Search Results

Search found 25418 results on 1017 pages for 'back ache'.

Page 214/1017 | < Previous Page | 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221  | Next Page >

• Encode and Decode using UTF-8 in iphone

  - by Ekra

  Hi friends, I wanted an example were in I can encode and then decode the same string using UTF-8. Encode and then Decode means I want to implement the method in 2 area were one can encode it and other is able to decode it. I have seen the API but I didnt get much success:- StringWithCString:encoding: stringWithUTF8String: stringWithCString:(const char *)cString encoding:(NSStringEncoding)enc; =================EDITED================= I have string as "øæ-test-2.txt" . when I am encoding it char *s = "øæ-test-2.txt"; NSString *enc = [NSString stringWithCString:s encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; I am getting "øæ-test-2.txt" as output. Now I want to get back the original string back i.e. "øæ-test-2.txt" +++++++++EDITED+++++++++++++++++++ I am getting "øæ-test-2.txt" from server and I need "øæ-test-2.txt" by decoding it . I am able to get the output from the link below http://www.cafewebmaster.com/online_tools/utf_decode Please try to use the link and u will understand my concern. I need the solution on urgent basis. It would be highly appreciated if anyone can give some hint or tutorial in right direction. Regards

  Read the article

• Understanding CABasicAnimation when spinning an object from a random angle....

  - by user157733

  I have spent ages trying to figure this out and I am still having problems. I want to rotate an image a random number of time - say 5 and a bit - then have it stop. I then want to rotate it again FROM ITS STOPPED POSITION. I am having difficulty with this so maybe someone can advise me on the right way to do it. Ok so I am using a CABasicAnimation for the spin like this... CABasicAnimation* rotationAnimation; rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: 0.0]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: M_PI * 1.0]; rotationAnimation.duration = 100; rotationAnimation.cumulative = YES; rotationAnimation.repeatCount = 5.2; rotationAnimation.removedOnCompletion = NO; rotationAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeForwards; [myView.layer addAnimation:rotationAnimation forKey:@"rotationAnimation"]; This works fine. I use a animationDidStop function to transform the image to the new angle so that it actually in the new position (not just appearing that way). This is where my problems start. I have tried the following... removing the toValue line which means the animation starts from where it currently is but when the animation block is repeated it jumps back to this start position every time the block is run storing the value of the end rotation and using this in the toValue so the 2 lines of code become... rotationAnimation = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: previousVal]; rotationAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: (M_PI * 1.0)+previousVal]; when I do this the animation still jumps because it is flicking back to the previousVal everytime the block is repeated Therefore my final thought is to check to see if the image is at zero, if not then rotate it to zero, then impliment the block of code to spin multiple times. This seems complicated but is this the ONLY way to achieve this? I am concerned about getting the timings smooth with this method. Any suggestions would be amazing! Thanks

  Read the article

• External API function calls AS3 control timeline

  - by giles

  I have function problem using this code (below), the embedded flash movieclip disappears or completely prevents the scrollto.js query to function in DW cs3. Communication between Flash and JavaScript is without problems, it is the call back I can't find to work and more frustratingly, should be simple, as no values are not required. So far, this has been hours of scouring the net without a workable end in sight...ahrr. What is a function for this to work? JavaScript – to call Flash event from HTML button link, placed between head tags function callExternalInterface() var flashMovie = window.document.menu; flashMovie.menu_up(value); menu_up is the string. Does anyone know of workable function for callback?? HTML <div id="btn_up"><a href="#top" name="charDev" id="charDev" onclick="">top</a></div> Pane navigation div that uses Scrollto.js query, and it's this link I need calling back to the embedded "menubtns.swf" (nested in "AS3Menu_javascript.swf") to play 5 frames of this movieclip, via a JS function. Embedded .swf code, using swfobject.js with allowScriptAccess=always <object classid="clsid:D27CDB6E-AE6D-11cf-96B8-444553540000" name="menu"<br/> width="251" height="251" id="menu"> <param name="movie" value="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" /> <param name="allowScriptAccess" value="always" /> <param name="movie" value="ExternalInterfaceScript.swf" /> <param name="quality" value="high" /> <object type="application/x-shockwave-flash" data="../~Assets/Flash/AS3Menu_javascript.swf" width="250" height="250"> <p>Alternative content</p> </object> </object> AS3 / Flash import flash.external.ExternalInterface;flash.system.Security.allowDomain(/sourceDomain/); ExternalInterface.addCallBack("menu_up", this, resetmenu); function resetmenu(){ gotoAndPlay:("frame label" / "number") }

  Read the article

• Numeric Order By In Transact SQL (Ordering As String Instead Of Int)

  - by Pyronaut

  I have an issue where I am trying to order a result set by what I believe to be a numberic column in my database. However when I get the result set, It has sorted the column as if it was a string (So alphabetically), instead of sorting it as an int. As an example. I have these numbers, 1 , 2, 3, 4, 5, 10, 11 When I order by in Transact SQL, I get back : 1, 10, 11, 2, 3, 4, 5 I had the same issue with Datagridview's a while back, And the issue was because of the sorting being done as if it was a string. I assume the same thing is happening here. My full SQL code is : SELECT TOP (12) DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) AS 'Year', DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]) AS 'Month' , COUNT(OrderRef) AS 'OrderCount' FROM [Order] WHERE [Status] LIKE('PaymentReceived') OR [Status] LIKE ('Shipped') GROUP BY DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]), DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) ORDER BY DATEPART(YEAR, OrderDate) DESC, DATEPART(MONTH, OrderDate) desc DO NOTE The wrong sorting only happens when I cam calling the function from Visual Studio. As in my code is : using (SqlConnection conn = GetConnection()) { string query = @"SELECT TOP (12) DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) AS 'Year', DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]) AS 'Month' , COUNT(OrderRef) AS 'OrderCount' FROM [Order] WHERE [Status] LIKE('PaymentReceived') OR [Status] LIKE ('Shipped') GROUP BY DATEPART(MONTH, [OrderDate]), DATEPART(YEAR, [OrderDate]) ORDER BY DATEPART(YEAR, OrderDate) DESC, DATEPART(MONTH, OrderDate) desc"; SqlCommand command = new SqlCommand(query, conn); command.CommandType = CommandType.Text; using (SqlDataReader reader = command.ExecuteReader()) etc. When I run the statement in MSSQL server, there is no issues. I am currently using MSSQL 2005 express edition, And Visual Studio 2005. I have tried numerous things that are strewn across the web. Including using Convert() and ABS() to no avail. Any help would be much appreciated.

  Read the article

• Ability to draw and record a signature as part of a form - iphone

  - by mustic

  Apolgies in advance for any errors.. new to this and am not a developer/programmer.. just have some basic unix experience. I have searched the web and struggled to find a solution to my problem when I stumbled onto this website which maybe suggested that there is a solution to my question. For work i use a windows mobile device because we have to get customers to sign and form after a customer visit. the signature being very important. On the windows device i use the notes application and am able to record details and obtain/record (using draw) a customer signature. the form is then emailed back to HQ. The format being used is a *.pwi I have downloaded and paid for several applications for my iphone which is my preferred device and cant quite find anything that does both. the critical bit here is to be able to take a signature on the phone, save the doc in a format such as .txt, .doc or .pdf where i can control the file name then be able to email back to HQ. Am i asking too much? I hope that makes sense.. Any help would be much appreciated many thanks in advance

  Read the article

• Best way to "un-promote" files in Accurev?

  - by Luke Rinard

  My company uses Accurev for source control, and for all its benefits, there's one simple action that I just can't figure out how to accomplish. Often we have someone accidentally push a file up too far in our stream structure -- from the "Development" stream to the "Release" stream, for example. What is the best way to "un-promote" this file? That is to say, to get the old version of the file back into the "Release" stream, and keep the new version of the file in the "Development" stream, where it belongs? Just doing a "Revert to Backed" or other Revert action on the file in the Release stream will either cause an old version of the file to propagate down into Development, or will make the file disappear entirely. In the above case, the developer will have to jump through hoops with setting basis times on streams, or use the command line tool to do a checkout of an old transaction, to get the file back. Sometimes the people in question are non-technical, so this is not a good solution. I have also considered moving the files to a "higher ground" stream, reverting, and then cross-promoting them to the lower stream again. This seems really kludgy. It seems like Accurev is obscure enough that Google is no help, so I turn to the good folks of StackOverflow for help -- has anybody figured out the "Accurevy" way to accomplish this?

  Read the article

• MSN Messenger API

  - by MarceloRamires

  back when I was not working with programming (using skills from courses and school) I started developing a simple program that is supposed to get the Artwork of the album to which the song you're currently listening in iTunes to and set it as you Display Picture in MSN Messenger (everything had to be open at the same time). I was so excited about it, made it as nicely as I could back then (now I consider it a design and usability complete fail), and it surprisingly worked. Now, a couple of versions ahead (MSN from 8.5 to 9.0, iTunes from 8 to 9, and windows from Vista to 7) I am getting some incompatibility issues. Where I work, I use Windows 7, Windows Live Messenger 2009 and iTunes 9 - it works just just like before, but at home I have the same exact setup, but something weird happens: When I open the program (having my itunes AND msn open) it doesn't use the active MSN instance, instead it opens a new one, and doesn't work even on this opened one. I've tried it with a couple of libraries: Interop.Messenger.dll - workis like described above Interop.MessengerAPI.dll - works like described above Interop.MessengerPrivate.dll - never worked MSNMessenger.dll - the one I used before - doesn't work anymore at all What could I do ? Info: Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, C#, WinForms application. I'll watch this question and add any information if requested

  Read the article

• PHP, We have sessions, and cookies....I love cookies, but they are blowing my mind right now.

  - by Matt

  I am not sure how to go about accessing the variable I need to set on a cookie... I was thinking about using the $_POST global but I dont know how based on my design if it will work. I am using a master page type design seperating index.php from my function includes and database information and individual pages (that will be returned to an include in index.php based on a $_GET) Okay so back to my question. What is the most efficient way to set a cookie on a design that has a main page that everything will branch from. How would I pull the value. Is $_POST a good enough way to go about it? Also...by saying it must be the first thing sent...does that mean I cannot run any serverside scripts before that? I could definately utilize a login query I think but I dont want to write code just to be dissapointed based on my lack of time and knowledge. I did search for answers...I know this most likely feels like a generic question that could be answered in a difference place...but I know I will get an accurate and professional answer here...so I dont want to bet on the half answers I found otherwise. Of course I will sanitize everything and not store any sensitive information (passwords,address,phone,or anything really for that matter besides some kind of session ID and the username) If this is confusing I am sorry but I am on a gov computer...and they lock these tighter than ft knox...so getting my code on here will be a chore until I get back to my room. Thanks, Matt

  Read the article

• TeamCity and pending Git merge branch commit keeps build with failed tests

  - by Vladimir

  We use TeamCity for continuous integration and Git for source control. Generally it works pretty well - convenient, modern and good us quick feedback when tests fails. There is a strange behavior related to Git merge specifics. Here are steps of the case: First developer pulls from master repo. Second developer pulls from master repo. First developer makes commit A locally. Second developer makes commit B locally; Second developer pushes commit B. First developer want to push commit A but unable because he have to pull commit B first. First developer pull's from remote reposity. First developer pushes commit A and generated merge branch commit. The history of commits in master repo is following: B second developer A first developer merge branch first developer. Now let's assume that Second Developer fixed some failing tests in his commit B. What TeamCity will do is following: Commit B arrives - TeamCity makes build #1 with all tests passed Commit A arrives - TeamCity makes build #2 (without commit B) test bar becomes Red! TeamCity thought that Pending "Merge Branch" commit doesn't contain any changes (any new files) - but it actually does contain the merge of commit B, so the TeamCity don't want to make new build here and make tests green. Here are two problems: 1. In our case we have failed tests returning back in second commit (commit A) 2. TeamCity don't want to make a new build and make tests back green. Does anybody know how to fix both of this problems. I consider some reasonable general approach.

  Read the article

• WCF Callback Faulted - what happens to the session?

  - by RemotecUk

  Just trying to get my head around what can happen when things go wrong with WCF. I have an implementation of my service contract declared with an InstanceContextMode of PerSession... [ServiceBehavior(InstanceContextMode = InstanceContextMode.PerSession, ConcurrencyMode = ConcurrencyMode.Multiple)] The calls happen as follows: My client calls the server and calls GetServerUTC() to return the current UTC time of the server. This is a one way call and the server will call the client back when its ready (trivial in this instance to simply return the current time!) The server calls back to the client and for test purposes in the callback implementation on the client I throw an exception. This goes unhandled in the client (for test purposes) and the client crashes and closes down. On the server I handle the faulted event handler on the ICommunicationObject... obj.Faulted += new EventHandler(EventService_Faulted); Questions... Will this kill off the session for the current connection on the server. I presume I am free to do what I want in this method e.g. logging or something, but should I do anything specific here to terminate the session or will WCF handle this? From a best practise view point what should I do when the callback is faulted? Does it mean "something has happened in your client" and thats the end of that or is there something I a missing here? Additionally, are there any other faulted handlers I should be handling. Ive done a lot of reading on WCF and it seems sort of vague on what to do when something goes wrong. At present I am implementing a State Machine on my client which will manage the connection and determine if a user action can happen dependant on if a connection exists to the server - or is this overkill. Any tips would be really appreciated ;)

  Read the article

• Django Form Preview

  - by Mark Kecko

  I'm trying to use django's FormPreview and I can't get it to work properly. Here's my code: forms.py class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): status = forms.TypedChoiceField( coerce=int, choices=LIST_STATUS, label="type", widget=forms.RadioSelect ) description = forms.CharField(widget = forms.Textarea) stage = forms.CharField() def __init__(self, useradd=None, *args, **kwargs): super(MyForm, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) self.fields['firm'].label = "Firm" class Meta: model = MyModel fields = ['status', 'description', 'stage'] class MyFormPreview(FormPreview): form_template = 'templates/post.html' preview_template = 'templates/review.html' def process_preview(self, request, cleaned_data): print "processed" def done(self, request, cleaned_data): print "done" # Do something with the cleaned_data, then redirect # to a "success" page. return HttpResponseRedirect('/') urls.py (r'^post/$', MyFormPreview(MyForm)), post.html <form id = "post_ad" action = "" method = "POST" enctype="multipart/form-data"> <table> {{form.as_table}} </table> <input type="submit" name="save" value="Post" /> </form> When I go to /post/ I get the correct form and I fill it out. When I submit the form it goes right back to /post/ but but there are no errors (I've tried displaying {{errors}}) and the form is empty. None of my print statements execute. I'm not sure what I'm missing. Can anyone help me out? I can't find any documentation besides what's on the django site. Also, what's the "preview" variable called that I should use in my preview.html template? {{preview}} or do I just do {{form}} again? -- Answered below. I tried adding 'django.contrib.formtools' to my installed_apps in settings and I tried using the code from the default form templates from django.contrib as suggested below. Still, when I submit the form I go right back to the post template, none of my print statements execute :(

  Read the article

• Find and Replace RegEx with wildcard search and addition of value

  - by fraXis

  The below code is from my other questions that I have asked here on SO. Everyone has been so helpful and I almost have a grasp with regards to RegEx but I ran into another hurdle. This is what I basically need to do in a nutshell. I need to take this line that is in a text file that I load into my content variable: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H1E1 I need to do a wildcard search for the X value, Y value, Z value, and H value. When I am done, I need this written back to my text file (I know how to create the text file so that is not the problem). X17.8Y-1.G54G0T2 G43Z0.1H1M08 I have code that the kind users here have given me, except I need to create the T value at the end of the first line, and use the value from the H and increment it by 1 for the T value. For example: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H5E1 would translate as: X17.8Y-1.G54G0T6 G43Z0.1H5M08 The T value is 6 because the H value is 5. I have code that does everything (does two RegEx functions and separates the line of code into two new lines and adds some new G values). But I don't know how to add the T value back into the first line and increment it by 1 of the H value. Here is my code: StreamReader reader = new StreamReader(fDialog.FileName.ToString()); string content = reader.ReadToEnd(); reader.Close(); content = Regex.Replace(content, @"X[-\d.]+Y[-\d.]+", "$0G54G0"); content = Regex.Replace(content, @"(Z(?:\d*\.)?\d+)[^H]*G0(H(?:\d*\.)?\d+)\w*", "\nG43$1$2M08"); //This must be created on a new line This code works great at taking: X17.8Y-1.Z0.1G0H5E1 and turning it into: X17.8Y-1.G54G0 G43Z0.1H5M08 but I need it turned into this: X17.8Y-1.G54G0T6 G43Z0.1H5M08 (notice the T value is added to the first line, which is the H value +1 (T = H + 1). Can someone please modify my RegEx statement so I can do this automatically? I tried to combine my two RegEx statements into one line but I failed miserably.

  Read the article

• How can I check whether Exposé is being activated or not?

  - by yangumi

  Hi, I'm creating an application that emulates MacBook's multi-touch Trackpad. As you may know, on MacBook's trackpad if you swipe 4 fingers up, it triggers the Show Desktop. if you swipe 4 fingers down, it shows the Exposé. However, if the Show Desktop is being activated and you swipe 4 fingers down, it will come back to the normal mode. The same goes with the Exposé: if the Exposé is being activated and you swipe 4 fingers up, it will also come back to the normal mode. Here is the problem: I use the keyboard shortcut F3 to show the Exposé and F11 to show the Show Desktop. The problem is, when the Show Desktop is being activated, if I press F3, it will go straight to the Exposé. And when the Exposé is being activated, if I press F11 it will go straight to the Show Desktop. But I want it to behave like Trackpad, which I guess its code may look like this - FourFingersDidSwipeUp { if (isExposeBeingActivated() || isShowDesktopBeingActivated()) { pressKey("Esc"); } else { pressKey("F11"); } } But I don't know how to implement the "isExposeBeingActivated()" and "isShowDesktopBeingActivated()" methods. I've tried creating a window and check whether its size has changed (on assumption that if the Expose is being activated, its size should be smaller), but the system always returns the same size. I tried monitoring the background processes during the Expose, but nothing happened. Does anyknow have any suggestions on this? (I'm sorry if my English sounds weird.)

  Read the article

• How to create reactive tasks for programming competitions?

  - by directx

  A reactive task is sometimes seen in the IOI programming competition. Unlike batch tasks, reactive solutions take input from another program as well as outputting it. The program typically 'query' the judge program a certain number of times, then output a final answer. An example The client program accepts lines one by one, and simply echoes it back. When it encountered a line with "done", it exists immediately. The client program in Java looks like this: import java.util.*; class Main{ public static void main (String[] args){ Scanner in = new Scanner(System.in); String s; while (!(s=in.nextLine()).equals("done")) System.out.println(s); } } The judge program gives the input and processes output from the client program. In this example, it feeds it a predefined input and checks if the client program has echoed it back correctly. A session might go like this: Judge Client ------------------ Hello Hello World World done I'm having trouble writing the judge program and having it judge the client program. I'd appreciate if someone could write a judge program for my example.

  Read the article

• Reading CSV files in numpy where delimiter is ","

  - by monch1962

  Hello all, I've got a CSV file with a format that looks like this: "FieldName1", "FieldName2", "FieldName3", "FieldName4" "04/13/2010 14:45:07.008", "7.59484916392", "10", "6.552373" "04/13/2010 14:45:22.010", "6.55478493312", "9", "3.5378543" ... Note that there are double quote characters at the start and end of each line in the CSV file, and the "," string is used to delimit fields within each line. When I try to read this into numpy via: import numpy as np data = np.genfromtxt(csvfile, dtype=None, delimiter=',', names=True) all the data gets read in as string values, surrounded by double-quote characters. Not unreasonable, but not much use to me as I then have to go back and convert every column to its correct type When I use delimiter='","' instead, everything works as I'd like, except for the 1st and last fields. As the start of line and end of line characters are a single double-quote character, this isn't seen as a valid delimiter for the 1st and last fields, so they get read in as e.g. "04/13/2010 14:45:07.008 and 6.552373" - note the leading and trailing double-quote characters respectively. Because of these redundant characters, numpy assumes the 1st and last fields are both String types; I don't want that to be the case Is there a way of instructing numpy to read in files formatted in this fashion as I'd like, without having to go back and "fix" the structure of the numpy array after the initial read?

  Read the article

• How to rename Java packages without breaking Subversion history?

  - by M. Joanis

  Hello everyone, The company I'm working for is starting up and they changed their name in the process. So we still use the package name com.oldname because we are afraid of breaking the file change history, or the ancestry links between versions, or whatever we could break (I don't think I use the right terms, but you get the concept). We use: Eclipse, TortoiseSVN, Subversion I found somewhere that I should do it in many steps to prevent incoherence between content of .svn folders and package names in java files: First use TortoiseSVN to rename the directory, updating the .svn directories. Then, manually rename the directory back to the original name. To finally use Eclipse to rename the packages (refactor) back to the new name, updating the java files. That seems good to me, but I need to know if the ancestry and history and everything else will still be coherent and working well. I don't have the keys to that server, that's why I don't hastily backup things and try one or two things. I would like to come up with a good reason not to do it, or a way of doing it which works. Thank you for your help, M. Joanis

  Read the article

• Handling conflicting priorities and expectations in project development

  - by jasonk

  There are any number of situations in the standard day where priority conflicts exist for projects. Management wants maximum productivity from employees. Marketing wants maximum salability and fast turnaround. Ownership wants maximum profit. Customers want usability and low cost. Regardless of the origin of the demands, time and money are always the limiting factor in business. Sometimes project elements have intrinsic or goodwill benefits for which there is not a hard, fast way to measure with monetary means (e.g. arguments for an attractive UI appeal vs. functional but plain). Other elements of software may have a method of providing “mental breaks” or motivating “cool factor” for developers that can get them back on track on other bigger, complex issues. While they may sidetrack the project short term they may have greater results long term through improved job satisfaction, etc. Continued training is a must, but working it in can setup back progress. What are your suggestions for setting priorities? How do you evaluate requests/demands on your projects? What are your suggestions for communicating and passing those on to your team in a way that they stay focused?

  Read the article

• What is the behavior of a WPF 4 ControlStoryboardAction trigger?

  - by jonathan_ou

  Hi all! I have a question that's been bugging me for a while: I have a lengthy IO operation which I invoke asynchronously, and I want my UI to show a blinking text to tell the users that the data is loading. I have an IsLoading boolean property in my ViewModel, and I used a ControlStoryboardAction to kickoff the blinking animation, which is set to repeat forever. For my ControlStoryboardAction trigger, I configured a data trigger to see if IsLoading is true, and start my storyboard if true. My problem is, when my IO operation returns, and I set IsLoading back to false, the animation continues to play. I thought once the trigger condition evaluated to false, it would stop the animation? I then added a second ControlStoryboardAction to stop the animation if IsLoading evaluted to false, but this didn't have any effect. The animation continued to play after IsLoading was false. Can anyone explain to me how trigger works in ControlStoryboardAction? In normal data triggers in WPF, once the condition evaluated to false, the property would be set back to its original state. It seems triggers in WPF actions don't work the same way? Thanks in advance for your help!

  Read the article

• ASP.NET Authentication Cookie timout and IIS 7 setting

  - by David Laplante

  Hello, I have an ASP.NET website for which i've set the authetication timeout to 60 days so that my users don't have to log in each time they come back if they checked the "remember me" option. Basic ASP.NET login mechanism... It's working fine on my developpement server as well as on the visual studio built-in web server. I can close the browser, wait around 30-40 minutes and browse back to the site and be automatically logged in. However, I've not moved the site to a hosting provider and it seems that whatever I do to my Web.config file, the cookie expires after around 30 minutes (hard to tell the exact amount of time). I have asked the provider's help support and they basically told me: "Web.config file is to configure your website. Please do not change it if you don't know what you are doing" Frustrating answer indeed... To be sure, I checked everywhere on the net for exceptions, fine prints, in the basic asp.net authentication but found none. I have access to IIS remote management for my site (IIS 7) but don't really know where to look. Can there be something in the IIS setting that is overriding my web.config authentication setting? What should I do... Thanks for you help!

  Read the article

• WPF TexBox TwoWay Binding Problem when ValidationRules used

  - by ignis

  I seem to have a problem with TwoWay DataBinding - my application has a window with a bunch of textboxes that allow to edit values of the properties they are bound to. Everything works well except for textboxes that also have a validation rule defined, in which case no text is displayed in the textbox when the window opens (binding back-to-source still works fine for those). If I remove Validation rule, everything's back to normal. I searched for an answer to this for a few hours now, but somehow did not even find anyone else complaining of the same issue. I am completely new to WPF, and I am sure it is just a silly mistake I have somewhere in my code... I will greatly appreciate any feedback... <TextBox Margin="40,2,20,0" Grid.Column="0" Grid.Row="1" Background="#99FFFFFF" > <Binding Path="LastName" Mode="TwoWay" ValidatesOnDataErrors="true" UpdateSourceTrigger="LostFocus" > <Binding.ValidationRules> <validation:StringNameValidationRule /> </Binding.ValidationRules> </Binding> </TextBox>

  Read the article

• Saving data - does work on Simulator, not on Device

  - by Peter Hajas

  I use NSData to persist an image in my application. I save the image like so (in my App Delegate): - (void)applicationWillTerminate:(UIApplication *)application { NSLog(@"Saving data"); NSData *data = UIImagePNGRepresentation([[viewController.myViewController myImage]image]); //Write the file out! NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *path_to_file = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingString:@"lastimage.png"]; [data writeToFile:path_to_file atomically:YES]; NSLog(@"Data saved."); } and then I load it back like so (in my view controller, under viewDidLoad): NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *path_to_file = [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingString:@"lastimage.png"]; if([[NSFileManager defaultManager] fileExistsAtPath:path_to_file]) { NSLog(@"Found saved file, loading in image"); NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfFile:path_to_file]; UIImage *temp = [[UIImage alloc] initWithData:data]; myViewController.myImage.image = temp; NSLog(@"Finished loading in image"); } This code works every time on the simulator, but on the device, it can never seem to load back in the image. I'm pretty sure that it saves out, but I have no view of the filesystem. Am I doing something weird? Does the simulator have a different way to access its directories than the device? Thanks!

  Read the article

• Firefox reloading parent page in iframe when clicking named anchor

  - by masty

  My site has an iframe which is dynamically populated with html content. The html often contains named anchors, which work fine in IE/Chrome but in Firefox it reopens the entire page within the iframe. Here's an example: load the page in firefox, scroll to the bottom of the iframe, click the "back to top" link, and you will see what I am talking about. <html><head></head><body onload="setFrameContent();"><script> var htmlBody = '<html> <head></head> <body>' + '<a name="top"><h1>top</h1></a>' + '<br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/>' + '<br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/><br/>' + '<a href="#top">back to top</a></body> </html> '; function setFrameContent(){ if (frames.length > 0) { var d = frames[0].document; d.open(); d.write(htmlBody); d.close(); } } </script> <h1>Here's an iframe:</h1> <iframe id="htmlIframe" style="height: 400px; width: 100%"><p>Your browser does not support iframes.</p></iframe> </body></html> Any ideas?

  Read the article

• 'echo' or drop out of 'programming' write HTML then start PHP code again

  - by thecoshman

  For the most part, when I want to display some HTML code to be actually rendered I would use a 'close PHP' tag, write the HTML, then open the PHP again. eg <?php // some php code ?> <p>HTML that I want displayed</p> <?php // more php code ?> But I have seen lots of people who would just use echo instead, so they would have done the above something like <?php // some php code echo("<p>HTML that I want displayed</p>"); // more php code ?> Is their any performance hit for dropping out and back in like that? I would assume not as the PHP engine would have to process the entire file either way. What about when you use the echo function in the way that dose not look like a function, eg echo "<p>HTML that I want displayed</p>" I would hope that this is purely a matter of taste, but I would like to know if I was missing out on something. I personally find the first way preferable (dropping out of PHP then back in) as it helps draw a clear distinction between PHP and HTML and also lets you make use of code highlighting and hinting for your HTML, which is always handy.

  Read the article

• iPad start in Landscape receive only touch within 768x768

  - by user1307179

  It works perfect fine when starting in portrait and also works when you rotate from portrait to landscape and back. It does not work when starting in landscape. But then it works when you rotate from landscape to portrait and back. In landscape starting mode, the screen does not respond with any touch where screen coordinateX greater than 768. What happens in code is, I use status bar orientation to determine original orientation and rotate each view manually. The views display correctly but does not receive touch properly. Then my root view controller will get called when ipad start rotating with: - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration which will rotate every subviews. Root controller: - (void)loadView { self.view = [[UIView alloc]init ]; //initialize child views [self willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:0 duration:0]; } - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration { if ([model isLandscape]) { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1024, 768-80); } else { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 768, 1024-80); } //rotate child views } My code [model isLandscape] works so I don't need to provide details as to how it works but here are the code anyway: - (bool)isLandscape { if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft || orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) return true; else return false; } -(id) init { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(orientationChanged:) name:UIDeviceOrientationDidChangeNotification object:nil]; } - (void)orientationChanged:(NSNotification *)notification { UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = curOrientation; ((AppDelegate*)([UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate)).savedOrientationForRestart = orientation; NSLog(@"changed"); } } -(void)validateOrientation { //first time when initializing orientation UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortrait && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; } }

  Read the article

• Embedding Perl Interpreter

  - by cam

  Hi, just downloaded ActivePerl. I want to embed the perl interpreter in a C# application (or at least call the perl interpreter from C#). I need to be able to send send out data to Perl from C#, then receive the output back into C#. I just installed ActivePerl, and added MS Script Control 1.0 as a reference. I found this code on the internet, but am having trouble getting it to work. MSScriptControl.ScriptControlClass Interpreter = new MSScriptControl.ScriptControlClass(); Interpreter.Language = @"ActivePerl"; string Program = @"reverse 'abcde'"; string Results = (string)Interpreter.Eval(Program); return Results; Originally, it had 'PerlScript' instead of 'ActivePerl', but neither work for me. I'm not entirely sure what Interpreter.Language expects. Does it require the path to the interpreter? Solved... I'm not sure how, but when I changed it back to PerlScript it works now. Still, I would like to know if MSScript Control is using ActivePerl or another interpreter.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220 221  | Next Page >