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  • A single AD user can't log into a single Mac bound to the domain (DirectoryServices error). How can I resolve this?

    - by Ben Wyatt
    On our campus, we have about 60 Macs joined to our Active Directory domain. Most users have no problems logging into Macs, as long as their accounts are configured correctly. However, we have one particular user who is unable to log in to just some of the Macs. He has no problem with most of them, but there is one group of them (all built from the same image) that he can't log in to. The machine in question is running OS X 10.6.2. The relevant entries from secure.log are below, with the hostname and username redacted. Aug 16 10:32:43 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Could not get the user record for username from DirectoryServices. Aug 16 10:32:43 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Will sleep 1 seconds and try again (retryCount = 4) Aug 16 10:32:44 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Could not get the user record for username from DirectoryServices. Aug 16 10:32:44 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Will sleep 2 seconds and try again (retryCount = 3) Aug 16 10:32:46 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Could not get the user record for username from DirectoryServices. Aug 16 10:32:46 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Will sleep 4 seconds and try again (retryCount = 2) Aug 16 10:33:10 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Could not get the user record for username from DirectoryServices. Aug 16 10:33:10 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: Will sleep 8 seconds and try again (retryCount = 1) Aug 16 10:33:18 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: User info context values set for username Aug 16 10:33:18 hostname SecurityAgent[4411]: unknown-user (username) login attempt PASSED for auditing Everything I've found online suggests that our use of Mobile Accounts is causing the issue. I turned that feature off, but I still can't log in as that user. id returns a record for his account, and nothing looks out of the ordinary. Has anyone here run into this before?

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  • Mystery 0xc0000142 error on starting java from a service, as a different user.

    - by cpf
    This is a very convoluted setup, but effectively this is what goes down: Manager service (which I don't have control over) running as admin user X starts my executable, which then starts Java as user Y using the standard c# StartInfo.Username/Password controls. Now, from a basic (not elevated or anything, just admin) command prompt I can run that executable, and Java pops up and works fine, running perfectly under the user it should be. When the service runs the same executable, however, Java silently fails. The only hint I see is this series of events in the event viewer: Service starts "Application popup: java.exe - Application Error : The application was unable to start correctly (0xc0000142). Click OK to close the application. " (googling this reveals a lot of scam sites telling me to use their "free antivirus to fix 0xc0000142 errors easy!"... sigh) Service stops (the java shutdown propagated, which is supposed to happen) And here's what process explorer has for the failure: As you can see, everything shows as a success. Now, I think this might have something to do with the permissions (the user java.exe is running under has traverse permission for the entire drive and full permissions to Directory A, which is where the .jar is), but I just can't fathom how something that works fine from the command line (and, this is an upgrade, the previous system without the user-switching aspect works fine from the service) can fail with such a cryptic message and little showing up in logs.

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  • Time sync fails on Hyper-V VM, but succeeds when I log in as a domain user

    - by Richard Beier
    We have a Windows Server 2003 SP2 VM running on Hyper-V (Server 2008 R2 host). The VM has Hyper-V time synchronization enabled. I noticed that the time on the VM was fast by around 25 minutes. I saw the following in the event log: The time provider NtpClient is configured to acquire time from one or more time sources, however none of the sources are currently accessible. No attempt to contact a source will be made for 15 minutes. NtpClient has no source of accurate time. The time provider NtpClient cannot reach or is currently receiving invalid time data from ourdc.ourdomain.local (ntp.d|192.168.2.18:123-192.168.2.2:123). Time Provider NtpClient: No valid response has been received from domain controller ourdc.ourdomain.local after 8 attempts to contact it. This domain controller will be discarded as a time source and NtpClient will attempt to discover a new domain controller from which to synchronize. I had been logged in as a local user. (We have an old app that runs on this VM - it requires a user to be logged in at all times, and we use a non-domain user account for this.) When I logged in as a domain user, the clock almost immediately corrected itself. Running "w32tm /monitor" and "net time" as the domain user showed no errors, and indicated that our domain controller was the time source. Does anyone know what might cause this, and why logging in under a domain account fixes the problem? I'm wondering if the time will start to drift again. Thanks for your help, Richard

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  • How to prevent the "other user" from appearing on the logon screen of a server?

    - by user114106
    When I want to log into a server console (Server 2008 R2), I click Ctrl+Alt+Del and get "Other User" that I need to click before I get the log in box to add my credentials. This wouldnt be so bad, but I want to use this server as a Citrix server and so far every user that tries to connect has to click other user before they can add thier own credentials.. Has anyone got any ideas on ewhat I can do to get this to go straight to the username and password without the extra click?

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  • How do you change topdir as a user in SSH?

    - by JM4
    I have read several places NEVER to build RPM's as the root user. As such, I defined a new user and have tried building out RPM structures there, however, using the rpmbuild --rebuild src.name.rpm returns an error which states the topdir cannot be accessed: Installing curl-7.20.1-1.src.rpm error: cannot write to %sourcedir /usr/src/redhat/SOURCES error: curl-7.20.1-1.src.rpm cannot be installed does anybody know how to make this change? I have a correct /src/ directory set up under the new user.

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  • When send a meeting invite to a specific user, you get a undeliverable response back from another us

    - by jherlitz
    We have a user, where it doesn't matter who sends it, but if you send her a meeting invite through outlook (exchange 2007), you get a non-deliverable message back from another user. Same one all the time though. I checked her shared calendar properties and removed the user from the list. I checked and made sure she wasn't using cache mode. I checked the manage full permissions and send permissions within exchange and the user is not listed. What am I missing? Notes: Using Outlook 2007 with Exchange 2007 on a XP box and Server 2008.

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  • How to run PHP + IIS8 as Windows User, or should I?

    - by Jake
    I am creating a PHP website on IIS8 that needs to connect to an SQL Server that is in the same Windows Domain as the IIS8. I am given a Windows Domain user account and asked to connect using its credentials. I am using sqlserv_connect() for PHP and I get the error Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON' Is there a way to run PHP + IIS8 as the windows domain user? Or MUST I configure SQL Server to use SQL Authentication mode so that I can supply a username and password?

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  • Is it possible to open an Active Director or Exchange Management Console user dialog directly from Powershell?

    - by Myrddin Emrys
    I'd like to be able to launch either the AD user dialog, or the EMC mailbox dialog directly from a Powershell script to open a specific user. The workflow goes something to the effect of "Does everything look correct on this user? Y/N" to continuing on, or to bringing up the account to edit. There's no reason to completely duplicate the functionality of these dialogs. I don't mind requiring that EMC or ADU&C already be open before the script is run, if necessary.

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  • SSO solution and centralized user mgmt for about 10-30 Ubuntu machines?

    - by nbr
    Hello, I'm looking for a clean way to centralize user management. The setup: About 10-30 linux machines (Ubuntu 10.04 LTS server) Maybe 10-30 users for now. The requirements (hopes and expectations): A single place for the administrator to manage user accounts, passwords and the list of machines each user has access to. (And probably groups.) Doesn't have to be fancy. Single sign-on for SSH: the user should be able to login from machine A to machine B without re-entering his/her password. A Quick Google searches give me pointers to OpenLDAP and Kerberos, but I'm not sure where to start and what problem will each solution actually solve. Which way to go? I'd love to find a clear that focuses on this subject. (Or: am I asking "a wrong question"?)

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  • Weird stuff in in my /var/log/auth.log

    - by xXx
    I just check my logs on my deed serv, i spotted some weird log in the auth.log : Jun 17 22:27:01 mutualab CRON[16249]: pam_unix(cron:session): session opened for user user by (uid=0) Jun 17 22:27:01 mutualab CRON[16249]: pam_unix(cron:session): session closed for user user Jun 17 22:28:01 mutualab CRON[16253]: pam_unix(cron:session): session opened for user user by (uid=0) Jun 17 22:28:01 mutualab CRON[16253]: pam_unix(cron:session): session closed for user alain Jun 17 22:29:01 mutualab CRON[16257]: pam_unix(cron:session): session opened for user user by (uid=0) Jun 17 22:29:01 mutualab CRON[16257]: pam_unix(cron:session): session closed for user user Looks like somebody try to log - and suceed ? - but delog instantly ? I got the same log for hours now... Do you know what happens ? N.B : it's a 10.04 ubuntu server

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  • How do I allow a (local) user to start/stop services with a scheduled task?

    - by Mulmoth
    Hi, on a Windows 2008 R2 server I have two small .cmd-scripts to start/stop a certain service. They look like this net start MyService and net stop MyService I want to execute these script via scheduled task, and I thought it would be best to create a local user for this job. The user is not member of the Administrators group. But the scripts fail with exit code 2. When I logon with this local user and try to execute these script in command line, I see a message like (maybe not exactly translated from german to english): Error code 5: Access denied It doesn't matter whether I start the command line as Administrator or not. How can this local user gain rights to do the job?

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  • How to execute a batch file each time a user logins?

    - by user841923
    I've written a batch script which copies of some files in the CommonAppData folder (C:\ProgramData) to the logged in User's Local AppData. What I would like to do is to execute this script for every user every time they login. I found many articles talking about the execution of batch files on startup but I would like to know how to do the same on each login. I've a written a batch file and copied it in : C:\Windows\System32\GroupPolicy\User\Scripts\Logon But it does not seem to be working.

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  • How to remove a non-empty directory which is not owned by the user in Linux?

    - by Alex B
    If a directory "foo" is owned by user A and contains a directory "bar", which is owned by root, user A can simply remove it with rmdir, which is logical, because "foo" is writable by user A. But if the directory "bar" contains another root-owned file, the directory can't be removed, because files in it must be removed first, so it becomes empty. But "bar" itself is not writable, so it's not possible to remove files in it. Is there a way around it? Or, convince me otherwise why it's necessary.

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  • Windows Server 2003 - Are ODBC Data Source's set per-user?

    - by Jakobud
    When I'm logged into our Windows Server 2003 server, I don't see any ODBC Data Sources, but when a different user logs in (who doesn't have Administrative rights), they have a big list of ODBC Data Sources. Are ODBC Data Sources set on a per-user basis? How come the Administrator can't see user's ODBC Data Sources?

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  • Why must user be logged in for impersonation to work?

    - by user16011
    My Windows Server 2008 server hosts an ASP.net application that uses impersonation. The application works as long as the user being impersonated remains logged on to the server. However, when the user logs off, clients can no longer view the web pages. They get a cryptic error instead. How can I configure the server to work without the impersonated user remaining logged on? Thanks in advance.

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  • How to check whether a user belongs to an AD group and nested groups?

    - by elsharpo
    hi guys, I have an ASP.NET 3.5 application using Windows Authentication and implementing our own RoleProvider. Problem is we want to restrict access to a set of pages to a few thousand users and rathern than inputing all of those one by one we found out they belong to an AD group. The answer is simple if the common group we are checking membership against the particular user is a direct member of it but the problem I'm having is that if the group is a member of another group and then subsequently member of another group then my code always returns false. For example: Say we want to check whether User is a member of group E, but User is not a direct member of *E", she is a member of "A" which a member of "B" which indeed is a member of E, therefore User is a member of *E" One of the solutions we have is very slow, although it gives the correct answer using (var context = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain)) { using (var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(context, IdentityType.Name, "DL-COOL-USERS")) { var users = group.GetMembers(true); // recursively enumerate return users.Any(a => a.Name == "userName"); } } The original solution and what I was trying to get to work, using .NET 3.5 System.DirectoryServices.AccountManagement and it does work when users are direct members of the group in question is as follows: public bool IsUserInGroup(string userName, string groupName) { var cxt = new PrincipalContext(ContextType.Domain, "DOMAIN"); var user = UserPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, IdentityType.SamAccountName, userName); if (user == null) { return false; } var group = GroupPrincipal.FindByIdentity(cxt, groupName); if (group == null) { return false; } return user.IsMemberOf(group); } The bottom line is, we need to check for membership even though the groups are nested in many levels down. Thanks a lot!

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  • Can't open Websphere Portal 7.0 Login Page after its integration with a custom user registry?

    - by jack_sparrow
    I am currently working on a project related to Websphere Portal 7.0 on Windows Server 2008 R2,64 bit. I am trying to integrate websphere portal with my custom user registry.I have completed all the steps required to implement custom user registry in portal as given in IBM documentation.I am adding my custom repository to the default federated repositories of Portal 7.0.I have made the required changes under VMM Federated CUR Properties section in wkplc.properties.I am using configengine.bat file to configure Portal with user registry. But even completing all the steps,when I am trying to open the Portal Login Page through http://ip-address:port_of_portal/wps/portal ,it is throwing an exception on the console: "Error 500: com.ibm.wps.resolver.data.exceptions.URIProcessingIOException: EJCBD0021E: The URI dav:fs-type1/themes/PageBuilder2/theme.html and parameters [['themeURI'=, 'mime-type'= could not be processed: [EJCBD0021E: The URI dav:fs-type1/themes/PageBuilder2/theme.html and parameters [['themeURI'=, 'mime-type'= could not be processed: EJPSG0002E: Requested Member does not exist.uid=portal,o=defaultWIMFileBasedRealm/null] " and in logs Systemout.log "EJPSB0005E: Exception occurred during creation of the principal with Name uid=portal,o=defaultWIMFileBasedRealm and Principal Type USER caused by com.ibm.portal.puma.MemberNotFoundException: EJPSG0002E: Requested Member does not exist.uid=portal,o=defaultWIMFileBasedRealm/null". Here,"portal" is administrative user in my custom user registry.I am able to access WAS using /ibm/console through user "portal".Please suggest some way to handle this issue.

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  • iPhone and Core Data: how to retain user-entered data between updates?

    - by Shaggy Frog
    Consider an iPhone application that is a catalogue of animals. The application should allow the user to add custom information for each animal -- let's say a rating (on a scale of 1 to 5), as well as some notes they can enter in about the animal. However, the user won't be able to modify the animal data itself. Assume that when the application gets updated, it should be easy for the (static) catalogue part to change, but we'd like the (dynamic) custom user information part to be retained between updates, so the user doesn't lose any of their custom information. We'd probably want to use Core Data to build this app. Let's also say that we have a previous process already in place to read in animal data to pre-populate the backing (SQLite) store that Core Data uses. We can embed this database file into the application bundle itself, since it doesn't get modified. When a user downloads an update to the application, the new version will include the latest (static) animal catalogue database, so we don't ever have to worry about it being out of date. But, now the tricky part: how do we store the (dynamic) user custom data in a sound manner? My first thought is that the (dynamic) database should be stored in the Documents directory for the app, so application updates don't clobber the existing data. Am I correct? My second thought is that since the (dynamic) user custom data database is not in the same store as the (static) animal catalogue, we can't naively make a relationship between the Rating and the Notes entities (in one database) and the Animal entity (in the other database). In this case, I would imagine one solution would be to have an "animalName" string property in the Rating/Notes entity, and match it up at runtime. Is this the best way to do it, or is there a way to "sync" two different databases in Core Data?

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  • Windows Form user control hosted in WPF - How to capture the leave event?

    - by OKB
    Hi, In my WPF application I'm hosting a custom Windows Form User Control together with other wpf controls. My custom user control is hosted in wpf using a WindowsFormsHost control. This custom user control contains (the parent so to speak) other custom win form controls (children controls). The children controls can be single or composite controls. How can I capture the leave event on a child control when the user navigates from the last child user control in the parent custom user control to a wpf user control? According to MSDN (http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms751797.aspx) the leave event is not supported in following scenarios: Enter and Leave events are not raised when the following focus changes occur: 1. From inside to outside a WindowsFormsHost control. 2. From outside to inside a WindowsFormsHost control. 3. Outside a WindowsFormsHost control. 4. From a Windows Forms control hosted in a WindowsFormsHost control to an ElementHost control hosted inside the same WindowsFormsHost. Scenario 1 and 2 is exactly what I struggle with. Do you have any solution to this problem? Some workaround or anything is appreciated:) Best Regards, OKB

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  • How to disable MSBuild's <RegisterOutput> target on a per-user basis?

    - by Roger Lipscombe
    I like to do my development as a normal (non-Admin) user. Our VS2010 project build fails with "Failed to register output. Please try enabling Per-user Redirection or register the component from a command prompt with elevated permissions." Since I'm not at liberty to change the project file, is there any way that I can add user-specific MSBuild targets or properties that disable this step on a specific machine, or for a specific user? I'd prefer not to hack on the core MSBuild files. I don't want to change the project file because I might then accidentally check it back in. Nor do I want to hack on the MSBuild core files, because they might get overwritten by a service pack. Given that the Visual C++ project files (and associated .targets and .props files) have about a million places to alter the build order and to import arbitrary files, I was hoping for something along those lines. MSBuild imports/evaluates the project file as follows (I've only looked down the branches that interest me): Foo.vcxproj Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props Microsoft.Cpp.props $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props Microsoft.Cpp.targets Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).targets ImportBefore\* Microsoft.CppCommon.targets The "RegisterOutput" target is defined in Microsoft.CppCommon.targets. I was hoping to replace this by putting a do-nothing "RegisterOutput" target in $(UserRootDir)\Microsoft.Cpp.$(Platform).user.props, which is %LOCALAPPDATA%\MSBuild\v4.0\Microsoft.Cpp.Win32.user.props (UserRootDir is set in Microsoft.Cpp.Default.props if it's not already set). Unfortunately, MSBuild uses the last-defined target, which means that mine gets overridden by the built-in one. Alternatively, I could attempt to set the %(Link.RegisterOutput) metadata, but I'd have to do that on all Link items. Any idea how to do that, or even if it'll work?

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  • Can i change the identity of the logged in user in ASP.net?

    - by Rising Star
    I have an ASP.net application I'm developing authentication for. I am using an existing cookie-based log on system to log users in to the system. The application runs as an anonymous account and then checks the cookie when the user wants to do something restricted. This is working fine. However, there is one caveat: I've been told that for each page that connects to our SQL server, I need to make it so that the user connects using an Active Directory account. because the system I'm using is cookie based, the user isn't logged in to Active Directory. Therefore, I use impersonation to connect to the server as a specific account. However, the powers that be here don't like impersonation; they say that it clutters up the code. I agree, but I've found no way around this. It seems that the only way that a user can be logged in to an ASP.net application is by either connecting with Internet Explorer from a machine where the user is logged in with their Active Directory account or by typing an Active Directory username and password. Neither of these two are workable in my application. I think it would be nice if I could make it so that when a user logs in and receives the cookie (which actually comes from a separate log on application, by the way), there could be some code run which tells the application to perform all network operations as the user's Active Directory account, just as if they had typed an Active Directory username and password. It seems like this ought to be possible somehow, but the solution evades me. How can I make this work?

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  • Using Lucene to index private data, should I have a separate index for each user or a single index

    - by Nathan Bayles
    I am developing an Azure based website and I want to provide search capabilities using Lucene. (structured json objects would be indexed and stored in Lucene and other content such as Word documents, etc. would be indexed in lucene but stored in blob storage) I want the search to be secure, such that one user would never see a document belonging to another user. I want to allow ad-hoc searches as typed by the user. Lastly, I want to query programmatically to return predefined sets of data, such as "all notes for user X". I think I understand how to add properties to each document to achieve these 3 objectives. (I am listing them here so if anyone is kind enough to answer, they will have better idea of what I am trying to do) My questions revolve around performance and security. Can I improve document security by having a separate index for each user, or is including the user's ID as a parameter in each search sufficient? Can I improve indexing speed and total throughput of the system by having a separate index for each user? My thinking is that having separate indexes would allow me to scale the system by having multiple index writers (perhaps even on different server instances) working at the same time, each on their own index. Any insight would be greatly appreciated. Regards, Nate

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  • File upload fails when user is authenticated. Using IIS7 Integrated mode.

    - by Nikkelmann
    These are the user identities my website tells me that it uses: Logged on: NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE (Can not write any files at all) and Not logged on: WSW32\IUSR_77 (Can write files to any folder) I have a ASP.NET 4.0 website on a shared hosting IIS7 web server running in Integrated mode with 32-bit applications support enabled and MSSQL 2008. Using classic mode is not an option since I need to secure some static files and I use Routing. In my web.config file I have set the following: <system.webServer> <modules runAllManagedModulesForAllRequests="true" /> </system.webServer> My hosting company says that Impersonation is enabled by default on machine level, so this is not something I can change. I asked their support and they referred me to this article: http://www.codinghub.net/2010/08/differences-between-integrated-mode-and.html Citing this part: Different windows identity in Forms authentication When Forms Authentication is used by an application and anonymous access is allowed, the Integrated mode identity differs from the Classic mode identity in the following ways: * ServerVariables["LOGON_USER"] is filled. * Request.LogognUserIdentity uses the credentials of the [NT AUTHORITY\NETWORK SERVICE] account instead of the [NT AUTHORITY\INTERNET USER] account. This behavior occurs because authentication is performed in a single stage in Integrated mode. Conversely, in Classic mode, authentication occurs first with IIS 7.0 using anonymous access, and then with ASP.NET using Forms authentication. Thus, the result of the authentication is always a single user-- the Forms authentication user. AUTH_USER/LOGON_USER returns this same user because the Forms authentication user credentials are synchronized between IIS 7.0 and ASP.NET. A side effect is that LOGON_USER, HttpRequest.LogonUserIdentity, and impersonation no longer can access the Anonymous user credentials that IIS 7.0 would have authenticated by using Classic mode. How do I set up my website so that it can use the proper identity with the proper permissions? I've looked high and low for any answers regarding this specific problem, but found nil so far... I hope you can help!

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  • Generic Event Generator and Handler from User Supplied Types?

    - by JaredBroad
    I'm trying to allow the user to supply custom data and manage the data with custom types. The user's algorithm will get time synchronized events pushed into the event handlers they define. I'm not sure if this is possible but here's the "proof of concept" code I'd like to build. It doesn't detect T in the for loop: "The type or namespace name 'T' could not be found" class Program { static void Main(string[] args) { Algorithm algo = new Algorithm(); Dictionary<Type, string[]> userDataSources = new Dictionary<Type, string[]>(); // "User" adding custom type and data source for algorithm to consume userDataSources.Add(typeof(Weather), new string[] { "temperature data1", "temperature data2" }); for (int i = 0; i < 2; i++) { foreach (Type T in userDataSources.Keys) { string line = userDataSources[typeof(T)][i]; //Iterate over CSV data.. var userObj = new T(line); algo.OnData < typeof(T) > (userObj); } } } //User's algorithm pattern. interface IAlgorithm<TData> where TData : class { void OnData<TData>(TData data); } //User's algorithm. class Algorithm : IAlgorithm<Weather> { //Handle Custom User Data public void OnData<Weather>(Weather data) { Console.WriteLine(data.date.ToString()); Console.ReadKey(); } } //Example "user" custom type. public class Weather { public DateTime date = new DateTime(); public double temperature = 0; public Weather(string line) { Console.WriteLine("Initializing weather object with: " + line); date = DateTime.Now; temperature = -1; } } }

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  • ASP.NET MVC Postbacks and HtmlHelper Controls ignoring Model Changes

    - by Rick Strahl
    So here's a binding behavior in ASP.NET MVC that I didn't really get until today: HtmlHelpers controls (like .TextBoxFor() etc.) don't bind to model values on Postback, but rather get their value directly out of the POST buffer from ModelState. Effectively it looks like you can't change the display value of a control via model value updates on a Postback operation. To demonstrate here's an example. I have a small section in a document where I display an editable email address: This is what the form displays on a GET operation and as expected I get the email value displayed in both the textbox and plain value display below, which reflects the value in the mode. I added a plain text value to demonstrate the model value compared to what's rendered in the textbox. The relevant markup is the email address which needs to be manipulated via the model in the Controller code. Here's the Razor markup: <div class="fieldcontainer"> <label> Email: &nbsp; <small>(username and <a href="http://gravatar.com">Gravatar</a> image)</small> </label> <div> @Html.TextBoxFor( mod=> mod.User.Email, new {type="email",@class="inputfield"}) @Model.User.Email </div> </div>   So, I have this form and the user can change their email address. On postback the Post controller code then asks the business layer whether the change is allowed. If it's not I want to reset the email address back to the old value which exists in the database and was previously store. The obvious thing to do would be to modify the model. Here's the Controller logic block that deals with that:// did user change email? if (!string.IsNullOrEmpty(oldEmail) && user.Email != oldEmail) { if (userBus.DoesEmailExist(user.Email)) { userBus.ValidationErrors.Add("New email address exists already. Please…"); user.Email = oldEmail; } else // allow email change but require verification by forcing a login user.IsVerified = false; }… model.user = user; return View(model); The logic is straight forward - if the new email address is not valid because it already exists I don't want to display the new email address the user entered, but rather the old one. To do this I change the value on the model which effectively does this:model.user.Email = oldEmail; return View(model); So when I press the Save button after entering in my new email address ([email protected]) here's what comes back in the rendered view: Notice that the textbox value and the raw displayed model value are different. The TextBox displays the POST value, the raw value displays the actual model value which are different. This means that MVC renders the textbox value from the POST data rather than from the view data when an Http POST is active. Now I don't know about you but this is not the behavior I expected - initially. This behavior effectively means that I cannot modify the contents of the textbox from the Controller code if using HtmlHelpers for binding. Updating the model for display purposes in a POST has in effect - no effect. (Apr. 25, 2012 - edited the post heavily based on comments and more experimentation) What should the behavior be? After getting quite a few comments on this post I quickly realized that the behavior I described above is actually the behavior you'd want in 99% of the binding scenarios. You do want to get the POST values back into your input controls at all times, so that the data displayed on a form for the user matches what they typed. So if an error occurs, the error doesn't mysteriously disappear getting replaced either with a default value or some value that you changed on the model on your own. Makes sense. Still it is a little non-obvious because the way you create the UI elements with MVC, it certainly looks like your are binding to the model value:@Html.TextBoxFor( mod=> mod.User.Email, new {type="email",@class="inputfield",required="required" }) and so unless one understands a little bit about how the model binder works this is easy to trip up. At least it was for me. Even though I'm telling the control which model value to bind to, that model value is only used initially on GET operations. After that ModelState/POST values provide the display value. Workarounds The default behavior should be fine for 99% of binding scenarios. But if you do need fix up values based on your model rather than the default POST values, there are a number of ways that you can work around this. Initially when I ran into this, I couldn't figure out how to set the value using code and so the simplest solution to me was simply to not use the MVC Html Helper for the specific control and explicitly bind the model via HTML markup and @Razor expression: <input type="text" name="User.Email" id="User_Email" value="@Model.User.Email" /> And this produces the right result. This is easy enough to create, but feels a little out of place when using the @Html helpers for everything else. As you can see by the difference in the name and id values, you also are forced to remember the naming conventions that MVC imposes in order for ModelBinding to work properly which is a pain to remember and set manually (name is the same as the property with . syntax, id replaces dots with underlines). Use the ModelState Some of my original confusion came because I didn't understand how the model binder works. The model binder basically maintains ModelState on a postback, which holds a value and binding errors for each of the Post back value submitted on the page that can be mapped to the model. In other words there's one ModelState entry for each bound property of the model. Each ModelState entry contains a value property that holds AttemptedValue and RawValue properties. The AttemptedValue is essentially the POST value retrieved from the form. The RawValue is the value that the model holds. When MVC binds controls like @Html.TextBoxFor() or @Html.TextBox(), it always binds values on a GET operation. On a POST operation however, it'll always used the AttemptedValue to display the control. MVC binds using the ModelState on a POST operation, not the model's value. So, if you want the behavior that I was expecting originally you can actually get it by clearing the ModelState in the controller code:ModelState.Clear(); This clears out all the captured ModelState values, and effectively binds to the model. Note this will produce very similar results - in fact if there are no binding errors you see exactly the same behavior as if binding from ModelState, because the model has been updated from the ModelState already and binding to the updated values most likely produces the same values you would get with POST back values. The big difference though is that any values that couldn't bind - like say putting a string into a numeric field - will now not display back the value the user typed, but the default field value or whatever you changed the model value to. This is the behavior I was actually expecting previously. But - clearing out all values might be a bit heavy handed. You might want to fix up one or two values in a model but rarely would you want the entire model to update from the model. So, you can also clear out individual values on an as needed basis:if (userBus.DoesEmailExist(user.Email)) { userBus.ValidationErrors.Add("New email address exists already. Please…"); user.Email = oldEmail; ModelState.Remove("User.Email"); } This allows you to remove a single value from the ModelState and effectively allows you to replace that value for display from the model. Why? While researching this I came across a post from Microsoft's Brad Wilson who describes the default binding behavior best in a forum post: The reason we use the posted value for editors rather than the model value is that the model may not be able to contain the value that the user typed. Imagine in your "int" editor the user had typed "dog". You want to display an error message which says "dog is not valid", and leave "dog" in the editor field. However, your model is an int: there's no way it can store "dog". So we keep the old value. If you don't want the old values in the editor, clear out the Model State. That's where the old value is stored and pulled from the HTML helpers. There you have it. It's not the most intuitive behavior, but in hindsight this behavior does make some sense even if at first glance it looks like you should be able to update values from the model. The solution of clearing ModelState works and is a reasonable one but you have to know about some of the innards of ModelState and how it actually works to figure that out.© Rick Strahl, West Wind Technologies, 2005-2012Posted in ASP.NET  MVC   Tweet !function(d,s,id){var js,fjs=d.getElementsByTagName(s)[0];if(!d.getElementById(id)){js=d.createElement(s);js.id=id;js.src="//platform.twitter.com/widgets.js";fjs.parentNode.insertBefore(js,fjs);}}(document,"script","twitter-wjs"); (function() { var po = document.createElement('script'); po.type = 'text/javascript'; po.async = true; po.src = 'https://apis.google.com/js/plusone.js'; var s = document.getElementsByTagName('script')[0]; s.parentNode.insertBefore(po, s); })();

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