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  • jquery newbie: combine validate with hidding submit button.

    - by Jeffb
    I'm new a jQuery. I have gotten validate to work with my form (MVC 1.0 / C#) with this: <script type="text/javascript"> if (document.forms.length > 0) { document.forms[0].id = "PageForm"; document.forms[0].name = "PageForm"; } $(document).ready(function() { $("#PageForm").validate({ rules: { SigP: { required: true } }, messages: { SigP: "<font color='red'><b>A Sig Value is required. </b></font>" } }); }); </script> I also want to hide the Submit button to prevent twitchy mouse syndrome from causing duplicate entry before the controller completes and redirects (I'm using an GPR pattern). The following works for this purpose: <script type="text/javascript"> // // prevent double-click on submit // jQuery('input[type=submit]').click(function() { if (jQuery.data(this, 'clicked')) { return false; } else { jQuery.data(this, 'clicked', true); return true; } }); </script> However, I can't get the two to work together. Specifically, if validate fails after the Submit button is clicked (which happens given how the form works), then I can't get the form submitted again unless I do a browser refresh that resets the 'clicked' property. How can I rewrite the second method above to not set the clicked property unless the form validates? Thx.

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  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

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  • Which of these is pythonic? and Pythonic vs. Speed

    - by Kashyap Nadig
    Hi! I'm new to python and just wrote this module level function: def _interval(patt): """ Converts a string pattern of the form '1y 42d 14h56m' to a timedelta object. y - years (365 days), M - months (30 days), w - weeks, d - days, h - hours, m - minutes, s - seconds""" m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} for (n,q) in m: if q=='y': args['days'] += float(n)*365 elif q=='M': args['days'] += float(n)*30 elif q=='w': args['weeks'] += float(n) elif q=='d': args['days'] += float(n) elif q=='h': args['hours'] += float(n) elif q=='m': args['minutes'] += float(n) elif q=='s': args['seconds'] += float(n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) My issue is with the for loop here i.e the long if elif block, and was wondering if there is a more pythonic way of doing it. So I re-wrote the function as: def _interval2(patt): m = _re.findall(r'([+-]?\d*(?:\.\d+)?)([yMwdhms])', patt) args = {'weeks': 0.0, 'days': 0.0, 'hours': 0.0, 'minutes': 0.0, 'seconds': 0.0} argsmap = {'y': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*365), 'M': ('days', lambda x: float(x)*30), 'w': ('weeks', lambda x: float(x)), 'd': ('days', lambda x: float(x)), 'h': ('hours', lambda x: float(x)), 'm': ('minutes', lambda x: float(x)), 's': ('seconds', lambda x: float(x))} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += argsmap[q][1](n) return _dt.timedelta(**args) I tested the execution times of both the codes using timeit module and found that the second one took about 5-6 seconds longer (for the default number of repeats). So my question is: 1. Which code is considered more pythonic? 2. Is there still a more pythonic was of writing this function? 3. What about the trade-offs between pythonicity and other aspects (like speed in this case) of programming? p.s. I kinda have an OCD for elegant code. EDITED _interval2 after seeing this answer: argsmap = {'y': ('days', 365), 'M': ('days', 30), 'w': ('weeks', 1), 'd': ('days', 1), 'h': ('hours', 1), 'm': ('minutes', 1), 's': ('seconds', 1)} for (n,q) in m: args[argsmap[q][0]] += float(n)*argsmap[q][1]

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  • Core Data NSPredicate to filter results

    - by Bryan
    I have a NSManagedObject that contains a bID and a pID. Within the set of NSManagedObjects, I only want a subset returned and I'm struggling to find the correct NSPredicate or way to get what I need out of Core Data. Here's my full list: bid pid 41 0 42 41 43 0 44 0 47 41 48 0 49 0 50 43 There is a parent-child relationship above. Rules: If a record's PID = 0, it means that that record IS a parent record. If a record's PID != 0, then that record's PID refers to it's parent record's BID. Example: 1) BID = 41 is a parent record. Why? Because records BID=42 and record BID=47 have PID's of 41, meaning those are children of its PID record. 2) BID = 42 has a parent record with a BID = 41. 3) BID = 43 is a parent record. 4) BID = 44 is a parent record. 5) BID = 47 has a parent record with a BID = 41 because its PID = 41. See #1 above. 6) BID = 48 is a parent record. 7) BID = 49 is a parent record. 8) BID = 50 is a child record, and its parent record has a BID = 43. See the pattern? Now, basically from that, I want only the following rows fetched: bid pid 44 0 47 41 48 0 49 0 50 43 BID = 41, BID = 48, BID = 49 should all be returned because there are no records with a PID equal to their BID. BID = 47 should be returned because it is the most recent child of PID = 41. BID = 50 should be returned because it is the most recent child of PID = 43. Hope this helps explain it more.

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  • Autodetect Presence of CSV Headers in a File

    - by banzaimonkey
    Short question: How do I automatically detect whether a CSV file has headers in the first row? Details: I've written a small CSV parsing engine that places the data into an object that I can access as (approximately) an in-memory database. The original code was written to parse third-party CSV with a predictable format, but I'd like to be able to use this code more generally. I'm trying to figure out a reliable way to automatically detect the presence of CSV headers, so the script can decide whether to use the first row of the CSV file as keys / column names or start parsing data immediately. Since all I need is a boolean test, I could easily specify an argument after inspecting the CSV file myself, but I'd rather not have to (go go automation). I imagine I'd have to parse the first 3 to ? rows of the CSV file and look for a pattern of some sort to compare against the headers. I'm having nightmares of three particularly bad cases in which: The headers include numeric data for some reason The first few rows (or large portions of the CSV) are null There headers and data look too similar to tell them apart If I can get a "best guess" and have the parser fail with an error or spit out a warning if it can't decide, that's OK. If this is something that's going to be tremendously expensive in terms of time or computation (and take more time than it's supposed to save me) I'll happily scrap the idea and go back to working on "important things". I'm working with PHP, but this strikes me as more of an algorithmic / computational question than something that's implementation-specific. If there's a simple algorithm I can use, great. If you can point me to some relevant theory / discussion, that'd be great, too. If there's a giant library that does natural language processing or 300 different kinds of parsing, I'm not interested.

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  • Connecting repeatable and non-repeatble backgrounds without a seam

    - by Stiggler
    I have a 700x300 background repeating seamlessly inside of the main content-div. Now I'd like to attach a div at the bottom of the content-div, containing a different background image that isn't repeatable, connecting seamlessly with the repeatable background above it. Essentially, the non-repeatable image will look like the end piece of the repeatable image. Due to the nature of the pattern, unless the full 300px height of the background image is visible in the last repeat of the content-div's backround, the background in the div below won't seamlessly connect. Basically, I need the content div's height to be a multiple of 300px under all circumstances. What's a good approach to this sort of problem? I've tried resizing the content-div on loading the page, but this only works as long as the content div doesn't contain any resizing, dynamic content, which is not my case: function adjustContentHeight() { // Setting content div's height to nearest upper multiple of column backgrounds height, // forcing it not to be cut-off when repeated. var contentBgHeight = 300; var contentHeight = $("#content").height(); var adjustedHeight = Math.ceil(contentHeight / contentBgHeight); $("#content").height(adjustedHeight * contentBgHeight); } $(document).ready(adjustContentHeight); What I'm looking for there is a way to respond to a div resizing event, but there doesn't seem to be such a thing. Also, please assume I have no access to the JS controlling the resizing of content in the content-div, though this is potentially a way of solving the problem. Another potential solution I was thinking off was to offset the background image in the bottom div by a certain amount depending on the height of the content-div. Again, the missing piece seems to be the ability to respond to a resize event.

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  • Asynchronous background processes in Python?

    - by Geuis
    I have been using this as a reference, but not able to accomplish exactly what I need: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/89228/how-to-call-external-command-in-python/92395#92395 I also was reading this: http://www.python.org/dev/peps/pep-3145/ For our project, we have 5 svn checkouts that need to update before we can deploy our application. In my dev environment, where speedy deployments are a bit more important for productivity than a production deployment, I have been working on speeding up the process. I have a bash script that has been working decently but has some limitations. I fire up multiple 'svn updates' with the following bash command: (svn update /repo1) & (svn update /repo2) & (svn update /repo3) & These all run in parallel and it works pretty well. I also use this pattern in the rest of the build script for firing off each ant build, then moving the wars to Tomcat. However, I have no control over stopping deployment if one of the updates or a build fails. I'm re-writing my bash script with Python so I have more control over branches and the deployment process. I am using subprocess.call() to fire off the 'svn update /repo' commands, but each one is acting sequentially. I try '(svn update /repo) &' and those all fire off, but the result code returns immediately. So I have no way to determine if a particular command fails or not in the asynchronous mode. import subprocess subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo1', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo2', shell=True ) subprocess.call( 'svn update /repo3', shell=True ) I'd love to find a way to have Python fire off each Unix command, and if any of the calls fails at any time the entire script stops.

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  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

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  • How can I effectively test against the Windows API?

    - by Billy ONeal
    I'm still having issues justifying TDD to myself. As I have mentioned in other questions, 90% of the code I write does absolutely nothing but Call some Windows API functions and Print out the data returned from said functions. The time spent coming up with the fake data that the code needs to process under TDD is incredible -- I literally spend 5 times as much time coming up with the example data as I would spend just writing application code. Part of this problem is that often I'm programming against APIs with which I have little experience, which forces me to write small applications that show me how the real API behaves so that I can write effective fakes/mocks on top of that API. Writing implementation first is the opposite of TDD, but in this case it is unavoidable: I do not know how the real API behaves, so how on earth am I going to be able to create a fake implementation of the API without playing with it? I have read several books on the subject, including Kent Beck's Test Driven Development, By Example, and Michael Feathers' Working Effectively with Legacy Code, which seem to be gospel for TDD fanatics. Feathers' book comes close in the way it describes breaking out dependencies, but even then, the examples provided have one thing in common: The program under test obtains input from other parts of the program under test. My programs do not follow that pattern. Instead, the only input to the program itself is the system upon which it runs. How can one effectively employ TDD on such a project?

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication.

    - by Shao
    SECURITY Flaws in this design for User authentication. From: http://wiki.pylonshq.com/display/pylonscookbook/Simple+Homegrown+Authentication Note: a. Project follows the MVC pattern. b. Only a user with a valid username and password is allowed submit something. Design: a. Have a base controller from which all controllers are derived from. b. Before any of the actions in the derived controllers are called the system calls a before action in the base controller. c. In each controller user hardcodes the actions that need to be verified in an array. d. The before action first looks in the array that has the actions that are protected and sees if a user is logged in or not by peaking into the session. If a user is present then user is allowed to submit otherwise user is redirected to login page. What do you think?

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  • How can I stop an auto-generated Linq to SQL class from loading ALL data?

    - by Gary McGill
    DUPLICATE of http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2433422/how-can-i-stop-an-auto-generated-linq-to-sql-class-from-loading-all-data post answers there! I have an ASP.NET MVC project, much like the NerdDinner tutorial example. (I'm using MVC 2, but followed the NerdDinner tutorial in order to create it). As per the instructions in part 3 of the tutorial, I've created a Linq-to-SQL model of my database by creating a "Linq to SQL Classes" (.dbml) surface, and dropping my database tables onto it. The designer has automatically added relationships between the generated classes based on my database tables. Let's say that my classes are as per the NerdDinner example, so I have Dinner and RSVP tables, where each Dinner record is associated with many RSVP records - hence in the generated classes, the Dinner object has a RSVPs property which is a list of RSVP objects. My problem is this: it appears (and I'd be gladly proved wrong on this) that as soon as I access a Dinner object, it's loading all of the corresponding RSVP objects, even if I don't use the RSVPs member. First question: is this really the default behavior for the generated classes? In my particular situation, the object graph contains many more tables (which have an order of magnitude more records), and so this is disastrous behaviour - I'd be loading tons of data when all I want to do is show the details of a single parent record. Second question: are there any properties exposed through the designer UI that would let me modify this behavior? (I can't find any). Third question: I've seen a description of how to control the loading of related records in a DataContext by using a DataShape object associated with the DataContext. Is that what I'm meant to do, and if so are there any tutorials like the NerdDinner one that would show not only how to do it, but also suggest a 'pattern' for normal use?

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  • Validation in n-tier asp.net mvc applications

    - by sTodorov
    Dear Stack Overflow gurus, I am looking for some practical/theoretical information regarding best practices for validation in asp.net mvc n-tier applications. I am working on a .Net application divided into the following layers: UI - Mvc3 BLL layer - all business rules. Decoupled from data access and UI layers through interfaces DAL layer - Data access with the repository pattern, EF4 and pocos Now, I am looking for a nice, clean and transparent way to specify my validation rules. Here are some thoughts on the matter so far: UI validation should only be responsible for user input and its validity. BLL validation should be handling the validity of the data regarding the application business rules. My main concern is how to bind the BLL and UI validation in the most efficient way. One think I am would like to avoid is having the UI check in a collection of validation and adding manually errors to the ModelState. Furthermore, I do not want to pass the ModelState to the BLL to be populated in there. I will appreciate any thoughts on the matter. P.S. Should this question be marked as a discussion ?

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  • Put message after long idle time does not work

    - by Sydney
    I wrote a simple Java client using MQ v7 libraries (No JMS). I try to put a message in a queue using the following pattern: Put a message Wait for x minutes Put a message again It works but if the idle time is too long (between 5-7 minutes), I get the following error: MQJE001: An MQException occurred: Completion Code 2, Reason 2195 MQJE007: IO error reading message data Error occured during API call - reason code0 MQJE001: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE001: An MQException occurred: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE003: IO error transmitting message buffer MQJE001: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE001: An MQException occurred: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE003: IO error transmitting message buffer MQJE001: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE001: An MQException occurred: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE003: IO error transmitting message buffer MQJE001: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE001: An MQException occurred: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE003: IO error transmitting message buffer MQJE001: An MQException occurred: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 MQJE003: IO error transmitting message buffer MQJE001: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 An MQSeries error occurred : Completion code 2 Reason code 2009 com.ibm.mq.MQException: MQJE001: Completion Code 2, Reason 2009 at com.ibm.mq.MQQueue.put(MQQueue.java:1511) After reading several threads on the subject, this error is usually creating FDC dumps but I have nothing in the system and queue manager logs. The channel is a SVRCONN channel.

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  • In C#, what thread will Events be handled in?

    - by Ben
    Hi, I have attempted to implement a producer/consumer pattern in c#. I have a consumer thread that monitors a shared queue, and a producer thread that places items onto the shared queue. The producer thread is subscribed to receive data...that is, it has an event handler, and just sits around and waits for an OnData event to fire (the data is being sent from a 3rd party api). When it gets the data, it sticks it on the queue so the consumer can handle it. When the OnData event does fire in the producer, I had expected it to be handled by my producer thread. But that doesn't seem to be what is happening. The OnData event seems as if it's being handled on a new thread instead! Is this how .net always works...events are handled on their own thread? Can I control what thread will handle events when they're raised? What if hundreds of events are raised near-simultaneously...would each have its own thread? Thank in advance! Ben

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  • Thread implemented as a Singleton

    - by rocknroll
    Hi all, I have a commercial application made with C,C++/Qt on Linux platform. The app collects data from different sensors and displays them on GUI. Each of the protocol for interfacing with sensors is implemented using singleton pattern and threads from Qt QThreads class. All the protocols except one work fine. Each protocol's run function for thread has following structure: void <ProtocolClassName>::run() { while(!mStop) //check whether screen is closed or not { mutex.lock() while(!waitcondition.wait(&mutex,5)) { if(mStop) return; } //Code for receiving and processing incoming data mutex.unlock(); } //end while } Hierarchy of GUI. 1.Login screen. 2. Screen of action. When a user logs in from login screen, we enter the action screen where all data is displayed and all the thread's for different sensors start. They wait on mStop variable in idle time and when data arrives they jump to receiving and processing data. Incoming data for the problem protocol is 117 bytes. In the main GUI threads there are timers which when timeout, grab the running instance of protocol using <ProtocolName>::instance() function Check the update variable of singleton class if its true and display the data. When the data display is done they reset the update variable in singleton class to false. The problematic protocol has the update time of 1 sec, which is also the frame rate of protocol. When I comment out the display function it runs fine. But when display is activated the application hangs consistently after 6-7 hours. I have asked this question on many forums but haven't received any worthwhile suggestions. I Hope that here I will get some help. Also, I have read a lot of literature on Singleton, multithreading, and found that people always discourage the use of singletons especially in C++. But in my application I can think of no other design for implementation. Thanks in advance A Hapless programmer

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  • Prevent Ninject from calling Initialize multiple times when binding to several interfaces

    - by Ahe
    Hi We have a concrete singleton service which implements Ninject.IInitializable and 2 interfaces. Problem is that services Initialize-methdod is called 2 times, when only one is desired. We are using .NET 3.5 and Ninject 2.0.0.0. Is there a pattern in Ninject prevent this from happening. Neither of the interfaces implement Ninject.IInitializable. the service class is: public class ConcreteService : IService1, IService2, Ninject.IInitializable { public void Initialize() { // This is called twice! } } And module looks like this: public class ServiceModule : NinjectModule { public override void Load() { this.Singleton<Iservice1, Iservice2, ConcreteService>(); } } where Singleton is an extension method defined like this: public static void Singleton<K, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K { module.Bind<K>().To<T>().InSingletonScope(); } public static void Singleton<K, L, T>(this NinjectModule module) where T : K, L { Singleton<K, T>(module); module.Bind<L>().ToMethod(n => n.Kernel.Get<T>()); } Of course we could add bool initialized-member to ConcreteService and initialize only when it is false, but it seems quite a bit of a hack. And it would require repeating the same logic in every service that implements two or more interfaces. Thanks for all the answers! I learned something from all of them! (I am having a hard time to decide which one mark correct). We ended up creating IActivable interface and extending ninject kernel (it also removed nicely code level dependencies to ninject, allthough attributes still remain).

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  • Set the caret/cursor position to the end of the string value WPF textbox

    - by Zamboni
    I am try to set the caret/cursor position to the end of the string value in my WPF textbox when I open my window for the first time. I use the FocusManager to set the focus on my textbox when my window opens. Nothing seems to work. Any ideas? Note, I am using the MVVM pattern, and I included only a portion of the XAML from my code. <Window FocusManager.FocusedElement="{Binding ElementName=NumberOfDigits}" Height="400" Width="800"> <Grid> <Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <ColumnDefinition/> </Grid.ColumnDefinitions> <Grid.RowDefinitions> <RowDefinition/> <RowDefinition/> </Grid.RowDefinitions> <TextBox Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="0" x:Name="NumberOfDigits" IsReadOnly="{Binding Path=IsRunning, Mode=TwoWay}" VerticalContentAlignment="Center" Text="{Binding Path=Digits, Mode=TwoWay, UpdateSourceTrigger=PropertyChanged}"/> <Button Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Margin="10,0,10,0" IsDefault="True" Content="Start" Command="{Binding StartCommand}"/> </Grid> </Window>

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  • Transaction Isolation Level of Serializable not working for me

    - by Shahriar
    I have a website which is used by all branches of a store and what it does is that it records customer purchases into a table called myTransactions.myTransactions table has a column named SerialNumber.For each purchase i create a record in the transactions table and assign a serial to it.The stored procedure that does this calls a UDF function to get a new serialNumber before inserting the record.Like below : Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2,Value3,...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) end Create function getTransactionNSerialNumber as begin RETURN isnull(SELECT TOP (1) SerialNumber FROM myTransactions READUNCOMMITTED ORDER BY SerialNumber DESC),0) + 1 end The website is being used by so many users in different stores at the same time and it is creating many duplicate serialNumbers(same SerialNumbers).So i added a Sql transaction with ReadCommitted level to the transaction and i still got duplicate transaction numbers.I changed it to SERIALIZABLE in order to lock the resources and i not only got duplicate transaction numbers(!!HOW!!) but i also got sporadic deadlocks between the same stored procedure calls.This is what i tried : (With ommissions of try catch blocks and rollbacks) Create Procedure mytransaction_Insert as begin SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE BEGIN TRASNACTION ins insert into myTransactions(column1,column2,column3,...SerialNumber) values( Value1 ,Value2 , Value3, ...., getTransactionNSerialNumber()) COMMIT TRANSACTION ins SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION READCOMMITTED end I even copied the function that gets the serial number directly into the stored procedure instead of the UDF function call and still got duplicate serialNumbers.So,How can a stored procedure line create something Like the c# lock() {} block. By the way,i have to implement the transaction serial number using the same pattern and i can't change the serialNumber to any other identity field or whatever.And for some reasons i need to generate the serialNumber inside the databse and i can't move SerialNumber generation to application level. Thank you.

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  • How do I unit test a finalizer?

    - by GraemeF
    I have the following class which is a decorator for an IDisposable object (I have omitted the stuff it adds) which itself implements IDisposable using a common pattern: public class DisposableDecorator : IDisposable { private readonly IDisposable _innerDisposable; public DisposableDecorator(IDisposable innerDisposable) { _innerDisposable = innerDisposable; } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { Dispose(true); GC.SuppressFinalize(this); } #endregion ~DisposableDecorator() { Dispose(false); } protected virtual void Dispose(bool disposing) { if (disposing) _innerDisposable.Dispose(); } } I can easily test that innerDisposable is disposed when Dispose() is called: [Test] public void Dispose__DisposesInnerDisposable() { var mockInnerDisposable = new Mock<IDisposable>(); new DisposableDecorator(mockInnerDisposable.Object).Dispose(); mockInnerDisposable.Verify(x => x.Dispose()); } But how do I write a test to make sure innerDisposable does not get disposed by the finalizer? I want to write something like this but it fails, presumably because the finalizer hasn't been called by the GC thread: [Test] public void Finalizer__DoesNotDisposeInnerDisposable() { var mockInnerDisposable = new Mock<IDisposable>(); new DisposableDecorator(mockInnerDisposable.Object); GC.Collect(); mockInnerDisposable.Verify(x => x.Dispose(), Times.Never()); }

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  • Frameworks to manage dates (effective date and expiry dates)

    - by user214626
    Hello, We have an object that can has an effective date and expiry date.(Ex. i want to maintain the price of a commodity for a time period) Business Rules - Effective date is always a valid date (a datestamp) but, expiry date can be null to indicate that the object is active throughout. Also, both effective and expiry date can be set to some valid dates. Are there any frameworks that manage objects such that the objects are consistent,i.e there are no overlaps of the validity periods ? Ex. class XBOX { double price; Date effectiveDate; Date expiryDate; } XBOX x1 = new XBOX(400$, '2007-01-01','2008-12-31' ); XBOX x2 = new XBOX(200$, '2009-01-01',null ); Assume that we get a new rate from '2010-01-01' and a new XBOX object has to be created (to persist). Is there a framework/pattern that can do the following, so that the XBOX is consistent. x2.setExpiryDate('2009-12-31') XBOX x3 = new XBOX(150$, '2010-01-01',null ); Thanks in advance.

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  • Why String.replaceAll() don't work on this String ?

    - by Aloong
    //This source is a line read from a file String src = "23570006,music,**,wu(),1,exam,\"Monday9,10(H2-301)\",1-10,score,"; //This sohuld be from a matcher.group() when Pattern.compile("\".*?\"") String group = "\"Monday9,10(H2-301)\""; src = src.replaceAll("\"", ""); group = group.replaceAll("\"", ""); String replacement = group.replaceAll(",", "#@"); System.out.println(src.contains(group)); src = src.replaceAll(group, replacement); System.out.println(group); System.out.println(replacement); System.out.println(src); I'm trying to replace the "," between \"s so I can ues String.split() latter. But the above just not working , the result is: true Monday9,10(H2-301) Monday9#@10(H2-301) 23570006,music,**,wu(),1,exam,Monday9,10(H2-301),1-10,score, but when I change the src string to String src = "123\"9,10\"123"; String group = "\"9,10\""; It works well true 9,10 9#@10 1239#@10123 What's the matter with the string???

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  • Empty data problem - data layer or DAL?

    - by luckyluke
    I designing the new App now and giving the following question a lot of thought. I consume a lot of data from the warehouse, and the entities have a lot of dictionary based values (currency, country, tax-whatever data) - dimensions. I cannot be assured though that there won't be nulls. So I am thinking: create an empty value in each of teh dictionaries with special keyID - ie. -1 do the ETL (ssis) do the correct stuff and insert -1 where it needs to let the DAL know that -1 is special (Static const whatever thing) don't care in the code to check for nullness of dictionary entries because THEY will always have a value But maybe I should be thinking: import data AS IS let the DAL do the thinking using empty record Pattern still don't care in the code because business layer will have what it needs from DAL. I think is more of a approach thing but maybe i am missing something important here... What do You think? Am i clear? Please don't confuse it with empty record problem. I do use emptyCustomer think all the time and other defaults too.

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  • IUsable: controlling resources in a better way than IDisposable

    - by Ilya Ryzhenkov
    I wish we have "Usable" pattern in C#, when code block of using construct would be passed to a function as delegate: class Usable : IUsable { public void Use(Action action) // implements IUsable { // acquire resources action(); // release resources } } and in user code: using (new Usable()) { // this code block is converted to delegate and passed to Use method above } Pros: Controlled execution, exceptions The fact of using "Usable" is visible in call stack Cons: Cost of delegate Do you think it is feasible and useful, and if it doesn't have any problems from the language point of view? Are there any pitfalls you can see? EDIT: David Schmitt proposed the following using(new Usable(delegate() { // actions here }) {} It can work in the sample scenario like that, but usually you have resource already allocated and want it to look like this: using (Repository.GlobalResource) { // actions here } Where GlobalResource (yes, I know global resources are bad) implements IUsable. You can rewrite is as short as Repository.GlobalResource.Use(() => { // actions here }); But it looks a little bit weird (and more weird if you implement interface explicitly), and this is so often case in various flavours, that I thought it deserve to be new syntactic sugar in a language.

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  • Proper way to validate model in ASP.NET MVC 2 and ViewModel apporach

    - by adrin
    I am writing an ASP.NET MVC 2 application using NHibernate and repository pattern. I have an assembly that contains my model (business entities), moreover in my web project I want to use flattened objects (possibly with additional properties/logic) as ViewModels. These VMs contain UI-specific metadata (eg. DisplayAttribute used by Html.LabelFor() method). The problem is that I don't know how to implement validation so that I don't repeat myself throughout various tiers (specifically validation rules are written once in Model and propagated to ViewModel). I am using DataAnnotations on my ViewModel but this means no validation rules are imposed on the Model itself. One approach I am considering is deriving ViewModel objects from business entities adding new properties/overriding old ones, thus preserving validation metadata between the two however this is an ugly workaround. I have seen Automapper project which helps to map properties, but I am not sure if it can handle ASP.NET MVC 2 validation metadata properly. Is it difficult to use custom validation framework in asp.net mvc 2? Do you have any patterns that help to preserve DRY in regard to validation?

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