Search Results

Search found 9516 results on 381 pages for 'devexpress mvc'.

Page 213/381 | < Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >

  • An unhandled exception of type 'System.StackOverflowException' occurred in mscorlib.dll

    - by mazhar
    Ok the thing is that I am using asp.net mvc with linq to sql. I have a scenario where there are two tables group and features with many to many relationship with the third table groupfeatures. I have drag and drop all three table in the dbml file. The thing is that it runs fine with group but when I call the Feature things the above error occured and the compilers stops at this line in ((())). public partial class EgovtDataContext : System.Data.Linq.DataContext { private static System.Data.Linq.Mapping.MappingSource mappingSource = new AttributeMappingSource(); #region Extensibility Method Definitions partial void OnCreated(); partial void InsertGroup(Group instance); partial void UpdateGroup(Group instance); partial void DeleteGroup(Group instance); partial void InsertFeature(Feature instance); partial void UpdateFeature(Feature instance); partial void DeleteFeature(Feature instance); partial void InsertGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void UpdateGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); partial void DeleteGroupFeature(GroupFeature instance); #endregion (((public EgovtDataContext() : base(global::System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.ConnectionStrings["egovtsConnectionString"].ConnectionString, mappingSource)))) The code in both the controller Group and features file is ditto copied. Note the group things are working, the features things are not. FeaturesRepository.cs public IQueryable<Feature> FindAllFeatures() { return db.Features; } FeaturesController.cs FeaturesRepository FeatureRepository = new FeaturesRepository(); public ActionResult Index() { var Feature = FeatureRepository.FindAllFeatures(); return View(Feature); } So what could be wrong?

    Read the article

  • Calculate time of method execution and send to WCF service async

    - by Tim
    I need to implement time calculation for repository methods in my asp .net mvc project classes. The problem is that i need to send time calculation data to WCF Service which is time consuming. I think about threads which can help to cal WCF service asynchronously. But I have very little experience with it. Do I need to create new thread each time or I can create a global thread, if so then how? I have something like that: StopWatch class public class StopWatch { private DateTime _startTime; private DateTime _endTime; public void Start() { _startTime = DateTime.Now; } protected void StopTimerAndWriteStatistics() { _endTime = DateTime.Now; TimeSpan timeResult = _endTime - _startTime; //WCF proxy object var reporting = AppServerUtility.GetProxy<IReporting>(); //Send data to server reporting.WriteStatistics(_startTime, _endTime, timeResult, "some information"); } public void Stop() { //Here is the thread I have question with var thread = new Thread(StopTimerAndWriteStatistics); thread.Start(); } } Using of StopWatch class in Repository public class SomeRepository { public List<ObjectInfo> List() { StopWatch sw = new StopWatch(); sw.Start(); //performing long time operation sw.Stop(); } } What am I doing wrong with threads?

    Read the article

  • RESTful WCF Data Service Authentication

    - by Adrian Grigore
    Hi, I'd like to implement a REST api to an existing ASP.NET MVC website. I've managed to set up WCF Data services so that I can browse my data, but now the question is how to handle authentication. Right now the data service is secured via the site's built in forms authentication, and that's ok when accessing the service from AJAX forms. However, It's not ideal for a RESTful api. What I would like as an alternative to forms authentication is for the users to simply embed the user name and password into the url to the web service or as request parameters. For example, if my web service is usually accessible as http://localhost:1234/api.svc I'd like to be able to access it using the url http://localhost:1234/api.svc/{login}/{password} So, my questions are as follows: Is this a sane approach? If yes, how can I implement this? It seems trivial redirecting GET requests so that the login and password are attached as GET parameters. I also know how to inspect the http context and use those parameters to filter the results. But I am not sure if / how the same approach could be applied to POST, PUT and DELETE requests. Thanks, Adrian

    Read the article

  • Add KO "data-bind" attribute on $(document).ready

    - by M.Babcock
    Preface I've rarely ever been a JS developer and this is my first attempt at doing something with Knockout.js. The question to follow likely illustrates both points. Backgound I have a fairly complex MVC3 application that I'm trying to get to work with KO (v2.0.0.0). My MVC app is designed to generically control which fields appear in the view (and how they are added to the view). It makes use of partial views to decide what to draw in the view based on the user's permissions (If the user is in group A then show control A, if the user in group B then show control B or possibly if the user is in group A don't include the control at all). Also, my model is very flat so I'm not sure the built-in ability to apply my ViewModel to a specific portion of the view will help. My solution to this problem is to provide an action in my controller that responds with an object in JSON format with that contains the JQuery selector and the content to assign to the "data-bind" attribute and bind the ViewModel to the View in the $(document).ready event using the values provided. Failed Proof-of-concept My first attempt at proving that this works doesn't actually seem to work, and by "doesn't work" I mean it just doesn't bind the values at all (as can be seen in this jsfiddle). I've tried it with the applyBindings inside of the ready event and not, but it doesn't seem to make any bit of difference. Question What am I doing wrong? Or is this just not something that can work with KO (though I've seen at least one example online doing the same thing and it supposedly works)? Like I said in the preface, I've only ever pretended to be a JS developer (though I've generally gotten it to work in the past) so I'm at a loss where to start trying to figure out what I'm doing wrong. Hopefully this isn't a real noob question.

    Read the article

  • Mock versus Implementation. How to share both approaches in a single Test class ?

    - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia
    Hi, See the following Mock Test by using Spring/Spring-MVC public class OrderTest { // SimpleFormController private OrderController controller; private OrderService service; private MockHttpServletRequest request; @BeforeMethod public void setUp() { request = new MockHttpServletRequest(); request.setMethod("POST"); Integer orderNumber = 421; Order order = new Order(orderNumber); // Set up a Mock service service = createMock(OrderService.class); service.save(order); replay(service); controller = new OrderController(); controller.setService(service); controller.setValidator(new OrderValidator()); request.addParameter("orderNumber", String.valueOf(orderNumber)); } @Test public void successSave() { controller.handleRequest(request, new MockHttpServletResponse()); // Our OrderService has been called by our controller verify(service); } @Test public void failureSave() { // Ops... our orderNumber is required request.removeAllParameters(); ModelAndView mav = controller.handleRequest(request, new MockHttpServletResponse()); BindingResult bindException = (BindingResult) mav.getModel().get(BindingResult.MODEL_KEY_PREFIX + "command"); assertEquals("Our Validator has thrown one FieldError", bindException.getAllErrors(), 1); } } As you can see, i do as proposed by Triple A pattern Arrange (setUp method) Act (controller.handleRequest) Assert (verify and assertEquals) But i would like to test both Mock and Implementation class (OrderService) by using this single Test class. So in order to retrieve my Implementation, i re-write my class as follows @ContextConfiguration(locations="/app.xml") public class OrderTest extends AbstractTestNGSpringContextTests { } So how should i write my single test to Arrange both Mock and Implementation OrderService without change my Test method (sucessSave and failureSave) I am using TestNG, but you can show in JUnit if you want regards,

    Read the article

  • MVC2 and jquery.validate.js

    - by Will I Am
    I am experiencing some confusion with jquery.validate.js First of all, what is MicrosoftMvcJqueryValidation.js. It is referenced in snippets on the web but appears to have dissapeared from the RTM MVC2 and is now in futures. Do I need it? The reason I'm asking is that I'm trying to use the validator with MVC and I can't get it to work. I defined my JS as: $(document).ready(function () { $("#myForm").validate({ rules: { f_fullname: { required: true }, f_email: { required: true, email: true }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "#f_email" }, f_password: { required: true, minlength: 6 }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "#f_password" } }, messages: { f_fullname: { required: "* required" }, f_email: { required: "* required", email: "* not a valid email address" }, f_email_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" }, f_password: { required: "* required", minlength: "password must be at least 6 characters long" }, f_password_c: { equalTo: "* does not match the other email" } } }); }); and my form on the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm("CreateNew", "Account", FormMethod.Post, new { id = "myForm" })) { %> <fieldset> <label for="f_fullname">name:</label><input id="f_fullname"/> <label for="f_email"><input id="f_email"/> ...etc... <input type="submit" value="Create" id="f_submit"/> </fieldset> <% } %> and the validation method gets called on .ready() with no errors in firebug. however when I submit the form, nothing gets validated and the form gets submitted. If I create a submitHandler() it gets called, but the plugin doesn't detect any validation errors (.valid() == true) What am I missing?

    Read the article

  • Localizing DataAnnotations Custom Validation Attribute

    - by Gabe G
    Hello SO, I'm currently working in an MVC 2 app which has to have everything localized in n-languages (currently 2, none of them english btw). I validate my model classes with DataAnnotations but when I wanted to validate a DateTime field found out that the DataTypeAttribute returns always true, no matter it was a valid date or not (that's because when I enter a random string "foo", the IsValid() method checks against "01/01/0001 ", dont know why). Decided to write my own validator extending ValidationAtribute class: public class DateTimeAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { DateTime result; if (value.ToString().Equals("01/01/0001 0:00:00")) { return false; } return DateTime.TryParse(value.ToString(), out result); } } Now it checks OK when is valid and when it's not, but my problem starts when I try to localize it: [Required(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_Required")] [CustomValidation.DateTime(ErrorMessageResourceType = typeof(MSG), ErrorMessageResourceName = "INS_DATA_DataType")] public DateTime INS_DATA { get; set; } If I put nothing in the field I get a localized MSG (MSG being my resource class) for the key=INS_DATA_Required but if I put a bad-formatted date I get the "The value 'foo' is not valid for INS_DATA" default message and not the localized MSG. What am I misssing?

    Read the article

  • jqGrid - edit function never getting called

    - by dcp
    I'm having a problem with JQGrid using ASP.NET MVC. I'm trying to follow this example (after you go to that link, over on the left side of the page please click Live Data Manipulation, then Edit Row), but my edit function is never getting called (i.e. it's never getting into the $("#bedata").click(function(). Does anyone know what could be the problem? <script type="text/javascript"> var lastsel2; jQuery(document).ready(function() { jQuery("#editgrid").jqGrid({ url: '/Home/GetMovieData/', datatype: 'json', mtype: 'GET', colNames: ['id', 'Movie Name', 'Directed By', 'Release Date', 'IMDB Rating', 'Plot', 'ImageURL'], colModel: [ { name: 'id', index: 'Id', width: 55, sortable: false, hidden: true, editable: false, editoptions: { readonly: true, size: 10} }, { name: 'Movie Name', index: 'Name', width: 250, editable: true, editoptions: { size: 10} }, { name: 'Directed By', index: 'Director', width: 250, align: 'right', editable: true, editoptions: { size: 10} }, { name: 'Release Date', index: 'ReleaseDate', width: 100, align: 'right', editable: true, editoptions: { size: 10} }, { name: 'IMDB Rating', index: 'IMDBUserRating', width: 100, align: 'right', editable: true, editoptions: { size: 10} }, { name: 'Plot', index: 'Plot', width: 150, hidden: false, editable: true, editoptions: { size: 30} }, { name: 'ImageURL', index: 'ImageURL', width: 55, hidden: true, editable: false, editoptions: { readonly: true, size: 10} } ], pager: jQuery('#pager'), rowNum: 5, rowList: [5, 10, 20], sortname: 'id', sortorder: "desc", height: '100%', width: '100%', viewrecords: true, imgpath: '/Content/jqGridCss/redmond/images', caption: 'Movies from 2008', editurl: '/Home/EditMovieData/', caption: 'Movie List' }); }); $("#bedata").click(function() { var gr = jQuery("#editgrid").jqGrid('getGridParam', 'selrow'); if (gr != null) jQuery("#editgrid").jqGrid('editGridRow', gr, { height: 280, reloadAfterSubmit: false }); else alert("Hey dork, please select a row"); }); </script> The relevant HTML is here: <table id="editgrid"> </table> <div id="pager" style="text-align: center;"> </div> <input type="button" id="bedata" value="Edit Selected" />

    Read the article

  • Use spring tag in XSLT

    - by X-Pippes
    I have a XSL/XML parser to produce jsp/html code. Using MVC model I need to accees spring library in order to perform i18n translation. Thus, given the xml <a> ... <country>EN</country> ... </a> and using <spring:message code="table_country_code.EN"/> tag, choose based on the browser language, the transalation into England, Inglaterra, etc... However, the XSL do not support <spring:message> tag. The idea is to have a XSLT with something like this <spring:message code="table_country_code.><xsl:value-of select="country"/>"/>` I also tried to create the spring tag in Java when I make a parse to create the XML but I sill have the same error. ERROR [STDERR] (http-0.0.0.0-8080-1) file:///C:/Software/Jboss/jboss-soa-p-5/jboss-as/bin/jstl:; Line #5; Column #58; The prefix "spring" for element "spring:message" is not bound. How can I resolve?

    Read the article

  • GlassFish can't find persistence provider for EntityManager

    - by Xorty
    Hi, I am building Spring MVC project (2.5). It runs on GlassFish v3 server and I am using Hibernate for ORM mapping from Derby database. I am having trouble with deployment - GlassFish says : No Persistence provider for EntityManager named mvcspringPU. Here is how I create EntityManagerFactory : emf = Persistence.createEntityManagerFactory("mvcspringPU"); And here is my configuration file persistence.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <persistence version="1.0" xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/persistence/persistence_1_0.xsd"> <persistence-unit name="mvcspringPU" transaction-type="JTA"> <provider>org.hibernate.ejb.HibernatePersistence</provider> <jta-data-source>CarsDB</jta-data-source> <properties> <property name="hibernate.hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> </properties> </persistence-unit> </persistence> I am building with NetBeans 6.8, so things like build paths should be alright (generated by IDE itself).

    Read the article

  • sharp architecture question

    - by csetzkorn
    I am trying to get my head around the sharp architecture and follow the tutorial. I am using this code: using Bla.Core; using System.Collections.Generic; using Bla.Core.DataInterfaces; using System.Web.Mvc; using SharpArch.Core; using SharpArch.Web; using Bla.Web; namespace Bla.Web.Controllers { public class UsersController { public UsersController(IUserRepository userRepository) { Check.Require(userRepository != null,"userRepository may not be null"); this.userRepository = userRepository; } public ActionResult ListStaffMembersMatching(string filter) { List<User> matchingUsers = userRepository.FindAllMatching(filter); return View("ListUsersMatchingFilter", matchingUsers); } private readonly IUserRepository userRepository; } } I get this error: The name 'View' does not exist in the current context I have used all the correct using statements and referenced the assemblies as far as I can see. The views live in Bla.Web in this architecture. Can anyone see the problem? Thanks. Christian

    Read the article

  • Coupling between controller and view

    - by cheez
    The litmus test for me for a good MVC implementation is how easy it is to swap out the view. I've always done this really badly due to being lazy but now I want to do it right. This is in C++ but it should apply equally to non-desktop applications, if I am to believe the hype. Here is one example: the application controller has to check some URL for existence in the background. It may connect to the "URL available" event (using Boost Signals) as follows: BackgroundUrlCheckerThread(Controller & controller) { // ... signalUrlAvailable.connect( boost::bind(&Controller::urlAvailable,&controller,_1)) } So what does Controller::urlAvailable look like? Here is one possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { if(!view->askUser("URL available, wanna download it?")) return; else // Download the url in a new thread, repeat } This, to me, seems like a gross coupling of the view and the controller. Such a coupling makes it impossible to implement the view when using the web (coroutines aside.) Another possibility: void Controller::urlAvailable(Url url) { urlAvailableSignal(url); // Now, any view interested can do what it wants } I'm partial to the latter but it appears that if I do this there will be: 40 billion such signals. The application controller can get huge for a non-trivial application A very real possibility that a given view accidentally ignores some signals (APIs can inform you at link-time, but signals/slots are run-time) Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • When I use a form to call a method on the controller, I want the page to refresh, and the url to sho

    - by MedicineMan
    Using ASP MVC, I have set up a webpage for localhost/Dinner/100 to show the dinner details for dinner with ID = 100. On the page, there is a dropdown that shows Dinner 1, Dinner 2, etc. The user should select the dinner of interest (Dinner 2, ID = 102) off the form and press submit. The page should refresh and show the url: localhost/Dinner/102, and show the details of dinner 2. My code is working except for the url. During this, my url shows localhost/Dinner/100 even though it is correctly displaying the details of Dinner 2 (ID = 102). My controller method is pretty simple: public ActionResult Index(string id) { int Id = 0; if (!IsValidFacilityId(id) || !int.TryParse(id, out Id)) { return Redirect("/"); } return View(CreateViewModel(Id)); } can you help me figure out how to get this all working? p.s. I did create a custom route for the method: routes.MapRoute( "DinnerDefault", // Route name "Dinner/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Dinner", action = "Index", id = "" } // Parameter defaults );

    Read the article

  • Where should 'CreateMap' statements go?

    - by jonathanconway
    I frequently use AutoMapper to map Model (Domain) objects to ViewModel objects, which are then consumed by my Views, in a Model/View/View-Model pattern. This involves many 'Mapper.CreateMap' statements, which all must be executed, but must only be executed once in the lifecycle of the application. Technically, then, I should keep them all in a static method somewhere, which gets called from my Application_Start() method (this is an ASP.NET MVC application). However, it seems wrong to group a lot of different mapping concerns together in one central location. Especially when mapping code gets complex and involves formatting and other logic. Is there a better way to organize the mapping code so that it's kept close to the ViewModel that it concerns? (I came up with one idea - having a 'CreateMappings' method on each ViewModel, and in the BaseViewModel, calling this method on instantiation. However, since the method should only be called once in the application lifecycle, it needs some additional logic to cache a list of ViewModel types for which the CreateMappings method has been called, and then only call it when necessary, for ViewModels that aren't in that list.)

    Read the article

  • HtmlHelper Getting the route name

    - by Simon G
    Hi, I've created a html helper that adds a css class property to a li item if the user is on the current page. The helper looks like this: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string actionName, string controllerName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class if ( currentControllerName.Equals( controllerName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) && currentActionName.Equals( actionName, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase ) ) builder.AddCssClass( "active" ); // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.ActionLink( linkText, actionName, controllerName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } I want to expand this class so I can pass a route name to the helper and if the user is on that route then it adds the css class to the li item. However I'm having difficulty finding the route the user is on. Is this possible? The code I have so far is: public static string MenuItem( this HtmlHelper helper, string linkText, string routeName, object routeValues, object htmlAttributes ) { string currentControllerName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["controller"]; string currentActionName = ( string )helper.ViewContext.RouteData.Values["action"]; var builder = new TagBuilder( "li" ); // Add selected class // Some code for here // if ( routeName == currentRoute ) AddCssClass; // Add link builder.InnerHtml = helper.RouteLink( linkText, routeName, routeValues, htmlAttributes ); // Render Tag Builder return builder.ToString( TagRenderMode.Normal ); } BTW I'm using MVC 1.0. Thanks

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET Line Breaks in Title Element

    - by Nathan Taylor
    I'm trying to optimize SEO readability on our websites and one issue I've come across is ASP.NET butchering the title element of my MasterPage. Entered as such in my MasterPage (manually reformatted to remove line breaks caused by the <% %> tags): <title><asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="TitleContent" runat="server" /> - <%=WebsiteSettings.WebsiteName %></title> This is the output I receive: <title> Home - Website Name</title> As you can see ASP.NET is adding preceding and trailing line breaks where the <asp:ContentPlaceHolder /> is substitute becaused Visual Studio auto-formats <asp:Content /> to start and end with a line break. Obviously, this can be prevented in the Visual Studio formatting options, but this is not ideal because I only would want to remove that behavior for the TitleContent placeholder and not the rest. Is there any way I can ensure my Title is trimmed before it is rendered? I am using MVC so code-behind is not an acceptable option.

    Read the article

  • SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action.

    - by Oskar Kjellin
    I have been using my website (ASP.NET MVC) in visual studio but now I want to host it on my server. I published from visual studio onto the network share to be used. The server is running Windows Home Server, IIS 6 and SQL Server 2008 R2 (express). In Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio, I've attached the database and made sure that the user IUSR_SERVER is owner of the db. I also made sure that the user Network Service has access. The Web Site is configured in IIS to run anonymously as IUSR_SERVER. I have granted write and read access to IUSR_SERVER as well as Network Service and made sure that nothing is read only. The web.config has this connectionstring: <connectionStrings> <remove name="ApplicationServices" /> <add name="ApplicationServices" connectionString="Data Source=.\SQLExpress;Integrated Security=True;Initial Catalog=MyDatebase" providerName="System.Data.SqlClient" /> </connectionStrings> However, I cannot browse my web site. I only get this error: Server Error in '/' Application. User does not have permission to perform this action. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Data.SqlClient.SqlException: User does not have permission to perform this action. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [SqlException (0x80131904): User does not have permission to perform this action.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4846887 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 Feels like I've tried everything. Would be very grateful for your aid in this.

    Read the article

  • Class Structure w/ LINQ, Partial Classes, and Abstract Classes

    - by Jason
    I am following the Nerd Dinner tutorial as I'm learning ASP.NET MVC, and I am currently on Step 3: Building the Model. One part of this section discusses how to integrate validation and business rule logic with the model classes. All this makes perfect sense. However, in the case of this source code, the author only validates one class: Dinner. What I am wondering is, say I have multiple classes that need validation (Dinner, Guest, etc). It doesn't seem smart to me to repeatedly write these two methods in the partial class: public bool IsValid { get { return (GetRuleViolations().Count() == 0); } } partial void OnValidate(ChangeAction action) { if (!IsValid) { throw new ApplicationException("Rule violations prevent saving."); } } What I'm wondering is, can you create an abstract class (because "GetRuleViolations" needs to be implemented separately) and extend a partial class? I'm thinking something like this (based on his example): public partial class Dinner : Validation { public IEnumerable<RuleViolation> GetRuleViolations() { yield break; } } This doesn't "feel" right, but I wanted to check with SO to get opinions of individuals smarter than me on this. I also tested it out, and it seems that the partial keyword on the OnValidate method is causing problems (understandably so). This doesn't seem possible to fix (but I could very well be wrong). Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Time to start returning IQueryable<T> instead of IList<T> to my Web UI / Web API Layer?

    - by JohnnyO
    I've got a multi-layer application that starts with the repository pattern for all data access and it returns IQueryable to the Services layer. The Services layer, which includes all of the business logic, returns IList to the Controllers (note: I'm using ASP.NET MVC for the UI layer). The benefit of returning IQueryable in the data access layer is that it allows my repositories to be extremely simple and the database queries to be deferred. However, I'm triggering the database queries in my services layer so that my unit tests is more reliable and I don't give flexibility to the Controllers to reshape my queries. However, I've recently encountered several situations where deferring the execution of queries down to the Controllers would have been significantly more performant because the Controllers had to do some projections on the data that was UI specific. Additionally, with the emergence of things like oData, I was starting to wonder if end points (e.g. web UI or web apis) should be working directly with IQueryable. What are your thoughts? Is it time to start returning IQueryable from the services layer to the UI layer? Or stick with IList? This thread here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/718624/to-return-iqueryablet-or-not-return-iqueryablet seems to vouch for returning IList to the UI layers, but I was wondering if things are changing because of new emerging technologies and techniques.

    Read the article

  • Custom model validation of dependent properties using Data Annotations

    - by Darin Dimitrov
    Since now I've used the excellent FluentValidation library to validate my model classes. In web applications I use it in conjunction with the jquery.validate plugin to perform client side validation as well. One drawback is that much of the validation logic is repeated on the client side and is no longer centralized at a single place. For this reason I'm looking for an alternative. There are many examples out there showing the usage of data annotations to perform model validation. It looks very promising. One thing I couldn't find out is how to validate a property that depends on another property value. Let's take for example the following model: public class Event { [Required] public DateTime? StartDate { get; set; } [Required] public DateTime? EndDate { get; set; } } I would like to ensure that EndDate is greater than StartDate. I could write a custom validation attribute extending ValidationAttribute in order to perform custom validation logic. Unfortunately I couldn't find a way to obtain the model instance: public class CustomValidationAttribute : ValidationAttribute { public override bool IsValid(object value) { // value represents the property value on which this attribute is applied // but how to obtain the object instance to which this property belongs? return true; } } I found that the CustomValidationAttribute seems to do the job because it has this ValidationContext property that contains the object instance being validated. Unfortunately this attribute has been added only in .NET 4.0. So my question is: can I achieve the same functionality in .NET 3.5 SP1? UPDATE: It seems that FluentValidation already supports clientside validation and metadata in ASP.NET MVC 2. Still it would be good to know though if data annotations could be used to validate dependent properties.

    Read the article

  • Facebook Graph API authentication in canvas app and track session

    - by cdpnet
    Short question is: how can i use graph api oauth redirects mechanism to authenticate user and save retrieved access_token and also use javascript SDK when needed (the problem is javascript SDK will have different access_token when initialized). I have initially setup my facebook iframe canvas app, with single sign on. This works well with graph api, as I am able to use access_token saved by facebook's javascript when it detects sessionchange(user logged in). But, I want to rather not do single sign-on. But, use graph api redirect and force user to send to a permissions dialog. But, if he has already given permissions, I shouldn't redirect user. How to handle this? Another question: I have done graph api redirects for authentication and have retrieved access_token also. But then, what if I want to use javascript call FB.ui to do stream.Publish? I think it will use it's own access_token which is set during FB.init and detecting session. So, I am looking for some path here. How to use graph api for authentication and also use facebook's javascript SDK when needed. P.S. I'm using ASP .NET MVC 2. I have an authentication filter developed, which needs to detect the user's authentication state and redirect.(currently it does this to graph api authorize url)

    Read the article

  • Render a Form from an XSLT file

    - by Russ Clark
    I've generated the following XSLT file, and have created a Form that will post to an ASP.Net MVC action called Home/ProcessRequest: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform" xmlns:msxsl="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:xslt" exclude-result-prefixes="msxsl" > <xsl:output method="html" indent="yes"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <html> <body> <xsl:value-of select="Employee/Name"/> <br /> <xsl:value-of select="Employee/ID"/> <form method="post" action="/Home/ProcessRequest?id=42"> <input id="Action" name="Action" type="radio" value="Approved"></input> Approved <br /> <input id="Action" name="Action" type="radio" value="Rejected"></input> Rejected <br /> <input type="submit" value="Submit"></input> </form> </body> </html> Here is my XML File: <Employee xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:xsd="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema"> <Name>Russ</Name> <ID>42</ID> </Employee> This works fine the way it is, but I need to change the id parameter in my from from a hard coded integer, to use the ID element from my XML file. Does anyone know how to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to handle ASP.NET application error that occurs on application start and transfer & display erro

    - by Soul_Master
    I know that ASP.NET MVC has error filter attribute to handle specified error type. However, this feature cannot catch any error that occurs when application start. Therefore, I need to add some code to “Application_Error” method for handling this error like the following code. public void Application_Error(object sender, EventArgs e) { // At this point we have information about the error var ctx = HttpContext.Current; var exception = ctx.Server.GetLastError(); var errorInfo = "<br>Offending URL: " + ctx.Request.Url + "<br>Source: " + exception.Source + "<br>Message: " + exception.Message + "<br>Stack trace: " + exception.StackTrace; ctx.Response.Write(errorInfo); Server.ClearError(); } Although, this code will works fine, when normal application error occurs like error that occurs in view page. Nevertheless, it does not work when error occurs on application starting because request and response objects are always null. Next, I try to solve this question by setting default redirect in custom errors like the following code. <customErrors mode="On" defaultRedirect="Scripts/ApplicationError.htm"></customErrors> Unfortunately, it does not work because when application receive redirected request, it try to start application again and it throw exception again. How do to solve this problem? Alternatively, Do you have other idea for handling this error. Thanks, PS. The main reason for creating this handler because I want to display error when application cannot connect to other service like database for caching data on application start.

    Read the article

  • How to explain to someone that a data structure should not draw itself, explaining separation of con

    - by leeand00
    I have another programmer who I'm trying to explain why it is that a UI component should not also be a data-structure. For instance say that you get a data-structure that contains a record-set from the "database", and you wish to display that record-set in a UI component within your application. According to this programmer (who will remain nameless, he's young and I'm teaching him...), we should subclass the data-structure into a class that will draw the UI component within our application!!!!!! And thus according to this logic, the record-set should manage the drawing of the UI. **Head Desk*** I know that asking a record-set to draw itself is wrong, because, if you wish to render the same data-structure on more than one type of component on your UI, you are going to have a real mess on your hands; you'll need to extend yet another class for each and every UI component that you render from the base-class of your record-set; I am well aware of the "cleanliness" of the of the MVC pattern (and by that what I really mean is you don't confuse your data (the Model) with your UI (the view) or the actions that take place on the data (the Controller more or less...okay not really the API should really handle that...and the Controller should just make as few calls to it as it can, telling it which view to render)) But it's certainly alot cleaner than using data-structures to render UI components! Is there any other advice I could send his way other than the example above? I understand that when you first learn OOP you go through "a stage" where you where just want to extend everything. Followed by a stage when you think that Design Patterns are the solution every single problem...which isn't entirely correct either...thanks Jeff. Is there a way that I can gently nudge this kid in the right direction? Do you have any more examples that might help explain my point to him?

    Read the article

  • refactor LINQ TO SQL custom properties that instantiate datacontext

    - by Thiago Silva
    I am working on an existing ASP.NET MVC app that started small and has grown with time to require a good re-architecture and refactoring. One thing that I am struggling with is that we've got partial classes of the L2S entities so we could add some extra properties, but these props create a new data context and query the DB for a subset of data. This would be the equivalent to doing the following in SQL, which is not a very good way to write this query as oppsed to joins: SELECT tbl1.stuff, (SELECT nestedValue FROM tbl2 WHERE tbl2.Foo = tbl1.Bar), tbl1.moreStuff FROM tbl1 so in short here's what we've got in some of our partial entity classes: public partial class Ticket { public StatusUpdate LastStatusUpdate { get { //this static method call returns a new DataContext but needs to be refactored var ctx = OurDataContext.GetContext(); var su = Compiled_Query_GetLastUpdate(ctx, this.TicketId); return su; } } } We've got some functions that create a compiled query, but the issue is that we also have some DataLoadOptions defined in the DataContext, and because we instantiate a new datacontext for getting these nested property, we get an exception "Compiled Queries across DataContexts with different LoadOptions not supported" . The first DataContext is coming from a DataContextFactory that we implemented with the refactorings, but this second one is just hanging off the entity property getter. We're implementing the Repository pattern in the refactoring process, so we must stop doing stuff like the above. Does anyone know of a good way to address this issue?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220  | Next Page >