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  • WPF multitrigger referencing 2 other controls

    - by BrettRobi
    I have two CheckBoxes and a TextBox. I want to TextBox to have IsEnabled=False if both CheckBoxes have IsChecked=False. Can I do this with a MultiTrigger? I keep getting errors trying to use the Source property. I have it working with MultiDataTriggers as you can see below. But have two questions. 1) Is this my only choice? Can I do it with a MultiTrigger? <TextBox.Style> <Style TargetType="TextBox"> <Style.Triggers> <MultiDataTrigger> <MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=uxDmm , Path=IsChecked}" Value="False" /> <Condition Binding="{Binding ElementName=uxGpm , Path=IsChecked}" Value="False" /> </MultiDataTrigger.Conditions> <Setter Property="IsEnabled" Value="False" /> </MultiDataTrigger> </Style.Triggers> </Style> </TextBox.Style> 2) Can I do this outside of the tag? I'm not really sure where Triggers can be applied, most samples do it within Style or DataTemplates, but defining it within a Style is messing up my default look and feel for the TextBox.

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  • ASP.NET: aggregating validators in a user control

    - by orsogufo
    I am developing a web application where I would like to perform a set of validations on a certain field (an account name in the specific case). I need to check that the value is not empty, matches a certain pattern and is not already used. I tried to create a UserControl that aggregates a RequiredFieldValidator, a RegexValidator and a CustomValidator, then I created a ControlToValidate property like this: public partial class AccountNameValidator : System.Web.UI.UserControl { public string ControlToValidate { get { return ViewState["ControlToValidate"] as string; } set { ViewState["ControlToValidate"] = value; AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameRegexValidator.ControlToValidate = value; AccountNameUniqueValidator.ControlToValidate = value; } } } However, if I insert the control on a page and set ControlToValidate to some control ID, when the page loads I get an error that says Unable to find control id 'AccountName' referenced by the 'ControlToValidate' property of 'AccountNameRequiredFieldValidator', which makes me think that the controls inside my UserControl cannot resolve correctly the controls in the parent page. So, I have two questions: 1) Is it possible to have validator controls inside a UserControl validate a control in the parent page? 2) Is it correct and good practice to "aggregate" multiple validator controls in a UserControl? If not, what is the standard way to proceed?

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  • How do I expose the columns collection of GridView control that is inside a user control

    - by Christopher Edwards
    See edit. I want to be able to do this in the aspx that consumes the user control. <uc:MyControl ID="MyGrid" runat="server"> <asp:BoundField DataField="FirstColumn" HeaderText="FirstColumn" /> <asp:BoundField DataField="SecondColumn" HeaderText="SecondColumn" /> </uc> I have this code (which doesn't work). Any ideas what I am doing wrong? VB Partial Public Class MyControl Inherits UserControl <System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(GetType(DataControlFieldCollection))> _ Public Property Columns() As DataControlFieldCollection Get Return MyGridView.Columns End Get Set(ByVal value As DataControlFieldCollection) ' The Columns collection of the GridView is ReadOnly, so I rebuild it MyGridView.Columns.Clear() For Each c As DataControlField In value MyGridView.Columns.Add(c) Next End Set End Property ... End Class C# public partial class MyControl : UserControl {         [System.Web.UI.IDReferenceProperty(typeof(DataControlFieldCollection))]     public DataControlFieldCollection Columns {         get { return MyGridView.Columns; }         set {             MyGridView.Columns.Clear();             foreach (DataControlField c in value) {                 MyGridView.Columns.Add(c);             }         }     } ... } EDIT: Actually it does work, but auto complete does not work between the uc:MyControl opening and closing tags and I get compiler warnings:- Content is not allowed between the opening and closing tags for element 'MyControl'. Validation (XHTML 1.0 Transitional): Element 'columns' is not supported. Element 'BoundField' is not a known element. This can occur if there is a compilation error in the Web site, or the web.config file is missing. So I guess I need to use some sort of directive to tell the complier to expect content between the tags. Any ideas?

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  • jquery newbie: combine validate with hidding submit button.

    - by Jeffb
    I'm new a jQuery. I have gotten validate to work with my form (MVC 1.0 / C#) with this: <script type="text/javascript"> if (document.forms.length > 0) { document.forms[0].id = "PageForm"; document.forms[0].name = "PageForm"; } $(document).ready(function() { $("#PageForm").validate({ rules: { SigP: { required: true } }, messages: { SigP: "<font color='red'><b>A Sig Value is required. </b></font>" } }); }); </script> I also want to hide the Submit button to prevent twitchy mouse syndrome from causing duplicate entry before the controller completes and redirects (I'm using an GPR pattern). The following works for this purpose: <script type="text/javascript"> // // prevent double-click on submit // jQuery('input[type=submit]').click(function() { if (jQuery.data(this, 'clicked')) { return false; } else { jQuery.data(this, 'clicked', true); return true; } }); </script> However, I can't get the two to work together. Specifically, if validate fails after the Submit button is clicked (which happens given how the form works), then I can't get the form submitted again unless I do a browser refresh that resets the 'clicked' property. How can I rewrite the second method above to not set the clicked property unless the form validates? Thx.

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  • Nhibernate get collection by ICriteria

    - by Andrew Kalashnikov
    Hello, colleagues. I've got a problem at getting my entity. MApping: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <hibernate-mapping xmlns="urn:nhibernate-mapping-2.2" assembly="Clients.Core" namespace="Clients.Core.Domains"> <class name="Sales, Clients.Core" table='sales'> <id name="Id" unsaved-value="0"> <column name="id" not-null="true"/> <generator class="native"/> </id> <property name="Guid"> <column name="guid"/> </property> <set name="Accounts" table="sales_users" lazy="false"> <key column="sales_id" /> <element column="user_id" type="Int32" /> </set> </class> Domain: public class Sales : BaseDomain { ICollection<int> accounts = new List<int>(); public virtual ICollection<int> Accounts { get { return accounts; } set { accounts = value; } } public Sales() { } } I want get query such as SELECT * FROM sales s INNER JOIN sales_users su on su.sales_id=s.id WHERE su.user_id=:N How can i do this through ICriterion object? Thanks a lot.

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  • How to assign Image Uri in a custom Control.

    - by Subhen
    Hi, I want to place an image inside my custom control , so my generic.xaml looks like below: <Style TargetType="local:generic"> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="local:generic"> <Grid Background="{TemplateBinding Background}"> <Rectangle> <Rectangle.Fill> <SolidColorBrush x:Name="BackgroundBrush" Opacity="0" /> </Rectangle.Fill> </Rectangle> <TextBlock Text="{TemplateBinding Text}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" Foreground="{TemplateBinding Foreground}"/> <Image Source="{TemplateBinding Source}" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center"/> </Grid> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style> My Codebehind is as follows: public class Generic : Control { public static DependencyProperty ImageUri = DependencyProperty.Register("Source", typeof(Uri), typeof(generic), new PropertyMetadata("")); public Uri Source { get { return (Uri)GetValue(generic.ImageUri); } set { SetValue(generic.ImageUri, value); } } public generic() { this.DefaultStyleKey = typeof(generic); } } Apllication is compiling fine but while I am trying to run it throws the following exception : $exception {System.Windows.Markup.XamlParseException: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'testCstmCntrl.themes.generic' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentException: Default value type does not match type of property. Thanks, Subhen

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  • Can a WPF ComboBox display alternative text when its selection is null?

    - by Garth T Kidd
    G'day! I want my WPF ComboBox to display some alternative text when its data-bound selection is null. The view model has the expected properties: public ThingoSelectionViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { public ThingoSelectionViewModel(IProvideThingos) { this.Thingos = IProvideThingos.GetThingos(); } public ObservableCollection<Thingo> Thingos { get; set; } public Thingo SelectedThingo { get { return this.selectedThingo; } set { // set this.selectedThingo and raise the property change notification } // ... } The view has XAML binding to the view model in the expected way: <ComboBox x:Name="ComboboxDrive" SelectedItem="{Binding Path=SelectedThingo}" IsEditable="false" HorizontalAlignment="Left" MinWidth="100" IsReadOnly="false" Style="{StaticResource ComboboxStyle}" Grid.Column="1" Grid.Row="1" Margin="5" SelectedIndex="0"> <ComboBox.ItemsSource> <CompositeCollection> <ComboBoxItem IsEnabled="False">Select a thingo</ComboBoxItem> <CollectionContainer Collection="{Binding Source={StaticResource Thingos}}" /> </CompositeCollection> </ComboBox.ItemsSource> </ComboBox> The ComboBoxItem wedged into the top is a way to get an extra item at the top. It's pure chrome: the view model stays pure and simple. There's just one problem: the users want "Select a thingo" displayed whenever the ComboBox' selection is null. The users do not want a thingo selected by default. They want to see a message telling them to select a thingo. I'd like to avoid having to pollute the viewmodel with a ThingoWrapper class with a ToString method returning "Select a thingo" if its .ActualThingo property is null, wrapping each Thingo as I populate Thingos, and figuring out some way to prevent the user from selecting the nulled Thingo. Is there a way to display "Select a thingo" within the ComboBox' boundaries using pure XAML, or pure XAML and a few lines of code in the view's code-behind class?

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  • Entity Framework Multiple associations to a table causes error 3033

    - by taylonr
    I'm using EF 3.5 SP1. I have 3 tables: Pendants PendantAccessories PartsData Basically #1 and 2 are used for product selection, so #1 has a "Number of Buttons" property and other options. #2 has fields like "Cable Type" etc. The third table contains property information for all of our parts, such as what plant it's manufactured in, it's weight etc. What I'm trying to do is set up an association between #1 and #3 and also between #2 and #3. The PK in all 3 tables is the PartNumber. I set it up between #2 and 3 by going into Mapping Details and adding a Maps to PartsData and mapping the columns. Everything worked good. I then tried the same thing between #1 and 3. However, now when I compile I get "Error 3033: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 713: EntitySets 'pendants' and 'pendantAccessories' are both mapped to the table 'PartsData'. Their Primary Keys may collide." Does anyone know what I'm doing wrong here?

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  • Editing a labels text value through JavaScript in VB ASP.NET

    - by Ronnie
    I have a simple form containing two text boxes, I am attempting to apply some validation to the first text box using JavaScript. This is the first time I have attempted this and am having some trouble. I have a label beside the text box stating an error, this labels visibility property is set to False. I wish the labels visibility to turn true if the text box is empty when the user loses focus. For this I have used the onBlur option within the tags of the text box. It then calls the JavaScript function and should set the label to Visible but it does not. I have tested to see if it is entering the function by using an alert instead and that works. The problem seems to be trying to alter the visibility property of the label. Here is the portion of my code: The JavaScript: function myRegEx(frm) { if ( boxUsername.value == "" ) { invalidUser.visible = True; return false; } } The form: <asp:TextBox onblur="return myRegEx(this)" id="boxUsername" runat="server" Width="200px"></asp:TextBox> <asp:Label id="invalidUser" runat="server" visible="False" forecolor="Red" text="* Username must be alphanumeric with no special characters"></asp:Label> Any help would be brilliant.

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  • Windows Sidebar gadget - cannont access a div in Flyout DOM

    - by cyrix86
    In the main gadget html, there is a div with an onclick that calls this method in the Gadget script file: ShowFlyout = function() { System.Gadget.Flyout.show = true; var flyoutDoc = System.Gadget.Flyout.document; var mainFlyoutDiv = flyoutDoc.getElementById('divFlyout'); mainFlyoutDiv.innerHTML = "hello"; } Here is the Flyout html: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.0 Transitional//EN"> <html> <head> <title>This is a flyout</title> <link href="Css\FlyoutStyle.css" type="text/css" rel="Stylesheet" /> </head> <body> <div id="divFlyout" > </div> </body> </html> The problem is that mainFlyoutDiv is always null. When peering into the System.Gadget.Flyout.document object through the debugger, the body parameter is null - I don't think that's right. The System.Gadget.Flyout.file value is being set elsewhere when the gadget first loads. What am I doing wrong? Also, does the System.Gadget.Flyout.show property have to be true before the System.Gadget.Flyout.document property can be accessed? My ultimate goal is to open a flyout and dynamically populate it's html

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  • Hibernate ScrollableResults Do Not Return The Whole Set of Results

    - by mlaverd
    Some of the queries we run have 100'000+ results and it takes forever to load them and then send them to the client. So I'm using ScrollableResults to have a paged results feature. But we're topping at roughly 50k results (never exactly the same amount of results). I'm on an Oracle9i database, using the Oracle 10 drivers and Hibernate is configured to use the Oracle9 dialect. I tried with the latest JDBC driver (ojdbc6.jar) and the problem was reproduced. We also followed some advice and added an ordering clause, but the problem was reproduced. Here is a code snippet that illustrates what we do: Criteria crit = sess.createCriteria(ABC.class); crit.add(Restrictions.eq("property", value)); crit.setFetchSize(pageSize); crit.addOrder(Order.asc("property")); ScrollableResults sr = crit.scroll(); ... ... do{ for (Object entry : page) sess.evict(entry); //to avoid having our memory just explode out of proportion page.clear(); for (int i =0 ; i < pageSize && ! metLastRow; i++){ if (resultSet.next()) page.add(sr.get(0)); else metLastRow = true; } metLastRow = metLastRow?metLastRow:sr.isLast(); sendToClient(page); }while(!metLastRow); So, why is it that I get the result set to tell me its at the end when it should be having so much more results?

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  • COM Interop - Wait for Excel to Complete Operation

    - by roygbiv
    Hello, I am doing some COM Interop work with Excel and other Office Automation Software. A Co-Worker has mentioned to me that I need to wait for these Automation Servers to become ready after issuing a command to them. I, however, cannot see the purpose of this as don't all calls block until the automation server completes the given task? For example I would normally write: Dim o as AutomationObject = AutomationServer.CreateObject(x, y, z) o.Property ' could throw COM exception!!???? My co-worker says I need to sleep after that call because the the Automation Server could still be working on creating and initializing the object. Dim o as AutomationObject = AutomationServer.CreateObject(x, y, z) Threading.Sleep(5000) ' wait for AutomationServer to "become ready" o.Property ' could still throw COM exception!!???? The problem I have with this is that the AutomationServer calls should block until the AutomationServer finishes or completes what it was working on or at the very least it should be a loop checking if "o" is nothing, but that makes no sense because once the call returns its done! My question is, Is there any benefit to Sleeping after an AutomationServer call? Is there a method to "wait" until the AutomationServer finishes (if it does not in fact block)?

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  • Duck type testing with C# 4 for dynamic objects.

    - by Tracker1
    I'm wanting to have a simple duck typing example in C# using dynamic objects. It would seem to me, that a dynamic object should have HasValue/HasProperty/HasMethod methods with a single string parameter for the name of the value, property, or method you are looking for before trying to run against it. I'm trying to avoid try/catch blocks, and deeper reflection if possible. It just seems to be a common practice for duck typing in dynamic languages (JS, Ruby, Python etc.) that is to test for a property/method before trying to use it, then falling back to a default, or throwing a controlled exception. The example below is basically what I want to accomplish. If the methods described above don't exist, does anyone have premade extension methods for dynamic that will do this? Example: In JavaScript I can test for a method on an object fairly easily. //JavaScript function quack(duck) { if (duck && typeof duck.quack === "function") { return duck.quack(); } return null; //nothing to return, not a duck } How would I do the same in C#? //C# 4 dynamic Quack(dynamic duck) { //how do I test that the duck is not null, //and has a quack method? //if it doesn't quack, return null }

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  • Entity Framework with ASP.NET MVC. Updating entity problem

    - by Kitaly
    Hi people. I'm trying to update an entity and its related entities as well. For instance, I have a class Car with a property Category and I want to change its Category. So, I have the following methods in the Controller: public ActionResult Edit(int id) { var categories = context.Categories.ToList(); ViewData["categories"] = new SelectList(categories, "Id", "Name"); var car = context.Cars.Where(c => c.Id == id).First(); return PartialView("Form", car); } [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(Car car) { var category = context.Categories.Where(c => c.Id == car.Category.Id).First(); car.Category = category; context.UpdateCar(car); context.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } The UpdateCar method, in ObjectContext class, follows: public void UpdateCar(Car car) { var attachedCar = Cars.Where(c => c.Id == car.Id).First(); ApplyItemUpdates(attachedCar, car); } private void ApplyItemUpdates(EntityObject originalItem, EntityObject updatedItem) { try { ApplyPropertyChanges(originalItem.EntityKey.EntitySetName, updatedItem); ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(updatedItem, originalItem); } catch (InvalidOperationException ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex.ToString()); } } public void ApplyReferencePropertyChanges(IEntityWithRelationships newEntity, IEntityWithRelationships oldEntity) { foreach (var relatedEnd in oldEntity.RelationshipManager.GetAllRelatedEnds()) { var oldRef = relatedEnd as EntityReference; if (oldRef != null) { var newRef = newEntity.RelationshipManager.GetRelatedEnd(oldRef.RelationshipName, oldRef.TargetRoleName) as EntityReference; oldRef.EntityKey = newRef.EntityKey; } } } The problem is that when I set the Category property after the POST in my controller, the entity state changes to Added instead of remaining as Detached. How can I update one-to-one relationship with Entity Framework and ASP.NET MVC without setting all the properties, one by one like this post?

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  • What is the behavior of a WPF 4 ControlStoryboardAction trigger?

    - by jonathan_ou
    Hi all! I have a question that's been bugging me for a while: I have a lengthy IO operation which I invoke asynchronously, and I want my UI to show a blinking text to tell the users that the data is loading. I have an IsLoading boolean property in my ViewModel, and I used a ControlStoryboardAction to kickoff the blinking animation, which is set to repeat forever. For my ControlStoryboardAction trigger, I configured a data trigger to see if IsLoading is true, and start my storyboard if true. My problem is, when my IO operation returns, and I set IsLoading back to false, the animation continues to play. I thought once the trigger condition evaluated to false, it would stop the animation? I then added a second ControlStoryboardAction to stop the animation if IsLoading evaluted to false, but this didn't have any effect. The animation continued to play after IsLoading was false. Can anyone explain to me how trigger works in ControlStoryboardAction? In normal data triggers in WPF, once the condition evaluated to false, the property would be set back to its original state. It seems triggers in WPF actions don't work the same way? Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • Issue with CAAnimation and CALayer Transforms

    - by Brian
    I have a CALayer that I want to animate across the screen. I have created two methods: one slide open the layer and one to slide close. These both work by assigning a property to the layer's transform property. Now I want to use a CAKeyFrameAnimation to slide open the layer. I got this working so the layer slides open, but now I can't slide the layer close using my old method. I am trying to figure out why this is. Any help would be great. Code: - (id)init { if( self = [super init] ) { bIsOpen = NO; closeTransform = self.transform; openTransform = CATransform3DMakeTranslation(-235.0, 0.0, 0.0); } return self; } - (void)closeMenu { if( bIsOpen ) { self.transform = closeTransform; bIsOpen = !bIsOpen; } } - (void)openMenu { if( !bIsOpen ) { CAKeyframeAnimation *closeAnimation = [CAKeyframeAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"transform"]; closeAnimation.duration = 1.0; closeAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; closeAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; closeAnimation.values = [NSArray arrayWithObjects:[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:closeTransform],[NSValue valueWithCATransform3D:openTransform],nil]; closeAnimation.timingFunctions = [NSArray arrayWithObject:[CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionLinear]]; [self addAnimation:closeAnimation forKey:@"transform"]; bIsOpen = !bIsOpen; } }

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  • Correct method to search for AD user by email address from .NET

    - by BrianLy
    I'm having some issues with code that is intended to find a user in Active Directory by searching on their email address. I have tried 2 methods but I'm sometimes finding that the FindOne() method will not return any results on some occasions. If I look up the user in the GAL in Outlook I see the SMTP email address listed. My end goal is to confirm that the user exists in AD. I only have the email address as search criteria, so no way to use first or last name. Method 1: Using mail property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(mail=" + email + ")"; search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); Method 2: proxyAddresses property: DirectorySearcher search = new DirectorySearcher(entry); search.Filter = "(proxyAddresses=SMTP:" + email + ")"; // I've also tried with =smtp: search.PropertiesToLoad.Add("mail"); SearchResult result = search.FindOne(); I've tried changing the case of the email address input but it still does not return a result. Is there a problem here with case sensitivity? If so, what is the best way to resolve it?

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  • Strange ng-model behavior inside ng-repeat

    - by Mike Fisher
    I'm trying to build up a complex post request to run a report in my Angular app. I have a list of inputs all dynamically generated via an ng-repeat a simple version of my html looks like this. <div ng-repeat="filter in lists.filters"> <input type="checkbox" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['type']/> <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> </div> ng-repeat is looping over this array [ {name: 'Advertisers', value: 'advertisers'}, {name: 'Sizes', value: 'sizes'}, {name: 'Campaign IDs', value: 'campaigns'}, {name: 'Creative IDs', value: 'creatives'}, {name: 'Publishers', value: 'publishers'}, {name: 'Placement IDs', value: 'placements'}, {name: 'Seller Types', value: 'seller_types'}, {name: 'Impression Types', value: 'impression_types'}, {name: 'Bid Types', value: 'bid_types'}, {name: 'Seller Members', value: 'seller_members'}, {name: 'Buyer Members', value: 'buyer_members'}, {name: 'Insertion Order Ids', value: 'insertion_orders'}, {name: 'Countries', value: 'countries'}, {name: 'Site Ids', value: 'sites'}, {name: 'Sources', value: 'sources'} ]; The JSON I'm sending back needs to be structured like this: "filters": { "state": "all", "campaigns": {type:"include", values":[1,2]}, "creatives": {type:"exclude","values":[1,2]}, "publishers": {"values":[1,2]}, "placements": {type:"exclude",values":[1,2]}, "advertisers": {"values":[1,2]}, "sizes": {"values":[1,2]}, "countries": {"values":[1,2]}, "insertion_orders": {"values":[1,2]}, "sites": {"values":[1,2]}, "bid_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "impression_types": {"values":[1,2]}, "seller_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "buyer_members": {"values":[1,2]}, "sources": {"values":[1,2]} } When I do this Angular throws an error: 'Cannot set property 'values' of undefined' and 'Cannot set property 'type' of undefined' Yet if I do this (inside ng-repeat) <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]/> Or this outside of ng-repeat <input type="text" ng-model="report.options.filters[filter.value]['values']/> No errors are thrown and everything works fine. I'm positive that filter.value is defined and available on the scope even though Angular thinks it's not for some reason. I'm not quite sure what I'm doing wrong. Any help is much appreciated.

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  • How can UISearchDisplayController autorelease cause crash in a different view controller?

    - by Tofrizer
    Hi, I have two view controllers A and B. From A, I navigate to view controller B as follows: // in View Controller A // navigateToB method -(void) navigateToB { BViewController *bViewController = [[BViewController alloc] initWithNibName: @"BView" bundle:nil]; bViewController.bProperty1 = SOME_STRING_CONSTANT; bViewController.title = @"A TITLE OF A VC's CHOOSING"; [self.navigationController pushViewController: bViewController animated:YES]; [bViewController release]; //<----- releasing 0x406c1e0 } In BViewController, the property bPropery1 is defined with copy as below (note, B also contains UITableView and other properties): @property (nonatomic, copy) NSString *bProperty1; Everything appeared to work fine when navigating back and forth between A and B. That is until I added a UISearchDisplayController to the table view contained in BViewController. Now when I navigate out of B, back to A, the app crashes. Stack trace shows what looks the search display controller being autoreleased at time of crash: #0 0x009663a7 in ___forwarding___ #1 0x009426c2 in __forwarding_prep_0___ #2 0x018c8539 in -[UISearchDisplayController _destroyManagedTableView] #3 0x018c8ea4 in -[UISearchDisplayController dealloc] #4 0x00285ce5 in NSPopAutoreleasePool NSZombies shows: -[BViewController respondsToSelector:]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x406c1e0 And malloc history on this points to the bViewController already released in A's navigateToB method above: Call [2] [arg=132]: thread_a065e720 |start ... <snip> ..._sendActionsForEvents:withEvent:] | -[UIControl sendAction:to:forEvent:] | - [UIApplication sendAction:to:from:forEvent:] | -[**AViewController navigateToB**] | +[NSObject alloc] | +[NSObject allocWithZone:] | _internal_class_createInstance | _internal_class_createInstanceFromZone | calloc | malloc_zone_calloc Can someone please give me any ideas on what is happening here? In navigateToB method, once the bViewController is released (after pushViewController), that's should be it for bViewController. Nothing else even knows about it as it is local to the navigateToB method block and it has been released. When navigating from B back to A, nothing is invoked in viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear etc that will re-enter navigateToB. It looks like somehow search display controller has a reference to something in my AViewController and so as it is autoreleased it is taking this "something" down with it but I cannot understand how this is possible, especially as I'm using copy to pass data between A and B. I'm going potty over this. I'm sure this is my mistake somewhere and so I turn to you, Stack Overflow legends for any words of wisdom or advice on how to resolve this. Many Thanks.

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  • Show WPF tooltip on disabled item only

    - by DT
    Just wondering if it is possible to show a WPF on a disabled item ONLY (and not when the item is enabled). I would like to give the user a tooltip explaining why an item is currently disabled. I have an IValueConverter to invert the boolean IsEnabled property binding. But it doesn't seem to work in this situation. The tooltip is show both when the item is enabled and disabled. So is is possible to bind a tooltip.IsEnabled property exclusively to an item's own !IsEnabled? Pretty straightforward question I guess, but code example here anyway: public class BoolToOppositeBoolConverter : IValueConverter { #region IValueConverter Members public object Convert(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } public object ConvertBack(object value, Type targetType, object parameter, System.Globalization.CultureInfo culture) { if (targetType != typeof(bool)) throw new InvalidOperationException("The target must be a boolean"); return !(bool)value; } #endregion } And the binding: <TabItem Header="Tab 2" Name="tabItem2" ToolTip="Not enabled in this situation." ToolTipService.ShowOnDisabled="True" ToolTipService.IsEnabled="{Binding Path=IsEnabled, ElementName=tabItem2, Converter={StaticResource oppositeConverter}}"> <Label Content="Item content goes here" /> </TabItem> Thanks folks.

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  • First Letter Section Headers with Core Data

    - by Cory Imdieke
    I'm trying to create a list of people sorted in a tableView of sections with the first letter as the title for each section - a la Address Book. I've got it all working, though there is a bit of an issue with the sort order. Here is the way I'm doing it now: NSFetchRequest *request = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [request setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Contact" inManagedObjectContext:context]]; NSSortDescriptor *fullName = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"fullName" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:fullName, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; [fullName release]; [sortDescriptors release]; NSError *error = nil; [resultController release]; resultController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:context sectionNameKeyPath:@"firstLetter" cacheName:nil]; [resultController performFetch:&error]; [request release]; fullName is a standard property, and firstLetter is a transient property which returns - as you'd expect - the first letter of the fullName. 95% of the time, this works perfectly. The problem is the result controller expects these two "lists" (the sorted fullName list and the sorted firstLetter list) to match exactly. If I have 2 contacts like John and Jack, my fullName list would sort these as Jack, John every time but my firstLetter list might sort them as John, Jack sometimes as it's only sorting by the first letter and leaving the rest to chance. When these lists don't match up, I get a blank tableView with 0 items in it. I'm not really sure how I should go about fixing this issue, but it's very frustrating. Has anyone else run into this? What did you guys find out?

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  • WCF Service timeout in Callback

    - by Muckers Mate
    I'm trying to get to grips with WCF, in particular writing a WCF Service application with callback. I've setup the service, together with the callback contract but when the callback is called, the app is timing out. Essentially, from a client I'm setting a property within the service class. The Setter of this property, if it fails validation fires a callback and, well, this is timing out. I realise that this is probably to it not being an Asynchronous calback, but can someone please show me how to resolve this? Thanks // The call back (client-side) interface public interface ISAPUploadServiceReply { [OperationContract(IsOneWay = true)] void Reply(int stateCode); } // The Upload Service interface [ServiceContract(CallbackContract = typeof(ISAPUploadServiceReply))] public interface ISAPUploadService { int ServerState { [OperationContract] get; [OperationContract(IsOneWay=true)] set; And the implementation... public int ServerState { get { return serverState; } set { if (InvalidState(Value)) { var to = OperationContext.Current.GetCallbackChannel<ISAPUploadServiceReply>(); to.Reply(eInvalidState); } else serverState = value; } }

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  • How to serialize object containing NSData?

    - by AO
    I'm trying to serialize an object containing a number of data fields...where one of the fields is of datatype NSData which won't serialize. I've followed instructions at http://www.isolated.se but my code (see below) results in the error "[NSConcreteData data]: unrecognized selector sent to instance...". How do I serialize my object? Header file: @interface Donkey : NSObject<NSCoding> { NSString* s; NSData* d; } @property (nonatomic, retain) NSString* s; @property (nonatomic, retain) NSData* d; - (NSData*) serialize; @end Implementation file: @implementation Donkey @synthesize s, d; static NSString* const KEY_S = @"string"; static NSString* const KEY_D = @"data"; - (void) encodeWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder { [coder encodeObject:self.s forKey:KEY_S]; [coder encodeObject:self.d forKey:KEY_D]; } - (id) initWithCoder:(NSCoder*)coder; { if(self = [super init]) { self.s = [coder decodeObjectForKey:KEY_STRING]; self.d [coder decodeObjectForKey:KEY_DATA]; } return self; } - (NSData*) serialize { return [NSKeyedArchiver archivedDataWithRootObject:self]; } @end

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  • Application connection with database persist after sucessfull transaction also.

    - by anupam3m
    Hi , I am using Spring.Data.NHibernate12 on my database level.my application connection with database is not getting released. Underneath given is Dataconfiguration.xml < ?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ? < objects xmlns="http://www.springframework.net" xmlns:db="http://www.springframework.net/database" < object id="AuditLogger" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit.AuditLogger, Risco.Rsp.Ac.Audit" singleton="false" < property name="CacheSettings" ref="CacheSettings"/ < /object < object id="CacheSettings" type="Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities.UpdateEntityCacheHelper, Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMgmt.Utilities" singleton="false"/ < object type="Spring.Objects.Factory.Config.PropertyPlaceholderConfigurer, Spring.Core" < <property name="ConfigSections" value="databaseSettings"/> < < db:provider id="AMACDbProvider" provider="OracleClient-2.0" connectionString="Data Source=RISCODEVDB;User ID=amsbvt; Password=amsuser1234;"/ Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.Mapping Risco.Rsp.Ac.Logging.Appenders Risco.Rsp.Ac.AMAC.CacheMappings --

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  • Custom ConfigurationSection: CallbackValidator called with empty string

    - by Paolo Tedesco
    I am writing a custom configuration section, and I would like to validate a configuration property with a callback, like in this example: using System; using System.Configuration; class CustomSection : ConfigurationSection { [ConfigurationProperty("stringValue", IsRequired = false)] [CallbackValidator(Type = typeof(CustomSection), CallbackMethodName = "ValidateString")] public string StringValue { get { return (string)this["stringValue"]; } set { this["stringValue"] = value; } } public static void ValidateString(object value) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty((string)value)) { throw new ArgumentException("string must not be empty."); } } } class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { CustomSection cfg = (CustomSection)ConfigurationManager.GetSection("customSection"); Console.WriteLine(cfg.StringValue); } } And my App.config file looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8" ?> <configuration> <configSections> <section name="customSection" type="CustomSection, config-section"/> </configSections> <customSection stringValue="lorem ipsum"/> </configuration> My problem is that when the ValidateString function is called, the value parameter is always an empty string, and therefore the validation fails. If i just remove the validator, the string value is correctly initialized to the value in the configuration file. What am I missing? EDIT I discovered that actually the validation function is being called twice: the first time with the default value of the property, which is an empty string if nothing is specified, the second time with the real value read from the configuration file. Is there a way to modify this behavior?

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