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  • Old dll.config problem !

    - by user313421
    Since 2005 as I googled it's a problem for who needs to read the configuration of an assembly from it's config file "*.dll.config" and Microsoft didn't do anything yet. Story: If you try to read a setting from a class library (plug-in) you fail. Instead the main application domain (EXE which is using the plug-in) config is read and because probably there's not such a config your plug-in will use default setting which is hard-coded when you create it's settings for first time. Any change to .dll.config wouldn't see by your plug-in and you wonder why it's there! If you want to replace it and start searching you may find something like this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/594298/c-dll-config-file But just some ideas and one line code. A good replacement for built-in config shouldn't read from file system each time we need a config value, so we can store them in memory; Then what if user changes config file ? we need a FileSystemWatcher and we need some design like singleton ... and finally we are at the same point configuration of .NET is except our one's working. It seems MS did everything but forgot why they built the ".dll.config". Since no DLL is gonna execute by itself, they are referenced from other apps (even if used in web) and so why there's such a "*.dll.config" file ? I'm not gonna argue if it's good to have multiple config files or not. It's my design (plug-able components). Finally { After these years, is there any good practice such as a custom setting class to add in each assemly and read from it's own config file ? }

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  • Remove redundant SQL code

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Code The following code calculates the slope and intercept for a linear regression against a slathering of data. It then applies the equation y = mx + b against the same result set to calculate the value of the regression line for each row. Can the two separate sub-selects be joined so that the data and its slope/intercept are calculated without executing the data gathering part of the query twice? SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR * ymxb.SLOPE + ymxb.INTERCEPT as REGRESSION_LINE, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D, (SELECT ((avg(t.AMOUNT * t.YEAR)) - avg(t.AMOUNT) * avg(t.YEAR)) / (stddev( t.AMOUNT ) * stddev( t.YEAR )) as CORRELATION, ((sum(t.YEAR) * sum(t.AMOUNT)) - (count(1) * sum(t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as SLOPE, ((sum( t.YEAR ) * sum( t.YEAR * t.AMOUNT )) - (sum( t.AMOUNT ) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2)))) / (power(sum(t.YEAR), 2) - count(1) * sum(power(t.YEAR, 2))) as INTERCEPT FROM ( SELECT AVG(D.AMOUNT) as AMOUNT, Y.YEAR as YEAR, MAKEDATE(Y.YEAR,1) as AMOUNT_DATE FROM CITY C, STATION S, YEAR_REF Y, MONTH_REF M, DAILY D WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR ) t ) ymxb WHERE $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' GROUP BY Y.YEAR Question How do I execute the duplicate bits only once per query, instead of twice? The duplicate bit is the WHERE clause: $X{ IN, C.ID, CityCode } AND SQRT( POW( C.LATITUDE - S.LATITUDE, 2 ) + POW( C.LONGITUDE - S.LONGITUDE, 2 ) ) < $P{Radius} AND S.STATION_DISTRICT_ID = Y.STATION_DISTRICT_ID AND Y.YEAR BETWEEN 1900 AND 2009 AND M.YEAR_REF_ID = Y.ID AND M.CATEGORY_ID = $P{CategoryCode} AND M.ID = D.MONTH_REF_ID AND D.DAILY_FLAG_ID <> 'M' Related http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1595659/how-to-eliminate-duplicate-calculation-in-sql Thank you!

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  • How to generate lots of redundant ajax elements like checkboxes and pulldowns in Django?

    - by iJames
    Hello folks. I've been getting lots of answers from stackoverflow now that I'm in Django just be searching. Now I hope my question will also create some value for everybody. In choosing Django, I was hoping there was some similar mechanism to the way you can do partials in ROR. This was going to help me in two ways. One was in generating repeating indexed forms or form elements, and also in rendering only a piece of the page on the round trip. I've done a little bit of that by using taconite with a simple URL click but now I'm trying to get more advanced. This will focus on the form issue which boils down to how to iterate over a secondary object. If I have a list of photo instances, each of which has a couple of parameters, let's say a size and a quantity. I want to generate form elements for each photo instance separately. But then I have two lists I want to iterate on at the same time. Context: photos : Photo.objects.all() and forms = {} for photo in photos: forms[photo.id] = PhotoForm() In other words we've got a list of photo objects and a dict of forms based on the photo.id. Here's an abstraction of the template: {% for photo in photos %} {% include "photoview.html" %} {% comment %} So here I want to use the photo.id as an index to get the correct form. So that each photo has its own form. I would want to have a different action and each form field would be unique. Is that possible? How can I iterate on that? Thanks! {% endcomment %} Quantity: {{ oi.quantity }} {{ form.quantity }} Dimensions: {{ oi.size }} {{ form.size }} {% endfor %} What can I do about this simple case. And how can I make it where every control is automatically updating the server instead of using a form at all? Thanks! James

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  • Java - Problem in deploying Web Application

    - by Yatendra Goel
    I have built a Java Web Application and packed it in a .war file and tested it on my local tomcat server and it is running fine. But when I deployed it on my client's server, it is showing an error. According to the remote server (my client's server), it is not finding a tld file packed in a jar file which I had placed in WEB-INF/lib directory. But when I checked the WEB-INF/lib directory for the jar file, i found that it was there. The contents of META-INF/MANIFEST.MF is as follows: Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: I think that there is no need to explicitly mention the classpath of WEB-INF/lib directory as it is in the classpath of any web application by default. Then, why the server can't find the jar file in the lib directory when I deployed it on a remote server and why it is working when I deployed the same application on my local server. I posted a question for this at http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2441254/struts-1-struts-taglib-jar-is-not-being-found-by-my-web-application but found that the problem is unusual as nobody could answer it. So my questions are as follows: Q1. Is WEB-INF/lib still remains on the classpath if I leave the classpath entry blank as shown above in the MANIFEST.MF file or I should delete the classpath entry completely from the file or I should explicitly enter Class-Path: /WEB-INF/lib as the classpath entry? Q2. I have JSP pages, Servlets and some helper classes in the web application. Jsp pages are located at the root. Servlets and helper classes are located in WEB-INF/classes folder. So Is there any problem if my helper classes are located in the WEB-INF/classes folder? Note: Please note that this question is not same as my previous question. It is a follow-up question of my previous question. Both the servers (local and remote) are tomcat servers.

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  • Sort latitude and longitude coordinates into clockwise quadrangle

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Problem Users can provide up to four latitude and longitude coordinates, in any order. They do so with Google Maps. Using Google's Polygon API (v3), the coordinates they select should highlight the selected area between the four coordinates. Solutions and Searches http://stackoverflow.com/questions/242404/sort-four-points-in-clockwise-order Graham's scan seems too complicated for four coordinates Sort the coordinates into two arrays (one by latitude, the other longitude) ... then? Question How do you sort the coordinates in (counter-)clockwise order, using JavaScript? Code Here is what I have so far: // Ensures the markers are sorted: NW, NE, SE, SW function sortMarkers() { var ns = markers.slice( 0 ); var ew = markers.slice( 0 ); ew.sort( function( a, b ) { if( a.lat() < b.lat() ) { return -1; } else if( a.lat() > b.lat() ) { return 1; } return 0; }); ns.sort( function( a, b ) { if( a.lng() < b.lng() ) { return -1; } else if( a.lng() > b.lng() ) { return 1; } return 0; }); } What is a better approach? Thank you.

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  • DotNetNuke and Subversion guidelines

    - by David Stratton
    I've Googled, Binged, and here at StackOverflow, looked through the related questions and searched, but I'm not finding what I'm looking for. I've also searched documentation on DNN. What I'm looking for is any guidance (tutorials, blogs, step-by-step instructions for setting up a repository) etc from people who are experienced in using DotNetNuke with SVN. We use SVN for all our source control, and have no problem with standard applications, because we pretty much built the repository and directory structure to work with our processes. This means when we do web sites, in Visual Studio, we do file based web sites, rather than setting them up in the local IIS. It just makes things easier for us. However, with DNN, it appears that even if you get the source code, it is expecting to be set up in the local IIS, which means additional headaches for us. For example, we are moving all of our source code off our local C drives, and onto a shared drive on a server. This is to enable backups in addition to our normal source control. (This was a management decision). So that means that we need to change the virtual web app when we make the move. Has anyone come up with a good way to work around this? Can DNN be set up so that the developer web server in Visual Studio can be used, so that we can treat it just like any normal web app? Am I missing something obvious? Edit - added I'm willing to accept answers like "We tried it and never got it to work", and "It can't be done" as answers. I'm always open to hearing "It can't be done the way you want. You need to change your procedures to match how it works" if necessary. I guess if you've got experience trying this and just couldn't get it to work, I can learn from your experience that way as well, but some detail would be good.

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  • Facebook offline access step-by-step

    - by Ben
    After searchinge litteraly 1 day on fb and google for an up-to-date and working way to do something seemingly simple: I am looking for a step-by-step explanation to get offline_access for a user for a facebook app and then using this (session key) to retrieve offline & not within a browser friends & profile data. Preferrably doing this in the Fb Java API. Thanks. And yes I did check the facebook wiki. Update: Anyone? this: http://www.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=<api-key>&v=1.0&ext_perm=offline_access gives me offline_Access, however how to retrieve the session_key? Why can't facebook just do simple documentation, I mean there are like 600 people working there? The seemingly same question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/617043/getting-offlineaccess-to-work-with-facebook Does not answer how to retrieve the session key Edit: I am still stuck with that. I guess nobody really tried such a batch access out yet...

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  • Few Basic Questions in Overriding

    - by Dahlia
    I have few problems with my basic and would be thankful if someone can clear this. What does it mean when I say base *b = new derived; Why would one go for this? We very well separately can create objects for class base and class derived and then call the functions accordingly. I know that this base *b = new derived; is called as Object Slicing but why and when would one go for this? I know why it is not advisable to convert the base class object to derived class object (because base class is not aware of the derived class members and methods). I even read in other StackOverflow threads that if this is gonna be the case then we have to change/re-visit our design. I understand all that, however, I am just curious, Is there any way to do this? class base { public: void f(){cout << "In Base";} }; class derived:public base { public: void f(){cout << "In Derived";} }; int _tmain(int argc, _TCHAR* argv[]) { base b1, b2; derived d1, d2; b2 = d1; d2 = reinterpret_cast<derived*>(b1); //gives error C2440 b1.f(); // Prints In Base d1.f(); // Prints In Derived b2.f(); // Prints In Base d1.base::f(); //Prints In Base d2.f(); getch(); return 0; } In case of my above example, is there any way I could call the base class f() using derived class object? I used d1.base()::f() I just want to know if there any way without using scope resolution operator? Thanks a lot for your time in helping me out!

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  • XForms relation of 'constraint' and 'required' properties

    - by Danny
    As a reference, the most similar question already asked is: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/8667849/making-xforms-enforce-the-constraint-and-type-model-item-properties-only-when-fi The difference is that I cannot use the relevant properties since I do want the field to be visible and accessible. I'm attempting to make a XForms form that has the following properties: It displays a text field named 'information'. (for the example) This field must not be required, since it may not be necessary to enter data. (Or this data will be entered at a later time.) However, if data is entered in this field, it must adhere to the specified constraint. I cannot mark the field as not relevant since this would hide the field and some data may need to be entered in it. The trouble now is that even though the field has no data in it, the constraint is still enforced (i.e. even though it is not marked as 'required'). I have taken a look at the XForms 1.1 specification, however it does not seem to describe how the properties 'required' and 'constraint' should interact. The only option I see, is to add a part to the constraint such that an empty value is allowed. e.g.: . = '' or <actual-constraint However, I don't like this. It feels like a workaround to add this to every such field. Is there any other way to express that non-required fields should not need to match the constraint for that field? (Am I missing something?)

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  • How to suppress jqgrid from initially loading data?

    - by Steve Johnston
    I have a page that has a couple of jqGrids on it, along with a few other fields. I want to make one AJAX call myself that pulls back a JSON object that has the data that should be used to fill the entire page. So, I would like to make the call myself, populate the "other fields" and then pull a couple of collections off of the main JSON object that was returned and populate each of the jqGrids with those collections "manually". I have this much working, but I can't get jqGrid to stop attempting to make an AJAX request itself. Shouldn't there be a way to tell jqGrid to NOT attempt an AJAX call when it is initialized? I found a similar question asked here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1850159/how-to-suppress-jqgrid-from-initially-loading-data But I don't have the option that solved it for the poster. It seems pretty logical to me that some people may want to use this plugin without having the table attempt to get its own data upon initialization. Am I missing an option somewhere in the documentation (wiki - options)? Thanks.

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  • Linker error: wants C++ virtual base class destructor

    - by jdmuys
    Hi, I have a link error where the linker complains that my concrete class's destructor is calling its abstract superclass destructor, the code of which is missing. This is using GCC 4.2 on Mac OS X from XCode. I saw http://stackoverflow.com/questions/307352/g-undefined-reference-to-typeinfo but it's not quite the same thing. Here is the linker error message: Undefined symbols: "ConnectionPool::~ConnectionPool()", referenced from: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool()in RKConnector.o ld: symbol(s) not found collect2: ld returned 1 exit status Here is the abstract base class declaration: class ConnectionPool { public: static ConnectionPool* newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~ConnectionPool() =0; virtual int keepAlive() =0; virtual int disconnect() =0; virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL) =0; virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection) =0; }; Here is the concrete class declaration: class AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool: public ConnectionPool { protected: <snip data members> public: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b); virtual ~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(); virtual int keepAlive(); // will make sure the connection doesn't time out. Call regularly virtual int disconnect(); // disconnects/destroys all connections. virtual sql::Connection * getConnection(char *compression_scheme = NULL); virtual void releaseConnection(sql::Connection * theConnection); }; Needless to say, all those members are implemented. Here is the destructor: AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool::~AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool() { printf("AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool destructor call"); // nothing to destruct in fact } and also maybe the factory routine: ConnectionPool* ConnectionPool::newPool(std::string h, short p, std::string u, std::string pw, std::string b) { return new AlwaysConnectedConnectionZPool(h, p, u, pw, b); } I can fix this by artificially making my abstract base class concrete. But I'd rather do something better. Any idea? Thanks

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  • mmap only needed pages of kernel buffer to user space

    - by axeoth
    See also this answer: http://stackoverflow.com/a/10770582/1284631 I need something similar, but without having to allocate a buffer: the buffer is large, in theory, but the user space program only needs to access some parts of it (it mocks some registers of a hardware). As I cannot allocate with vmalloc_user() such a large buffer (kernel 32 bit, in embedded environment, no swap...), I followed the same approach as in the quoted answer, trying to allocate only those pages that are really requested by the user space. So: I use a my_mmap() function for the device file (actually, is the .mmap field of a struct uio_info) to set up the fields of the vma, then, in the vm_area_struct's .fault field (also named my_fault()), I should return a page. except that: In the my_fault() method of vm_area_struct, I cannot obtain a page through: vmf->page=vmalloc_to_page(my_buf + (vmf->pgoff << PAGE_SHIFT)); since there is no allocated buffer: my_buf = vmalloc_user(MY_BUF_SIZE); fails with "allocation failed: out of vmalloc space - use vmalloc= to increase size." (and there is no room or swap to increase that vmalloc= parameter). So, I would need to get a page from the kernel and fill the vmf->page field. How to allocate a page (I assume that the offset of the page is known, as it is vm->pgoff). What base memory should I use instead of my_buf? PS: I also did set up the vma->flags |= VM_NORESERVE; (in the my_mmap()), but not sure if it helps. Is there any vmalloc_user_unreserved()-like function? (let's say, lazy allocation) Also, writing 1 to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_memory and large values (eg 500) to /proc/sys/vm/overcommit_ratio before trying to my_buf=vmalloc_user(<large_size>) didn't work.

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  • Creating PowerShell Automatic Variables from C#

    - by Uros Calakovic
    I trying to make automatic variables available to Excel VBA (like ActiveSheet or ActiveCell) also available to PowerShell as 'automatic variables'. PowerShell engine is hosted in an Excel VSTO add-in and Excel.Application is available to it as Globals.ThisAddin.Application. I found this thread here on StackOverflow and started created PSVariable derived classes like: public class ActiveCell : PSVariable { public ActiveCell(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; } } } public class ActiveSheet : PSVariable { public ActiveSheet(string name) : base(name) { } public override object Value { get { return Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveSheet; } } } and adding their instances to the current POwerShell session: runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveCell("ActiveCell")); runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(new ActiveSheet("ActiveSheet")); This works and I am able to use those variables from PowerShell as $ActiveCell and $ActiveSheet (their value change as Excel active sheet or cell change). Then I read PSVariable documentation here and saw this: "There is no established scenario for deriving from this class. To programmatically create a shell variable, create an instance of this class and set it by using the PSVariableIntrinsics class." As I was deriving from PSVariable, I tried to use what was suggested: PSVariable activeCell = new PSVariable("ActiveCell"); activeCell.Value = Globals.ThisAddIn.Application.ActiveCell; runspace.SessionStateProxy.PSVariable.Set(activeCell); Using this, $ActiveCell appears in my PowerShell session, but its value doesn't change as I change the active cell in Excel. Is the above comment from PSVariable documentation something I should worry about, or I can continue creating PSVariable derived classes? Is there another way of making Excel globals available to PowerShell?

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  • How to specialize a type parameterized argument to multiple different types for in Scala?

    - by jmount
    I need a back-check (please). In an article ( http://www.win-vector.com/blog/2010/06/automatic-differentiation-with-scala/ ) I just wrote I stated that it is my belief in Scala that you can not specify a function that takes an argument that is itself a function with an unbound type parameter. What I mean is you can write: def g(f:Array[Double]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but you can not write something like: def g(f[Y]:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double because Y is not known. The intended use is that inside g() I will specialize fY to multiple different types at different times. You can write: def g[Y](f:Array[Y]=>Double,Array[Double]):Double but then f() is of a single type per call to g() (which is exactly what we do not want). However, you can get all of the equivalent functionality by using a trait extension instead insisting on passing around a function. What I advocated in my article was: 1) Creating a trait that imitates the structure of Scala's Function1 trait. Something like: abstract trait VectorFN { def apply[Y](x:Array[Y]):Y } 2) declaring def g(f:VectorFN,Double):Double (using the trait is the type). This works (people here on StackOverflow helped me find it, and I am happy with it)- but am I mis-representing Scala by missing an even better solution?

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  • Can't see *all* databases in a remote SQL Server instance

    - by George
    Yesterday I posted a related question on StackOverflow. This problem involved not being able to see a SQL Server 2008 instance on another PC. I am not sure why adding the port number enabled me to see a SQL Server that I could not otherwise see, since the port number that I specified was, after all, the default port. Now I notice that I have another problem. While I can connect to the remote SQL 2008 Server instance, I cannot see all the databases in the instance. I am trying to connect to the 2008 instance from another PC using SQL Server 2008 Mgt Studio. I am connecting from a Windows 7 Ultimate PC to a Windows XP Pro PC. I suspect that my problem has something to do with not all database in the remote instance having the same version. For example, I "upgraded" a a SL 2005 database to 2008 by doing a backup frm 2005 and importing it into 2008. When I realized that this was not one of the database that I could see from my other PC, I noticed that the compatability level of the imported was still 2005, so I changed it to 2008. Still I could not see the database. I am sure that this is relevant: I just noticed that on my remote server, the sql node instance node, named "sql2008" says "version 10" when I am on the remote serfver, but when I connect to the sql2008 remote instance fron my local PC, the connection is shown locally as being a "SQL Servr version 8.0" instance. I suspect that locally, I am only being shown databases that are somehow in the remote 2008 instance but have not been upgraded. I guess I don't know what constitutes an upgraded database and I don not know who to connect to see all the databases, even if this requires multiple connections from the source PC.

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  • regular expression for emails NOT ending with replace script

    - by corroded
    I'm currently modifying my regex for this: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2782031/extracting-email-addresses-in-an-html-block-in-ruby-rails basically, im making another obfuscator that uses ROT13 by parsing a block of text for all links that contain a mailto referrer(using hpricot). One use case this doesn't catch is that if the user just typed in an email address(without turning it into a link via tinymce) So here's the basic flow of my method: 1. parse a block of text for all tags with href="mailto:..." 2. replace each tag with a javascript function that changes this into ROT13 (using this script: http://unixmonkey.net/?p=20) 3. once all links are obfuscated, pass the resulting block of text into another function that parses for all emails(this one has an email regex that reverses the email address and then adds a span to that email - to reverse it back) step 3 is supposed to clean the block of text for remaining emails that AREN'T in a href tags(meaning it wasn't parsed by hpricot). Problem with this is that the emails that were converted to ROT13 are still found by my regex. What i want to catch are just emails that WEREN'T CONVERTED to ROT13. How do i do this? well all emails the WERE CONVERTED have a trailing "'.replace" in them. meaning, i need to get all emails WITHOUT that string. so far i have this regex: /\b([A-Z0-9._%+-]+@[A-Z0-9.-]+.[A-Z]{2,4}('.replace))\b/i but this gets all the emails with the trailing '.replace i want to get the opposite and I'm currently stumped with this. any help from regex gurus out there? MORE INFO: Here's the regex + the block of text im parsing: http://www.rubular.com/r/NqXIHrNqjI as you can see, the first two 'email addresses' are already obfuscated using ROT13. I need a regex that gets the emails [email protected] and [email protected]

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  • django-cms lighttpd redirect domain to url

    - by Robert
    Hello, I am using djano-cms for my site, but instead of language alias /en/ /de/ I need to use another domain. I would like to avoid running multiple django instances, and instead I would like to use lighttpd redirects if possible. I would like requests coming to domain2.com getting data from domain.com/en . The best would be if the user entering: domain2.com/offer got transparently data from domain.com/en/offer Tried many solutions with url.redirect, url.rewrite but none seems to work as desired. Also tried with: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/261904/matching-domains-with-regex-for-lighttpd-mod-evhost-www-domain-com-domain-com but that didn't work. Please help. This is my lighttpd configuration. $HTTP["host"] == "^domain2\.com" { url.redirect = ("^/(.*)" => "http://domain.com/en/$1") } $HTTP["host"] =~ "^domain\.com" { server.document-root = "/var/www/django/projects/domain/" accesslog.filename = "/var/log/lighttpd/domain.log-access.log" server.errorlog = "/var/log/lighttpd/www.domain-error.log" fastcgi.server = ( "/domain-service.fcgi" => ( "main" => ( "socket" => "/tmp/django-domain.sock", "check-local" => "disable", ) ), ) alias.url = ( "/media/" => "/var/www/django/projects/domain/media/", ) url.rewrite-once = ( "^(/site_media.*)$" => "$1", "^(/media.*)$" => "$1", "^/favicon\.ico$" => "/media/favicon.ico", "^(/.*)$" => "/domain-service.fcgi$1", } Thanks

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  • "One or more breakpoints cannot be set and have been disabled. Execution will stop at the beginning

    - by sam
    I set a breakpoint in my code in Visual-C++, but when I run, I see the error mentioned in the title. I know this question has been asked before on Stack Overflow (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/657470/breakpoints-cannot-be-set-and-have-been-disabled-problem), but none of the answers there fully explained the problem I'm seeing. The closest I can see is something about the linker, but I don't understand that - so if someone could explain in more detail that would be great. In my case, I have 2 projects in Visual C++ - the production dsw, and the test code dsw. I have loaded and rebuilt both dsws in debug mode. I want a breakpoint in the production code, which is run via the test scripts. My issue is I get the error message when I run the test code, because the break point is in the production code, which isn't loaded up when the test starts. Near the beginning of the test script there is a mytest_initialize() command. I imagine this goes off and loads up the production dll. Once this line has executed, I can put the breakpoint in my production code and run until I hit it. But it's quite annoying to have to run to this line, set the breakpoint and continue every time I want to run the test. So I think the problem is Visual C++ doesn't realise the two projects are related. Is this a linker issue? What does the linker do and what settings should I change to make this work? Thanks in advance. Apologies if instead I should be appending this question to the existing one, this is my first post so not quite sure how this should work.

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  • Alternatives to LINQ To SQL on high loaded pages

    - by Alex
    To begin with, I LOVE LINQ TO SQL. It's so much easier to use than direct querying. But, there's one great problem: it doesn't work well on high loaded requests. I have some actions in my ASP.NET MVC project, that are called hundreds times every minute. I used to have LINQ to SQL there, but since the amount of requests is gigantic, LINQ TO SQL almost always returned "Row not found or changed" or "X of X updates failed". And it's understandable. For instance, I have to increase some value by one with every request. var stat = DB.Stats.First(); stat.Visits++; // .... DB.SubmitChanges(); But while ASP.NET was working on those //... instructions, the stats.Visits value stored in the table got changed. I found a solution, I created a stored procedure UPDATE Stats SET Visits=Visits+1 It works well. Unfortunately now I'm getting more and more moments like that. And it sucks to create stored procedures for all cases. So my question is, how to solve this problem? Are there any alternatives that can work here? I hear that Stackoverflow works with LINQ to SQL. And it's more loaded than my site.

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  • Subclassing ViewPager Breaks Animation

    - by Ryan Thomas
    In my Android application I have an activity which uses a view pager to display 4+ pages (Fragments). I implemented buttons on each screen that move between pages by calling: pager.setCurrentItem(position, true); The view pager and fragments are all working as I desired. I then began looking for a solution to disable user swiping between pages so that the transition between pages in handled by the buttons only. The solution I found was mentioned in a few stackoverflow articles as well as This Blog that suggest subclassing the view pager to intercept touch events to disable swiping. I followed those examples by subclassing the view pager class as follows: public class ViewPager extends android.support.v4.view.ViewPager { private boolean enabled; public ViewPager(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); this.enabled = true; } @Override public boolean onTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { if (this.enabled) { return super.onTouchEvent(event); } return false; } @Override public boolean onInterceptTouchEvent(MotionEvent event) { if (this.enabled) { return super.onInterceptTouchEvent(event); } return false; } public void setSwipingEnabled(boolean enabled) { this.enabled = enabled; } } Using the subclassed view pager and calling setSwipingEnabled(false) works as was desired. The user can no longer move between pages with swipe gestures and I can still move between pages via button clicks by calling setCurrentItem(int position, boolean smoothScroll). However using the subclass breaks the animation between pages. When I call setCurrentItem(position, true) with android.support.v4.view.ViewPager I get very clean scrolling animations between pages. When I make the same call using the subclass the screen has a very brief 'flash' and then automatically draws the new page. I would like to know how to fix the animation while retaining the ability to disable user swiping between pages. I greatly appreciate any help with this. Let me know if you need any additional information. So far I have tested using a Samsung device running 2.3.5 and an AVD emulator targeting Android 2.3.3.

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  • Custom Server to communicate with my software?

    - by Zachary Brown
    I am working on a major project that I need for work. I am working on a project that requires software validation. I would like this to be handled by a custom server I will write in Python, this server will be the "gateway" between the user and product activation. The software program will be purchased from other companies in volume licensing. So this is what I need the server to do: 1). The user clicks to activate their software. (easy, all is good so far) 2). The software gets the distributor's id from another online server. ( this is also easy, and already coded.) 3). Then, the software asks my custom server if the distributor is allowed to activate anymore copies of the software. 4). The server will then check ( an online encoded text file ) to see if the distributor can or can't. If they can, it will tell the software that registration can proceede, at which point the software will pass the software serial number to the server. I have done my best to explain what I am trying to accomplish, but if something is not quite sensible, please let me know. Thanks to all members of Stackoverflow.com for the help in the past, and those who will help me now. I am using Python 2.6 Win. XP Home Edition

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  • How to properly translate the "var" result of a lambda expression to a concrete type?

    - by CrimsonX
    So I'm trying to learn more about lambda expressions. I read this question on stackoverflow, concurred with the chosen answer, and have attempted to implement the algorithm using a console app in C# using a simple LINQ expression. My question is: how do I translate the "var result" of the lambda expression into a usable object that I can then print the result? I would also appreciate an in-depth explanation of what is happening when I declare the outer => outer.Value.Frequency (I've read numerous explanations of lambda expressions but additional clarification would help) C# //Input : {5, 13, 6, 5, 13, 7, 8, 6, 5} //Output : {5, 5, 5, 13, 13, 6, 6, 7, 8} //The question is to arrange the numbers in the array in decreasing order of their frequency, preserving the order of their occurrence. //If there is a tie, like in this example between 13 and 6, then the number occurring first in the input array would come first in the output array. List<int> input = new List<int>(); input.Add(5); input.Add(13); input.Add(6); input.Add(5); input.Add(13); input.Add(7); input.Add(8); input.Add(6); input.Add(5); Dictionary<int, FrequencyAndValue> dictionary = new Dictionary<int, FrequencyAndValue>(); foreach (int number in input) { if (!dictionary.ContainsKey(number)) { dictionary.Add(number, new FrequencyAndValue(1, number) ); } else { dictionary[number].Frequency++; } } var result = dictionary.OrderByDescending(outer => outer.Value.Frequency); // How to translate the result into something I can print??

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  • Google Chrome Extension : Port: Could not establish connection. Receiving end does not exist

    - by tcornelis
    I have been looking for an answer for almost a week now, but having read all the stackoverflow items i can't seem to find a solution that is working for me. The error that i'm having is : Port: Could not establish connection. Receiving end does not exist. lastError:30 set lastError:30 dispatchOnDisconnect messaging:277 folder layout : img developer_icon.png js sidebar.js main.js jquery-2.0.3.js manifest.json my the manifest.json file looks something like this (it is version 2) :` "browser_action": { "default_icon": "./img/developer_icon.png" }, "content_scripts": [ { "matches": ["*://*/*"], "js": ["./js/sidebar.js"], "run_at": "document_end" } ], "background" : { "scripts" : ["./js/main.js","./js/jquery-2.0.3.js"] }, I want to handle the user clicking the extension icon so i could inject a sidebar in the existing website (because the extension i would like to develop requires that amount of space). So in main.js : chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function(tab) { chrome.tabs.getSelected(null, function(tab){ chrome.tabs.sendMessage( //Selected tab id tab.id, //Params inside a object data {callFunction: "toggleSidebar"}, //Optional callback function function(response) { console.log(response); } ); }); }); and in sidebar.js : chrome.runtime.onMessage.addListener(function(req,sender,sendResponse){ console.log("sidebar handling request"); toggleSidebar(); }); but i'm never able to see the console.log in my console because of the error. Does someone know what i did wrong? Thanks in advance!

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  • PHP check http referer for form submitted by AJAX, secure?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is the first time I am working for a front-end project that requires server-side authentication for AJAX requests. I've encountered problems like I cannot make a call of session_start as the beginning line of the "destination page", cuz that would get me a PHP Warning : Warning: session_start() [function.session-start]: Cannot send session cache limiter - headers already sent (output started at C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\ajaxInsert Book.php:1) in C:\xampp\htdocs\comic\app\common.php on line 10 I reckon this means I have to figure out a way other than checking PHP session variables to authenticate the "caller" of this PHP script, and this is my approach : I have a "protected" PHP page, which must be used as the "container" of my javascript that posts the form through jQuery $.ajax(); method In my "receiver" PHP script, what I've got is: <?php define(BOOKS_TABLE, "books"); define(APPROOT, "/comic/"); define(CORRECT_REFERER, "/protected/staff/addBook.php"); function isRefererCorrect() { // the following line evaluates the relative path for the referer uri, // Say, $_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'] returns "http://localhost/comic/protected/staff/addBook.php" // Then the part we concern is just this "/protected/staff/addBook.php" $referer = substr($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], 6 + strrpos($_SERVER['HTTP_REFERER'], APPROOT)); return (strnatcmp(CORRECT_REFERER, $referer) == 0) ? true : false; } //http://stackoverflow.com/questions/267546/correct-http-header-for-json-file header('Content-type: application/json charset=UTF-8'); header('Cache-Control: no-cache, must-revalidate'); echo json_encode(array ( "feedback"=>"ok", "info"=>isRefererCorrect() )); ?> My code works, but I wonder is there any security risks in this approach? Can someone manipulate the post request so that he can pretend that the caller javascript is from the "protected" page? Many thanks to any hints or suggestions.

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  • key-words highlight in <textarea> (again)

    - by Halst
    Wait, I know! I know that this "syntax highlight in textarea"-question was raised like a million times on stackoverflow! But, please, listen. offtopic: I'm not a web-developer, and technically I'm not a programmer at all. I study mechatronics and deal mostly with control-engineering and digital-hardware. And I'm so pissed off that whenever I want to share some application (that would be helpful in my field) and embed it into the web, I need to know such a crazy amount of technologies, like html, css, javascript, flash, etc.. that takes time, which I could have been spending for the benefit of my own field. Right now I'm playing with hardware-description-languages and I'm writing some Python-libraries to convert one HDL into another. And I wanted to embed such feature on the web: http://xhdl2vhdl.appspot.com/ I wanted to implement some basic syntax highlighting (only keywords highlighting will be enough) so that the code could be readable. But the whole idea highlighting something in textarea is not trivial at all. The other difficulty is that the languages I work with are rare, and there are no out-of-box solutions for them. I tried to dig into these solutions, but they are very complicated for me: http://www.nicolarizzo.com/gamesroom/experimental/CodeEditor.html http://marijn.haverbeke.nl/codemirror/jstest.html and there is no clear descriptions how to use them (for my level of knowledge of web-development). So, is there a simple solution, just to highlight a bunch of key-words in textarea or perform something equivalent? Thank you.

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