEID") private Integer CoordinateID; @Column(name = "LAT") private double latitude; @Column(name = "LNG") private double longitude; } @Entity @Table(name = "COORDCONNECTIONS") public class CoordConnection { @Id @GeneratedValue @Column(name = "COORDCONNECTIONID") private Integer CoordinateID; /** * From Coordinate_id value */ @Column(name = "FROMCOORDID", nullable = false) private int fromCoordID; /** * To Coordinate_id value */ @Column(name = "TOCOORDID", nullable = false) private int toCoordID; //private Coordinate toCoordID; }

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  • Strage character encoding problem with Eclipse / Spring / Tomcat 6

    - by Czar
    Hi, I have been trying things all da but can't get a proper solution. My problem is: I am developing a Spring MVC based app in my local Tomcat. My MYSQl database has UTF-8 encoding set, all content in there displays properly when using phpMyAdmin. Also the output in LOG files using log4j in catalina.out works fine. My JSP pages are configured by <!-- encoding --> <%@ page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" %> <%@ page pageEncoding="UTF-8" %> Also showing data on my JSP works fine. I can also send data from my Controller without any DB intereference using special chars, e.g. String str = "UTF-8 Test: Ä Ö Ü ß è é â"; logger.debug(str); mav.addObject("utftest", str); That displays correctly in log and on jsp page in browser. BUT: When having special chars directly in my JSP file, e.g. for text in headers, this does not work. FF and Google Chrome display strange chars but report the page to be UTF-8. When switching to Latin, the chars just get more and more strange. Same problem when showing text tokens from my messages.properties file, although Eclipse says when right-clicking that UTF-8 will be used. I am a little it lost and don't know where to check now. Summary: DB storage is fine DB output on JSP is fine Output on JSP directly form controller is fine even reading in form forms is fine .properties files and JSP text is not fine !!! Any ideas? I really appreciate and tips.

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  • How do I add dynamic htmlAttributes to htmlhelper ActionLinks?

    - by camainc
    In my master page I have a top-level menu that is created using ActionLinks: <ul id="topNav"> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Home", "Index", "Home")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("News", "Index", "News")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Projects", "Index", "Projects")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("About", "About", "Home")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Contact", "Contact", "Home")%></li> <li><%=Html.ActionLink("Photos", "Photos", "Photos")%></li> </ul> I want to dynamically add a class named "current" to the link that the site is currently pointing to. So, for example, when the site is sitting at the home page, the menu link would render like this: <li><a class="current" href="/">Home</a></li> Do I have to overload the ActionLink method to do this, or create an entirely new HtmlHelper, or is there a better way? I'm fairly new to MVC, so I'm not sure what is the correct way to go about this. Thanks in advance.

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  • Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem

    - by SonOfOmer
    I am building custom implementation of php MVC routing engine, and I have custom routes like one in $routes array below. Each time when I send asynchronous GET request like xmlhttp.open("GET","someurl"); I get following message Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem but with synchronous (normal) request it all works fine <?php $routes = array( array('url' => '/^someurl$/', 'controller' => 'somecontroller', 'view' => 'someview') ); $url = $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; $url = substr( $url, 1 ); $params = array(); $route_match = false; foreach($routes as $urls => $route) { if(preg_match($route['url'], $url, $matches)) { $params = array_merge($params, $matches); $route_match = true; break; } } require_once(CONTROLLER_PATH.$route['controller'].'.php'); ?> string(11) "/^someurl$/" is the result of var_dump($route['url']); Thanks.

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  • How implement the Open Session in View pattern in NHibernate?

    - by MCardinale
    I'm using ASP.NET MVC + NHibernate + Fluent NHibernate and having a problem with lazy loading. Through this question (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2519964/how-to-fix-a-nhibernate-lazy-loading-error-no-session-or-session-was-closed), I've discovered that I have to implement the Open Session in View pattern , but I don't know how. In my repositories classes, I use methods like this public ImageGallery GetById(int id) { using(ISession session = NHibernateSessionFactory.OpenSession()) { return session.Get<ImageGallery>(id); } } public void Add(ImageGallery imageGallery) { using(ISession session = NHibernateSessionFactory.OpenSession()) { using(ITransaction transaction = session.BeginTransaction()) { session.Save(imageGallery); transaction.Commit(); } } } And this is my Session Factory helper class: public class NHibernateSessionFactory { private static ISessionFactory _sessionFactory; private static ISessionFactory SessionFactory { get { if(_sessionFactory == null) { _sessionFactory = Fluently.Configure() .Database(MySQLConfiguration.Standard.ConnectionString(MyConnString)) .Mappings(m => m.FluentMappings.AddFromAssemblyOf<ImageGalleryMap>()) .ExposeConfiguration(c => c.Properties.Add("hbm2ddl.keywords", "none")) .BuildSessionFactory(); } return _sessionFactory; } } public static ISession OpenSession() { return SessionFactory.OpenSession(); } } Someone could help me to implements Open Session in View pattern? Thank you.

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  • Ldap query returns null result when deployed.

    - by Trey Carroll
    I'm using a very simple Ldap query in my asp.net mvc 2.0 site: String ldapPath = ConfigReader.LdapPath; String emailAddress = null; try { DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(ConfigReader.LdapPath); search.Filter = String.Format("(&(objectClass=user)(objectCategory=person)(objectSid={0})) ", securityIdentifierValue); // add the mail property to the list of props to retrieve search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); var result = search.FindOne(); if (result == null) { throw new Exception("Ldap Query with filter:" + search.Filter.ToString() + " returned a null value (no match found)"); } else { emailAddress = result.Properties["mail"][0].ToString(); } } catch (ArgumentOutOfRangeException aoorEx) { throw new Exception( "The query could not find an email for this user."); } catch (Exception ex) { //_log.Error(string.Format("======!!!!!! ERROR ERROR ERROR !!!!! in LdapLookupUtil.cs getEmailFromLdap Exception: {0}", ex)); throw ex; } return emailAddress; It works fine on my localhost machine. It works fine when I run it in VS2010 on the server. It always returns a null result when deployed. Here is my web.config: Asp.Net Configuration option in Visual Studio. A full list of settings and comments can be found in machine.config.comments usually located in \Windows\Microsoft.Net\Framework\v2.x\Config -- section enables configuration of the security authentication mode used by ASP.NET to identify an incoming user. -- <!-- -- section enables configuration of what to do if/when an unhandled error occurs during the execution of a request. Specifically, it enables developers to configure html error pages to be displayed in place of a error stack trace. -- I'm running it under the default app pool. Does anybody see the problem? This is driving me crazy!

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  • Should I have different models and views for no user data than for some user data?

    - by Sam Holder
    I'm just starting to learn asp.net mvc and I'm not sure what the right thing to do is. I have a user and a user has a collection of (0 or more) reminders. I have a controller for the user which gets the reminders for the currently logged in user from a reminder service. It populates a model which holds some information about the user and the collection of reminders. My question is should I have 2 different views, one for when there are no reminders and one for when there are some reminders? Or should I have 1 view which checks the number of reminders and displays different things? Having one view seems wrong as then I end up with code in my view which says if (Model.Reminders.Count==0){//do something} else {do something else}, and having logic in the view feels wrong. But if I want to have 2 different views then I'd like to have some code like this in my controller: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { var model = new EmptyReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName }; return View(model); } else { var model = new ReminderModel { Email = currentUser.Email, UserName = currentUser.UserName, Reminders = reminders }; return View(model); } but obviously this doesn't compile as the View can't take both different types. So if I'm going to do this should I return a specific named view from my controller, depending on the emptiness of the reminders, or should my Index() method redirect to other actions like so: [Authorize] public ActionResult Index() { MembershipUser currentUser = m_membershipService.GetUser(); IList<Reminder> reminders = m_reminderRepository.GetReminders(currentUser); if (reminders.Count == 0) { return RedirectToAction("ShowEmptyReminders"); } else { return RedirectToAction("ShowReminders"); } } which seems nicer but then I need to re-query the reminders for the current user in the ShowReminders action. Or should I be doing something else entirely?

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  • CSRF Protection in AJAX Requests using MVC2

    - by mnemosyn
    The page I'm building depends heavily on AJAX. Basically, there is just one "page" and every data transfer is handled via AJAX. Since overoptimistic caching on the browser side leads to strange problems (data not reloaded), I have to perform all requests (also reads) using POST - that forces a reload. Now I want to prevent the page against CSRF. With form submission, using Html.AntiForgeryToken() works neatly, but in AJAX-request, I guess I will have to append the token manually? Is there anything out-of-the box available? My current attempt looks like this: I'd love to reuse the existing magic. However, HtmlHelper.GetAntiForgeryTokenAndSetCookie is private and I don't want to hack around in MVC. The other option is to write an extension like public static string PlainAntiForgeryToken(this HtmlHelper helper) { // extract the actual field value from the hidden input return helper.AntiForgeryToken().DoSomeHackyStringActions(); } which is somewhat hacky and leaves the bigger problem unsolved: How to verify that token? The default verification implementation is internal and hard-coded against using form fields. I tried to write a slightly modified ValidateAntiForgeryTokenAttribute, but it uses an AntiForgeryDataSerializer which is private and I really didn't want to copy that, too. At this point it seems to be easier to come up with a homegrown solution, but that is really duplicate code. Any suggestions how to do this the smart way? Am I missing something completely obvious?

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