Search Results

Search found 12376 results on 496 pages for 'active pattern'.

Page 214/496 | < Previous Page | 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221  | Next Page >

  • Changing FileNames using RegEx and Recursion

    - by yeahumok
    Hello I'm trying to rename files that my program lists as having "illegal characters" for a SharePoint file importation. The illegal characters I am referring to are: ~ # % & * {} / \ | : < ? - "" What i'm trying to do is recurse through the drive, gather up a list of filenames and then through Regular Expressions, pick out file names from a List and try to replace the invalid characters in the actual filenames themselves. Anybody have any idea how to do this? So far i have this: (please remember, i'm a complete n00b to this stuff) class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { string[] files = Directory.GetFiles(@"C:\Documents and Settings\bob.smith\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing", "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); foreach (string file in files) { Console.Write(file + "\r\n"); } Console.WriteLine("Press any key to continue..."); Console.ReadKey(true); string pattern = " *[\\~#%&*{}/:<>?|\"-]+ *"; string replacement = " "; Regex regEx = new Regex(pattern); string[] fileDrive = Directory.GetFiles(@"C:\Documents and Settings\bob.smith\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing", "*.*", SearchOption.AllDirectories); StreamWriter sw = new StreamWriter(@"C:\Documents and Settings\bob.smith\Desktop\~Test Folder for [SharePoint] %testing\File_Renames.txt"); foreach(string fileNames in fileDrive) { string sanitized = regEx.Replace(fileNames, replacement); sw.Write(sanitized + "\r\n"); } sw.Close(); } } So what i need to figure out is how to recursively search for these invalid chars, replace them in the actual filename itself. Anybody have any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Django deployment - can't import app.urls

    - by hora
    I just moved a django project to a deployment server from my dev server, and I'm having some issues deploying it. My apache config is as follows: <Location "/"> Order allow,deny Allow from all SetHandler python-program PythonHandler django.core.handlers.modpython SetEnv DJANGO_SETTINGS_MODULE project.settings PythonDebug On PythonPath "['/home/django/'] + sys.path" </Location> Django does work, since it renders the Django debug views, but I get the following error: ImportError at / No module named app.urls And here is all the information Django gives me: Request Method: GET Request URL: http://myserver.com/ Django Version: 1.1.1 Python Version: 2.6.5 Installed Applications: ['django.contrib.auth', 'django.contrib.contenttypes', 'django.contrib.sessions', 'django.contrib.sites', 'django.contrib.admin', 'django.contrib.admindocs', 'project.app'] Installed Middleware: ('django.middleware.common.CommonMiddleware', 'django.contrib.sessions.middleware.SessionMiddleware', 'django.contrib.auth.middleware.AuthenticationMiddleware') Traceback: File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/handlers/base.py" in get_response 83. request.path_info) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in resolve 218. sub_match = pattern.resolve(new_path) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in resolve 216. for pattern in self.url_patterns: File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in _get_url_patterns 245. patterns = getattr(self.urlconf_module, "urlpatterns", self.urlconf_module) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/core/urlresolvers.py" in _get_urlconf_module 240. self._urlconf_module = import_module(self.urlconf_name) File "/usr/lib64/python2.6/site-packages/django/utils/importlib.py" in import_module 35. __import__(name) Exception Type: ImportError at / Exception Value: No module named app.urls Any ideas as to why I get an import error?

    Read the article

  • Perl Imager::Screenshot not doing screenshot with default parameters

    - by Grigor
    I have the following code: use Imager::Screenshot 'screenshot'; my $img = screenshot(hwnd => 'active', left => 450, right => 200, top => 50, bottom => 50); $img->write(file => 'screenshot.png', type => 'png' ) || print "Failed: ", $img->{ERRSTR} , "\n"; it returns: "Can't call method "write" on undefined value at line 3" but when I do: use Imager::Screenshot 'screenshot'; my $img = screenshot(hwnd => 'active', left => 100, right => 300, top => 100, bottom => 300); $img->write(file => 'screenshot.png', type => 'png' ) || print "Failed: ", $img->{ERRSTR} , "\n"; it does take a screenshot. Why would the left, right, top and bottom values matter here?

    Read the article

  • Question about functional OOP style in JavaScript

    - by valums
    I prefer to use functional OOP style for my code (similar to the module pattern) because it helps me to avoid the "new" keyword and all problems with the scope of "this" keyword in callbacks. But I've run into a few minor issues with it. I would like to use the following code to create a class. namespace.myClass = function(){ var self = {}, somePrivateVar1; // initialization code that would call // private or public methods privateMethod(); self.publicMethod(); // sorry, error here function privateMethod(){} self.publicMethod = function(){}; return self; } The problem is that I can't call public methods from my initialization code, as these functions are not defined yet. The obvious solution would be to create an init method, and call it before "return self" line. But maybe you know a more elegant solution? Also, how do you usually handle inheritance with this pattern? I use the following code, butI would like to hear your ideas and suggestions. namespace.myClass2 = function(){ var self = namespace.parentClass(), somePrivateVar1; var superMethod = self.someMethod; self.someMethod = function(){ // example shows how to overwrite parent methods superMethod(); }; return self; } Edit. For those who asked what are the reasons for choosing this style of OOP, you can look into following questions: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1557386/prototypal-vs-functional-oop-in-javascript http://stackoverflow.com/questions/383402/is-javascript-s-new-keyword-considered-harmful

    Read the article

  • How do I extract HTML content using Regex in PHP

    - by gAMBOOKa
    I know, i know... regex is not the best way to extract HTML text. But I need to extract article text from a lot of pages, I can store regexes in the database for each website. I'm not sure how XML parsers would work with multiple websites. You'd need a separate function for each website. In any case, I don't know much about regexes, so bear with me. I've got an HTML page in a format similar to this <html> <head>...</head> <body> <div class=nav>...</div><p id="someshit" /> <div class=body>....</div> <div class=footer>...</div> </body> I need to extract the contents of the body class container. I tried this. $pattern = "/<div class=\"body\">\(.*?\)<\/div>/sui" $text = $htmlPageAsIs; if (preg_match($pattern, $text, $matches)) echo "MATCHED!"; else echo "Sorry gambooka, but your text is in another castle."; What am I doing wrong? My text ends up in another castle.

    Read the article

  • Why can't Doctrine retrieve my model data?

    - by scottm
    So, I'm trying to use Doctrine to retrieve some data. I have some basic code like this: $conn = Doctrine_Manager::connection(CONNECTION_STRING); $site = Doctrine_Core::getTable('Site')->find('00024'); echo $site->SiteName; However, this keeps throwing a SQL error that 'column siteid does not exist'. When I look at the exception the SQL query is this (you can see the error is that the inner_tbl alias for siteid is set to s__siteid, so querying inner_tabl.siteid is what's broken): SELECT TOP 1 [inner_tbl].[siteid] AS [s__siteid] FROM (SELECT TOP 1 [s].[siteid] AS [s__siteid], [s].[name] AS [s__name], [s].[address] AS [s__address], [s].[city] AS [s__city], [s].[zip] AS [s__zip], [s].[state] AS [s__state], [s].[region] AS [s__region], [s].[callprocessor] AS [s__callprocessor], [s].[active] AS [s__active], [s].[dateadded] AS [s__dateadded] FROM [Sites] [s] WHERE ([s].[siteid] = '00024') ) AS [inner_tbl] Why is the query being generated this way? Could it be the way the Yaml schema is laid out? Site: connection: 0 tableName: Sites columns: siteid: type: string(5) fixed: true unsigned: false primary: true autoincrement: false name: type: string(300) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false address: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: false primary: false autoincrement: false city: type: string(100) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: false primary: false autoincrement: false zip: type: string(5) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: false primary: false autoincrement: false state: type: string(2) fixed: true unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false region: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true default: (5) primary: false autoincrement: false callprocessor: type: integer(4) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false active: type: integer(1) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true primary: false autoincrement: false dateadded: type: timestamp(16) fixed: false unsigned: false notnull: true default: (getdate()) primary: false autoincrement: false

    Read the article

  • Using LINQ in generic collections

    - by Hugo S Ferreira
    Hi, Please consider the following snippet from an implementation of the Interpreter pattern: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<string>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } What about if I want to use the same function for integers? public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<string>; if (list != null) return list.FirstOrDefault(); var list = ctx as IEnumerable<int>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } What I wanted was something like: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } But Linq doesn't act on IEnumerables. Instead, to get to this solution, I would be forced to write something like: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable; if (list != null) foreach(var i in list) { yield return i; return; } return null; } Or use a generic method: public override T Execute<T>(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<T>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } Which would break the Interpreter pattern (as it was implemented in this system). Covariance would also fail (at least in C#3), though would it work, it would be the exact behavior I wanted: public override object Execute(Interpreter interpreter, object ctx) { var list = ctx as IEnumerable<object>; return (list != null) ? list.FirstOrDefault() : null; } So, my question is: what's the best way to achieve the intended behavior? Thanks :-)

    Read the article

  • Maintain order of messages via proxies to app servers

    - by David Turner
    Hi, I am receiving messages from a 3rd party via a http post, and it is important that the order the messages hit our infrastructure is maintained through the load balancers and proxies until it hits our application server. Quick Diagram. (proxies in place due to security requirements.) [ACE load balancer] - [2 proxies] - [Application Servers] or maybe [ACE load balancer] - [2 proxies] - [ACE load balancer] - [Application Servers] My idea was that I would setup the load balancers in active-passive mode, to force all messages to use one proxy, and then both the proxies would hit a second load balancer that would be configured in active passive to hit one application server. Whilst the above is not ideal, it does give me resilience, and once the message is in my app servers, I enter a stateless world, and load balance across both nodes of my cluster. However, I am concerned that even a single proxy could send messages out of order, perhaps if 2 messages are recived very close together, message 2 might get processed faster than message 1. Is this possible? Likely? Is there a simple open source proxy (MOD_PROXY?) that can be easily configured to just pass messages through it, and to guarantee to send the messages through in the order they are received. If so which, and finally links to how I should configure it would be great. In fact any links to articles around avoiding "out of order" messages using hardware would be gratefully received. Thanks, ps for those that are interested, the app is a java spring integration application currently on a appliation server.

    Read the article

  • How to create an Universal Binary for iTunes Connect Distribution?

    - by balexandre
    I created an app that was rejected because Apple say that my App was not showing the correct iPad window and it was showing the same iPhone screen but top left aligned. Running on simulator, I get my App to show exactly what it should, a big iPad View. my app as Apple referees that is showing on device: my app running the simulator (50% zoom only): my code in the Application Delegate is the one I published before - (BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions { // The default have the line below, let us comment it //MainViewController *aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; // Our main controller MainViewController *aController = nil; // Is this OS 3.2.0+ ? #if __IPHONE_OS_VERSION_MAX_ALLOWED >= 30200 if (UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPad) // It's an iPad, let's set the MainView to our MainView-iPad aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView-iPad" bundle:nil]; else // This is a 3.2.0+ but not an iPad (for future, when iPhone/iPod Touch runs with same OS than iPad) aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; #else // It's an iPhone/iPod Touch (OS < 3.2.0) aController = [[MainViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"MainView" bundle:nil]; #endif // Let's continue our default code self.mainViewController = aController; [aController release]; mainViewController.view.frame = [UIScreen mainScreen].applicationFrame; [window addSubview:[mainViewController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible]; return YES; } on my target info I have iPhone/iPad My question is, how should I build the app? Use Base SDK iPhone Simulator 3.1.3 iPhone Simulator 3.2 my Active Configuration is Distribution and Active Architecture is arm6 Can anyone that already published app into iTunes Connect explain me the settings? P.S. I followed the Developer Guideline on Building and Installing your Development Application that is found on Creating and Downloading Development Provisioning Profiles but does not say anything regarding this, as I did exactly and the app was rejected.

    Read the article

  • Authentication Error 401.2

    - by priya2010
    I have an application buit partially in classic asp and in c#. The authentication used as per the config file is windows. This is perfectly working. Now I have to authenticate the users against active directory. (ie. if any AD users requesting my application, it should authenticate the user (on login page load) and redirect to the application home page instead of showing login page) The login page is an asp page and I created an aspx page where the login.asp page will be redirected during page load to autheticate with Active Directory. I hav e disabled anonymous access in IIS and currently used only Integrated Windows Authentication. Also given permission to "Authenticated Users" in Permissions. While trying to access the login.asp page I am getting the following error. You do not have permission to view this directory or page using the credentials that you supplied because your Web browser is sending a WWW-Authenticate header field that the Web server is not configured to accept. Please try the following: Contact the Web site administrator if you believe you should be able to view this directory or page. Click the Refresh button to try again with different credentials. HTTP Error 401.2 - Unauthorized: Access is denied due to server configuration. Internet Information Services (IIS) Kindly help me to fix this issue. Thanks, Priya

    Read the article

  • Get the parent id..

    - by tixrus
    I have a bunch of elements like the following: <div class="droppableP" id="s-NSW" style="width:78px; height:63px; position: absolute; top: 223px; left: 532px;"> </div> They all have class droppableP but different id's obviously and I would like to factor the code in this script I am hacking on. The original script just has a specific selector for each of one of these divs, but the code is all alike except for the id it does things to, which is either the id of the parent or another div with a name that's related to it. Here is the original code specifically for this div: $("#s-NSW > .sensible").droppable( { accept : "#i-NSW", tolerance : 'intersect', activeClass : 'droppable-active', hoverClass : 'droppable-hover', drop : function() { $('#s-NSW').addClass('s-NSW'); $('#s-NSW').addClass('encastrada'); //can't move any more.. $('#i-NSW').remove(); $('#s-NSW').animate( { opacity: 0.25 },200, 'linear'); checkWin(); } }); Here is how I would like to factor so the same code can do all of them and I will eventually do chaining as well and maybe get rid of the inline styles but here is my first go: $(".droppableP > .sensible").droppable( { accept : "#i" + $(this).parent().attr('id').substring(2), tolerance : 'intersect', activeClass : 'droppable-active', hoverClass : 'droppable-hover', drop : function() { $(this).parent().addClass($(this).parent().attr('id')); $(this).parent().addClass('encastrada'); $("#i" + ($this).parent().attr('id').substring(2)).remove(); $(this).parent().animate( { opacity: 0.25 },200, 'linear'); checkWin(); } }); The error I get is $(this).parent().attr("id") is undefined Many thanks. I have browsed related questions the one I understand that's closest to mine, turns out they didn't need parent function at all. I'm kind of a noob so please don't yell at me too hard if this is a stupid question.

    Read the article

  • Groovlet not working in GWT project, container : embedded Jetty in google plugin

    - by user325284
    Hi, I am working on a GWT application which uses GWT-RPC. I just made a test groovlet to see if it worked, but ran into some problems here's my groovlet package groovy.servlet; print "testing the groovlet"; Every tutorial said we don't need to subclass anything, and just a simple script would act as a servlet. my web.xml looks like this - <!-- groovy --> <servlet> <servlet-name>testGroovy</servlet-name> <servlet-class>groovy.servlet.testGroovy</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>testGroovy</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.groovy</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping When I Run as - web application, i get the following error from jetty : [WARN] failed testGroovy javax.servlet.UnavailableException: Servlet class groovy.servlet.testGroovy is not a javax.servlet.Servlet at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHolder.checkServletType(ServletHolder.java:377) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHolder.doStart(ServletHolder.java:234) at org.mortbay.component.AbstractLifeCycle.start(AbstractLifeCycle.java:39) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.ServletHandler.initialize(ServletHandler.java:616) at org.mortbay.jetty.servlet.Context.startContext(Context.java:140) at org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext.startContext(WebAppContext.java:1220) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.ContextHandler.doStart(ContextHandler.java:513) at org.mortbay.jetty.webapp.WebAppContext.doStart(WebAppContext.java:448) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.jetty.JettyLauncher$WebAppContextWithReload.doStart(JettyLauncher.java:447) at org.mortbay.component.AbstractLifeCycle.start(AbstractLifeCycle.java:39) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.HandlerWrapper.doStart(HandlerWrapper.java:130) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.RequestLogHandler.doStart(RequestLogHandler.java:115) at org.mortbay.component.AbstractLifeCycle.start(AbstractLifeCycle.java:39) at org.mortbay.jetty.handler.HandlerWrapper.doStart(HandlerWrapper.java:130) at org.mortbay.jetty.Server.doStart(Server.java:222) at org.mortbay.component.AbstractLifeCycle.start(AbstractLifeCycle.java:39) at com.google.gwt.dev.shell.jetty.JettyLauncher.start(JettyLauncher.java:543) at com.google.gwt.dev.DevMode.doStartUpServer(DevMode.java:421) at com.google.gwt.dev.DevModeBase.startUp(DevModeBase.java:1035) at com.google.gwt.dev.DevModeBase.run(DevModeBase.java:783) at com.google.gwt.dev.DevMode.main(DevMode.java:275) What did I miss ?

    Read the article

  • thread reaches end but isn't removed

    - by pstanton
    I create a bunch of threads to do some processing: new Thread("upd-" + id){ @Override public void run(){ try{ doSomething(); } catch (Throwable e){ LOG.error("error", e); } finally{ LOG.debug("thread death"); } } }.start(); I know i should be using a threadPool but i need to understand the following problem before i change it: I'm using eclipse's debugger and looking at the threads in the debug pane which lists active threads. Many of them complete as you would expect, and are removed from the debug pane, however some seem to stay in the list of active threads even though the log shows the "thread death" entry for these. When i attempt to debug these threads, they either do not pause for debugging or show an error dialog: "A timeout occurred while retrieving stack frames for thread: upd-...". there is some synchronization going on within the doSomething() call but i'm fairly sure it's ok and since the "thread death" log is being called i'm assuming these threads aren't deadlocked in that method. i don't do any Thread.join()s, however i do call a third party API but doubt they do either. Can anyone think of another reason these threads are lingering? Thanks. EDIT: I created this test to check the Garbage Collection theory: Thread thread = new Thread("!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!") { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("running"); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(5000); System.out.println("finished"); // <-- thread removed from list here } }; thread.start(); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); System.out.println(thread.isAlive()); // <-- thread already removed from list but hasn't been GC'd ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); this proves that it is nothing to do with garbage collection as eclipse removes the thread from the thread list as soon as it completes and isn't waiting for the object to be de-referenced/GC'd.

    Read the article

  • Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

    - by bleeckerj
    I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

    Read the article

  • Groovlet + Tomcat: "unable to resolve class" when importing libraries

    - by Rob Hruska
    I'm having some trouble running a groovy servlet (groovlet) in tomcat that imports a library class. When I don't import anything the groovlet works correctly, but if I do import something that I expect to be on the classpath (I can import the same class successfully in a regular servlet), I see the following error: groovy.util.ScriptException: Could not parse scriptName: /MyGroovlet.groovy java.lang.RuntimeException: groovy.util.ScriptException: Could not parse scriptName: /MyGroovlet.groovy at groovy.servlet.GroovyServlet$1.call(GroovyServlet.java:123) ... Caused by: org.codehaus.groovy.control.MultipleCompilationErrorsException: startup failed, /MyGroovlet.groovy: 1: unable to resolve class com.mycompany.mypackage.MyLibraryClass @ line 1, column 1. The jar containing MyLibraryClass is in shared/lib, which is loaded by tomcat by the following in catalina.properties: shared.loader=...,${catalina.base}/shared/lib/*.jar,... My groovlets are mapped as described in the user guide in my application's web.xml: <servlet> <servlet-name>GroovyServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>groovy.servlet.GroovyServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>GroovyServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>*.groovy</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> And here's the code for the groovlet, MyGroovlet.groovy: import com.mycompany.mypackage.MyLibraryClass MyLibraryClass.someStaticMethod() My groovlet is deployed to WEB-INF/groovy/MyGroovlet.groovy, per the GroovyServlet API. When I visit http://localhost:8080/myapplication/MyGroovlet.groovy, the error described previously is written to my application logs. Is there some way that I need to explicitly declare the runtime classpath for GroovyServlet? I've tried moving the library jar to several places, including WEB-INF/lib and moving the actual MyLibraryClass.class file to WEB-INF/classes, but with no luck.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC and NHibernate coupling

    - by Ben
    I have just started learning NHibernate. Over the past few months I have been using IoC / DI (structuremap) and the repository pattern and it has made my applications much more loosely coupled and easier to test. When switching my persistence layer to NHibernate I decided to stick with my repositories. Currently I am creating a new session on each method call but of course this means that I can not benefit from lazy loading. Therefore I wish to implement session-per-request but in doing so this will make my web project dependent on NHibernate (perhaps this is not such a bad thing?). I was planning to inject ISession into my repositories and create and dispose sessions on beginrequest/endrequest events (see http://ayende.com/Blog/archive/2009/08/05/do-you-need-a-framework.aspx) Is this a good approach? Presumably I cannot use session-per-request without having a reference to NHibernate in my web project? Having the web project dependent on NHibernate prompts my next (few) questions - why even bother with the repository? Since my web app is calling services that talk to the repositories, why not ditch the repositories and just add my NHibernate persistance code inside the services? And finally, is there really any need to split out into so many projects. Is a web project and an infrastructure project sufficient? I realise that I have veered off a bit from my original question but it seems that everyone seems to have their own opinion on these topics. Some people use the repository pattern with NHibernate, some don't. Some people stick their mapping files with the related classes, others have a separate project for this. Many thanks, Ben

    Read the article

  • GWT, MVP, and UIBinding - How to get the best of all worlds

    - by Stephane Grenier
    With MVP, you normally bind the View (UI) with the Presenter in the Presenter. However with the latest version of GWT, especially with UIBinding, you can do the following in the View: @UiHandler("loginButton") void onAboutClicked(ClickEvent event) { // my login code } Which basically exchanges a lot of anonymous inner class code for some quick annotation code. Very nice!! The problem is that this code is in the view and not the presenter... So I thought maybe: @UiHandler("loginButton") void onAboutClicked(ClickEvent event) { myPresenter.onAboutClicked(...); } But there are several problems with this approach. The most important, you blur the lines between View and Presenter. Who does which binding, in some cases it's the View, in others it's the presenter (binding to events not in your current view but that need to be attached - for example a system wide update event). You still get the benefit of being able to unit test your presenter, but at what cost. The responsibilities are messy now. For example the binding is sometimes in the View and others times in the Presenter level. I can see the code falling into all kinds of chaos with time. I also thought of extending the Presenter to the View, so that you could do this in the View. The problem here is that you lose the Presenter's ability to run standard unit tests! That's a major issue. That and the lines again become blurred. So my question, does anyone have a good method of taking advantage of the annotation from UIBinding within the MVP pattern without blurring the lines and losing the advantages of the MVP pattern?

    Read the article

  • How do you configure jax-ws to work with Spring using jax-ws commons?

    - by LES2
    In web.xml I have the following: <servlet> <description>JAX-WS endpoint - EARM</description> <display-name>jaxws-servlet</display-name> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>jaxws-servlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/webServices/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> In my application context I have the following definitions: <bean id="helloService" class="com.foo.HelloServiceImpl"> <property name="regularService" ref="regularService" /> </bean> <wss:binding url="/webServices/helloService" service="#helloService" /> I get a NullPointerException when trying to access the WSDL: java.lang.NullPointerException at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapter.<init>(HttpAdapter.java:145) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapter.<init>(ServletAdapter.java:76) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:5 0) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.ServletAdapterList.createHttpAdapter(ServletAdapterList.java:4 7) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.HttpAdapterList.createAdapter(HttpAdapterList.java:73) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.SpringBinding.create(SpringBinding.java:24) at com.sun.xml.ws.transport.http.servlet.WSSpringServlet.init(WSSpringServlet.java:46) Strange ... appears to be a configuration error but the darn thing just dies with a NullPointerException!!!!!!!! No logging is provided. Deployed in Resin.

    Read the article

  • Basic Tomcat Servlet error.

    - by ajay
    package mypackage; import java.io.*; import javax.servlet.http.*; import javax.servlet.*; public class Hello extends HttpServlet { public void doGet (HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse res) throws ServletException, IOException { PrintWriter out = res.getWriter(); out.println("Hello, world!"); out.close(); } } web.xml file is as follows: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="ISO-8859-1"?> <web-app xmlns="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xsi:schemaLocation="http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee http://java.sun.com/xml/ns/j2ee/web-app_2_4.xsd" version="2.4"> <display-name>Hello, World Application</display-name> <description> This is a simple web application with a source code organization based on the recommendations of the Application Developer's Guide. </description> <servlet> <servlet-name>HelloServlet</servlet-name> <servlet-class>mypackage.Hello</servlet-class> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>HelloServlet</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/hello</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> </web-app> I am then doing ant all , ant reload and also /etc/init.d/tomcat restart But I get this error on browser: HTTP Status 404 - /hello/ type Status report message /hello/ description The requested resource (/hello/) is not available. Apache Tomcat/6.0.26 What could be wrong?

    Read the article

  • How can I serialize and communicate ActiveRecord instances across identical Rails apps?

    - by Blaine LaFreniere
    The main idea is that I have several worker instances of a Rails app, and then a main aggregate I want to do something like this with the following pseudo pseudo-code posts = Post.all.to_json( :include => { :comments => { :include => :blah } }) # send data to another, identical, exactly the same Rails app # ... # Fast forward to the separate but identical Rails app: # ... # remote_posts is the posts results from the first Rails app posts = JSON.parse(remote_posts) posts.each do |post| p = Post.new p = post p.save end I'm shying away from Active Resource because I have thousands of records to create, which would mean thousands of requests for each record. Unless there is a way to do it all in one request with Active Resource that is simple, I'd like to avoid it. Format doesn't matter. Whatever makes it convenient. The IDs don't need to be sent, because the other app will just be creating records and assigning new IDs in the "aggregate" system. The hierarchy would need to be preserved (E.g. "Hey other Rails app, I have genres, and each genre has an artist, and each artist has an album, and each album has songs" etc.)

    Read the article

  • Is it possible that a single-threaded program is executed simultaneously on more than one CPU core?

    - by Wolfgang Plaschg
    When I run a single-threaded program that i have written on my quad core Intel i can see in the Windows Task Manager that actually all four cores of my CPU are more or less active. One core is more active than the other three, but there is also activity on those. There's no other program (besided the OS kernel of course) running that would be plausible for that activitiy. And when I close my program all activity an all cores drops down to nearly zero. All is left is a little "noise" on the cores, so I'm pretty sure all the visible activity comes directly or indirectly (like invoking system routines) from my program. Is it possible that the OS or the cores themselves try to balance some code or execution on all four cores, even it's not a multithreaded program? Do you have any links that documents this technique? Some infos to the program: It's a console app written in Qt, the Task Manager states that only one thread is running. Maybe Qt uses threads, but I don't use signals or slots, nor any GUI. Link to Task Manager screenshot: http://img97.imageshack.us/img97/6403/taskmanager.png This question is language agnostic and not tied to Qt/C++, i just want to know if Windows or Intel do to balance also single-threaded code on all cores. If they do, how does this technique work? All I can think of is, that kernel routines like reading from disk etc. is scheduled on all cores, but this won't improve performance significantly since the code still has to run synchronous to the kernel api calls. EDIT Do you know any tools to do a better analysis of single and/or multi-threaded programs than the poor Windows Task Manager?

    Read the article

  • jQuery ui Accordion degrades in IE6 or IE7, but is working in IE8

    - by cfree
    There are two accordions on my page, with custom accordion CSS in another file, differentiated by class and ID names so as not to conflict with each other. The accordions don't show up at all, they just degrade to showing all the content at once, as if all the accordion styling is gone. The accordions are both called around the middle of the page, and there's no difference if they are loaded with $(document).ready. What should I check for in the CSS files? There are no inline-block uses. I am using jQuery 1.3.2.min and jQuery ui 1.7.2, so I'm assuming the autoHeight set to false won't make a difference... This is being used inside a Symfony-based site. Works fine in FF, IE8, Chrome. Not so much in IE6, IE7/IE8 compatibility mode. $(function() { $("#accordion").accordion({ active: false, autoHeight: false, collapsible: true, icons: { 'header': 'ui-icon-carat-1-e', 'headerSelected': 'ui-icon-carat-1-s' }, }); $(".links").accordion({ active: false, autoHeight: false, collapsible: true }); });

    Read the article

  • Programatic re-evalutation of MVVM command's "can execute" state

    - by dzs
    Hello! I'm writing a WPF application using the MVVM pattern, based on the following article: WPF Apps With The Model-View-ViewModel Design Pattern I have two buttons on my View with the buttons' "Command" property bound (with data binding) to a given instance of the RelayCommand class (see "Figure 3 The RelayCommand Class" from the article above). The RelayCommand class has support for checking whether the given command can be executed. WPF automatically disables buttons whose command cannot be executed. Each of my commands (in the ViewModel class) start a background operation, and the command cannot be executed again until the background operation is finished. The RelayCommand instances have information whether the background operation is still working or it is finished. My problem is the following: after pressing the any of the buttons, the buttons automaticaly go disabled (which is OK) because the background operation started and the command cannot be executed until it is finished, but after the operation had finished, the buttons don't go enabled automatically because their command's "can be executed" predicate is not automatically reevaluated. The reevaluation can be manually triggered by having the application loose and regain focus (by pressing ALT+TAB). After doing this trick, the buttons get enabled once again. How can I programatically reevaluate the buttons' command's "can execute" state?

    Read the article

  • MS Access form_current() firing multiple times

    - by Eric G
    I have a form with two subforms (on separate tab pages). It's an MDB project in Access 2003. When it initially opens, Form_Current on the active subform fires once, as it should. But when you move to another record (ie. from the main form), it fires Form_Current on the active subform 4 times. Then subsequent record-moves result in Form_Current firing 2 times. This is a pain, because the subforms have a lot of fields that get moved and/or hidden and so it jumps around for every Form_Current, not to mention being slow. I am opening the form with a filter via DoCmd.OpenForm (actually it sends the filter in via OpenArgs). FilterOn is only set once, in Form_Open on the main form, never in the subforms. Form_Current is not called explicitly anywhere else in the code. When I look at the call stack when Form_Current fires moving the first time, it looks like: my_subform.Form_Current [<Debug Window>] my_subform.Form_Current So it seems like something in Form_Current is triggering another Form_Current event. But only on the first record move. The code in Form_Current is somewhat complex, involving custom classes and event callbacks, but generally does not touch the table data. The only thing I can think might be triggering a Form_Current is that it checks OldValue on form controls - could this be causing it? Or anything else come to mind? Thanks. Eric

    Read the article

  • how to keep a nativewindow on top

    - by Freddy Rios
    I need to keep a NativeWindow I am creating on top of the main window of the application. Currently I am using alwaysInFront = true, which is not limited to the windows in the application. I can successfully synchronize the minimize/restore/move/resize actions, so the top window behaves appropriately in those cases. Even though using this option has the drawback that if I alt-tab to other application the window goes on top of the other application. Because of the above I am trying to get it to work without using the alwaysInFront. I have tried using orderInFrontOf and orderToFront, which gets it in place but when I click an area in the main window the top one becomes hidden i.e. air makes it the top one. I have tried capturing activate/deactivate events but it only happens on the first click, so on the second click the top window becomes hidden again. I also tried making the top window active when the main one becomes active, but that causes the main one to loose focus and I can't click on anything. Ps. I am doing this to improve the behavior of a HTMLOverlay I am using - see http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1044927/flex-air-htmlloader-blank-pop-up-window-when-flash-content-is-loaded/1077738#1077738

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221  | Next Page >