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  • regexp to match string with (comma-separated) number at start and to split into number and rest?

    - by mix
    Given a string such as: 23,234,456 first second third How can I split string this into two parts, where part 1 contains the number at the beginning and part 2 contains the rest---but only if the string STARTS with a number, and the number can be comma-separated or not? In other words, I want two results: 23,234,456 and first second third. If there's a number in that string that isn't part of the first number then it should be in the second result. My best stab at this so far, to grab the number at the beginning, is something like this: ^[0-9]+(,[0-9]{3})* Which seems to grab a comma-separated or non-comma-separated number that starts the line. However, when I run this in the Javascript console I get not only the full number, but also a match on just the last 3 digits with their preceeding ,. (e.g. 23,234,456 and ,456). As for getting the rest into another var I'm having trouble. I tried working with \b, etc., but I think I must be missing something fundamental about grabbing the rest of the line. I'm doing this in Javascript in case it matters. More examples of what to match and what not to match. 2 one two three should return 2 and one two three 2345 one two three should return 2345 and one two three 2 one 2 three should return 2 and one 2 three 2,234 one two 3,000 should return 2,234 and one two 3,000 The space between parts 1 and two could be included in the beginning of part 2.

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  • Call 32-bit or 64-bit program from bootloader

    - by user1002358
    There seems to be quite a lot of identical information on the Internet about writing the following 3 bootloaders: Infinite loop jmp $ Print a single character Print "Hello World". This is fantastic, and I've gone through these 3 variations with very little trouble. I'd like to write some 32- or 64-bit code in C and compile it, and call that code from the bootloader... basically a bootloader that, for example, sets the computer up to run some simple numerical simulation. I'll start by listing primes, for example, and then maybe some input/output from the user to maybe compute a Fourier transform. I don't know. I haven't found any information on how to do this, but I can already foresee some problems before I even begin. First of all, compiling a C program compiles it into one of several different files, depending on the target. For Windows, it's a PE file. For Linux, it's a .out file. These files are both quite different. In my instance, the target isn't Windows or Linux, it's just whatever I have written in the bootloader. Secondly, where would the actual code reside? The bootloader is exactly 512 bytes, but the program I write in C will certainly compile to something much larger. It will need to sit on my (virtual) hard disk, probably in some sort of file system (which I haven't even defined!) and I will need to load the information from this file into memory before I can even think about executing it. But from my understanding, all this is many, many orders of magnitude more complex than a 12-line "Hello World" bootloader. So my question is: How do I call a large 32- or 64-bit program (written in C/C++) from my 16-bit bootloader.

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  • Deleting object in NSMutableSet Core Data

    - by Luke
    Hi I am having trouble deleting an object in an NSMutableSet using core Data... I am trying to delete a "player" object in the second section of my tableview. I am getting the error Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 1. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (6) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (6), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted) and plus or minus the number of rows moved into or out of that section (0 moved in, 0 moved out Take a look at my code. - (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView commitEditingStyle:(UITableViewCellEditingStyle)editingStyle forRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { if (editingStyle == UITableViewCellEditingStyleDelete) { if (indexPath.section==0){ }else{ Player *p = [self.fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects objectAtIndex: indexPath.section]; [_team removePlayersObject:p]; [_team.players removeObject:p]; AppDelegate *delegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] delegate]; _managedObjectContext = delegate.managedObjectContext; [_managedObjectContext deleteObject:p]; [self.tableView deleteRowsAtIndexPaths:[NSArray arrayWithObject:indexPath] withRowAnimation:UITableViewRowAnimationTop]; } } } - (NSInteger)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView numberOfRowsInSection:(NSInteger)section { switch(section){ case 0: return 7; case 1: return [self.fetchedResultsController.fetchedObjects count]; } return 0; }

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  • Django Admin Running Same Query Thousands of Times for Model

    - by Tom
    Running into an odd . . . loop when trying to view a model in the Django admin. I have three related models (code trimmed for brevity, hopefully I didn't trim something I shouldn't have): class Association(models.Model): somecompany_entity_id = models.CharField(max_length=10, db_index=True) name = models.CharField(max_length=200) def __unicode__(self): return self.name class ResidentialUnit(models.Model): building = models.CharField(max_length=10) app_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_number = models.CharField(max_length=10) unit_description = models.CharField(max_length=100, blank=True) association = models.ForeignKey(Association) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) def __unicode__(self): return '%s: %s, Unit %s' % (self.association, self.building, self.unit_number) class Resident(models.Model): unit = models.ForeignKey(ResidentialUnit) type = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True, default='') lookup_key = models.CharField(max_length=200) jenark_id = models.CharField(max_length=20, blank=True) user = models.ForeignKey(User) is_association_admin = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) show_in_contact_list = models.BooleanField(default=False, db_index=True) created = models.DateTimeField(auto_now_add=True) updated = models.DateTimeField(auto_now=True) _phones = {} home_phone = None work_phone = None cell_phone = None app_number = None account_cache_key = None def __unicode__(self): return '%s' % self.user.get_full_name() It's the last model that's causing the problem. Trying to look at a Resident in the admin takes 10-20 seconds. If I take 'self.association' out of the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit, a resident page renders pretty quickly. Looking at it in the debug toolbar, without the association name in ResidentialUnit (which is a foreign key on Resident), the page runs 14 queries. With the association name put back in, it runs a far more impressive 4,872 queries. The strangest part is the extra queries all seem to be looking up the association name. They all come from the same line, the __unicode__ method for ResidentialUnit. Each one is the exact same thing, e.g., SELECT `residents_association`.`id`, `residents_association`.`jenark_entity_id`, `residents_association`.`name` FROM `residents_association` WHERE `residents_association`.`id` = 1096 ORDER BY `residents_association`.`name` ASC I assume I've managed to create a circular reference, but if it were truly circular, it would just die, not run 4000x and then return. Having trouble finding a good Google or StackOverflow result for this.

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  • Making a Delete and Reply button in Jquery

    - by Branko Ostojic
    this is my second post on the website. Of all other sites i tried, this one gave the most accurate and useful information! I'm in a bit of a trouble with buttons, i have a task to make an inbox and to add a "reply" and "delete" button into every instance of the message. I was indeed wandering if there is a better way to do that than forcing the HTML code into the script, because every message is dynamically generated. Any help and/or suggestions would be very appreciated!(The objects are called from a JSON file). $(document).ready(function(){ $.getJSON('public/js/data.json', function(json){ $.each(json.data, function(i, data){ var output = ''; if(data.from.id != '234' && data.from.name != 'Alan Ford'){ $("#inbox").append( output += '<div class="post">'+ '<div class="h1">'+data.from.name+' - '+data.subject+'</div>'+ //this gives the name of the person who sent the message and the subject '<div class="content">'+data.message_formatted+'</div>'+ //The content of the message //buttons should be squeezed left of the date //this gives the date of the message sent '<div class="time">'+data.date_sent_formatted.formatted+'</div>'+ '</div>' ); }}); }); }); var date_sent=convertToDateTime(); function delete_message(id){ console.log('Delete message with id: '+id); } function reply_message(id, sender){ console.log('Message id: '+id); console.log('Reply to: '+sender); } The complete code in the JSFiddle . Just copy/pasted!

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  • Should I put actors in the Domain-Model/Class-Diagram?

    - by devoured elysium
    When designing both the domain-model and class-diagrams I am having some trouble understanding what to put in them. I'll give an example of what I mean: I am doing a vacations scheduler program, that has an Administrator and End-Users. The Administrator does a couple of things like registering End-Users in the program, changing their previleges, etc. The End-User can choose his vacations days, etc. I initially defined an Administrator and End-User as concepts in the domain-model, and later as classes in the class-diagram. In the class-diagram, both classes ended up having a couple of methods like Administrator.RegisterNewUser(); Administrator.UnregisterUser(int id); etc. Only after some time I realised that actually both Administrator and End-User are actors, and maybe I got this design totally wrong. Instead of filling Administrator and End-User classes with methods to do what my Use-Cases request, I could define other classes from the domain to do them, and have controllers handle the Use-Cases(actually, I decided to do one for each Use-Case). I could have a UserDatabase.RegisterNewUser() and UserDatabase.UnregisterUser(int id);, for example, instead of having those methods on the Administrator class. The idea would be to try to think of the whole vacation-scheduler as a "closed-program" that has a set of features and doesn't bother with things such as authentication, that should be internal/protected, being that the only public things I'd let the outside world see would be its controllers. Is this the right approach? Or am I getting this totally wrong? Is it generally bad idea to put Actors in the domain-model/class-diagrams? What are good rules of thumb for this? My lecturer is following Applying UML and Patterns, which I find awful, so I'd like to know where I could look up more info on this described actor-models situation. I'm still a bit confused about all of this, as this new approach is radically different from anything I've done before.

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  • WCF operationcontract with List type unavailable in (Silverlight) client

    - by Dave
    This is the first time I have tried returning a List of data to a Silverlight client, so I'm having trouble getting the client to recognize this operationcontract. All others are fine. I have a method on the server called ReadOwFileData that needs to return a List. ReadOwFileDataCompletedEventArgs shows up in the Object Browser in the client, but not ReadOwFileDataAsync. What I want is similar to the tutorial here. The Dictionary collection type on the client is set to System.Collections.Generic.List. I tried deleting and recreating the service reference. Web.Config on the server is using basicHttpBinding. Here is the operationcontract on the server: [OperationContract] public List<OwFileData> ReadOwFileData(string OrderID) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); var dFileData = (from p in db.OwFileDatas where p.OrderID == OrderID select p).ToList(); List<OwFileData> x = new List<OwFileData>(dFileData); return x; } Incidently, this works fine: [OperationContract] public Customer GetShippingAndContactInfo(string login, string ordernum) { DataClasses1DataContext db = new DataClasses1DataContext(); Customer dInfo = (from p in db.Customers where p.Login == login select p).Single(); return dInfo; } I would like to read this data in the client and place it into an object I created called ObservableCollection. But that obviously can't happen until the client can see the method on the server. I do not know if this is an acceptable start, but this is what is on the client so far. The ReadOwFileDataAsync object is null: void populatefilesReceivedDataSource(string OrderID) { ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient client = new ArtUpload.ServiceReference1.UploadServiceClient(); var myList = client.ReadOwFileDataAsync(OrderID); // can I just itterate thru the list instead of 'binding' }

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  • jQuery - Moving background arrow in menu

    - by B M
    I would expect something like this to be pretty popular in demand but I had much trouble finding a suiting script. I've got a basic menu build like this: <div id="menu"> <ul> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn1.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn2.png"></a></li> <li><a href="#"><img src="images/btn3.png"></a></li> </ul> </div> The div #menu has a background image of a small arrow. I want the arrow to move vertically in front of the corresponding menu image when you mouseover/mousemove the whole #menu div. Also when one of the menu images has been clicked the arrow should stay in it's position in front of the corresponding menu image. I started something but I notice it's going downwards, since it's only working when you're at the top of the page. What I have is this: $('#menu').css({backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}); //Starting position $('#menu').mousemove(function(e){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px ' + (e.pageY-60) + ' px'}, {duration:100} ) }).mouseout(function(){ $('#menu').stop().animate( {backgroundPosition: '5px 10px'}, {duration:100} ) }); Please help! ps. I'm using this plugin to move background images smoothly.

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  • Why my jquery function is not firing on Firefox

    - by Cristian Boariu
    I have some trouble with some jquery method (for some checkboxes I want them to fire on checked/unchecked so I can do something then). This method works perfectly on Chrome and IE but not on latest FF. jQuery(function () { jQuery(':checkbox').change(function () { var counter = jQuery('.count').text(); var thisCheck = jQuery(this); if (thisCheck.is(':checked')) { counter++; //apply green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').addClass('checked'); } else { counter--; //remove green color to the selected row jQuery(this).closest('tr').removeClass('checked'); } jQuery('.count').html(counter); //enable export button when there are selected emails to be exported if (counter > 0) { jQuery(".exportButton").removeAttr("disabled", ""); } else { jQuery(".exportButton").attr("disabled", "disabled"); } }); }); Basically it's simply not firing...Even with Debug is not catching the first line (function declare nor other lines too). If I move this javascript(without function declare) inside jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { all works nice on Firefox too... Yes, I do use jQuery.noConflict(); before jQuery(document).ready(function ($) { Do you know why this happens?

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  • Very simple code for number search gives me infinite loop

    - by Joshua
    Hello, I am a newbie Computer Science high school student and I have trouble with a small snippet of code. Basically, my code should perform a basic CLI search in an array of integers. However, what happens is I get what appears to be an infinite loop (BlueJ, the compiler I'm using, gets stuck and I have to reset the machine). I have set break points but I still don't quite get the problem...(I don't even understand most of the things that it tells me) Here's the offending code (assume that "ArrayUtil" works, because it does): import java.util.Scanner; public class intSearch { public static void main(String[] args) { search(); } public static void search() { int[] randomArray = ArrayUtil.randomIntArray(20, 100); Scanner searchInput = new Scanner(System.in); int searchInt = searchInput.nextInt(); if (findNumber(randomArray, searchInt) == -1) { System.out.println("Error"); }else System.out.println("Searched Number: " + findNumber(randomArray, searchInt)); } private static int findNumber(int[] searchedArray, int searchTerm) { for (int i = 0; searchedArray[i] == searchTerm && i < searchedArray.length; i++) { return i; } return -1; } } This has been bugging me for some time now...please help me identify the problem!

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  • posting form with file upload

    - by Jan
    I am having trouble with uploading a file when using jquery. I have the following HTML in a form. <fieldset> <ul> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="file" name="formFile" id="formFile"/></div> </li> <li> <div class="field"><input size="35" type="text" name="formFileName" id="formFileName" /></div> </li> </ul> </fieldset> To post the data I am using $('#myForm').ajaxForm( When I post the data and the recieved data contains some javascript, the javascript is not recognised. I expected the javscriptcode to run when the data is recieved, but it happens to early. The results indicates that $ or jquery could not be found. If I remove the name attribute from the input type=file element, there are no errors, but that is not the correct solution. How could this happen?

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  • refactoring my code. My headers (Header Guard Issues)

    - by numerical25
    I had a post similar to this awhile ago based on a error I was getting. I was able to fix it but since then I been having trouble doing things because headers keep blocking other headers from using code. Honestly, these headers are confusing me and if anyone has any resources that will address these types of issues, that will be helpful. What I essentially want to do is be able to have rModel.h be included inside RenderEngine.h. every time I add rModel.h to RenderEngine.h, rModel.h is no longer able to use RenderEngine.h. (rModel.h has a #include of RenderEngine.h as well). So in a nutshell, RenderEngine and rModel need to use each others functionalities. On top of all this confusion, the Main.cpp needs to use RenderEngine. stdafx.h #include "targetver.h" #define WIN32_LEAN_AND_MEAN // Exclude rarely-used stuff from Windows headers // Windows Header Files: #include <windows.h> // C RunTime Header Files #include <stdlib.h> #include <malloc.h> #include <memory.h> #include <tchar.h> #include "resource.h" main.cpp #include "stdafx.h" #include "RenderEngine.h" #include "rModel.h" // Global Variables: RenderEngine go; rModel *g_pModel; ...code........... rModel.h #ifndef _MODEL_H #define _MODEL_H #include "stdafx.h" #include <vector> #include <string> #include "rTri.h" #include "RenderEngine.h" ........Code RenderEngine.h #pragma once #include "stdafx.h" #include "d3d10.h" #include "d3dx10.h" #include "dinput.h" #include "rModel.h" .......Code......

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  • In this example where is the C++ assignment operator used rather than the copy constructor ?

    - by Bill Forster
    As part of an ongoing process of trying to upgrade my C++ skills, I am trying to break some old habits. My old school C programmer inclination is to write this; void func( Widget &ref ) { Widget w; // default constructor int i; for( i=0; i<10; i++ ) { w = ref; // assignment operator // do stuff that modifies w } } This works well. But I think the following is closer to best practice; void func( Widget &ref ) { for( int i=0; i<10; i++ ) { Widget w = ref; // ?? // do stuff that modifies w } } With my Widget class at least, this works fine. But I don't fully understand why. I have two theories; 1) The copy constructor runs 10 times. 2) The copy constructor runs once then the assignment operator runs 9 times. Both of these trouble me a little. 2) in particular seems artificial and wrong. Is there a third possibility that I am missing ?

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  • Retrieve POST data without knowing exact number of fields

    - by James
    Hi all! I'm creating an online poll from scratch which will be held in a database. I'm working on getting a system set up so someone can create a new poll. I will be having the user fill out a simple HTML form with the Questions and Answers (there may be several answers). The user will be able to add multiple questions and multiple answers for each question. As the total number of questions and answers will be decided by the user, I need to create some clever PHP to cater for this - however many there are. When dealing with a static number of questions, it's simple. But I'm having trouble thinking of a way to get all the POST data into individual PHP variables so I can process them. I was thinking of using a foreach loop, anyone got any ideas? Sorry for the long winded description! If anyone needs anything clarified, I'd be happy to do so. My problem is that I can't get my head around how to deal with the POST values when I don't know exactly which element of the array will contain what. If things were static with a set number of questions and answers, I'd know $_POST[0] was Question1, etc Thank you! =)

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  • ID3DXAnimationController.RegisterAnimationSet - How exactly is this supposed to work?

    - by TrespassersW
    I have a mesh file that contains the skinned mesh that I want, and then a bunch of separate animation files that contain various AnimationSets. I'd like to have my program dynamically build the list of AnimationSets available to a mesh at run-time. I know I can combine these into one mesh file using MView, but that isn't practical for what I'm planning. I thought this would be pretty simple since ID3DXAnimationController.RegisterAnimationSet seems like it exists to do exactly this and the MView mesh viewer program can do this. But when I call RegisterAnimationSet using an animation from a different file, it fails with an unhelpful Invalid Call return value. Both the skinned mesh and the animation were exported from the same 3DS file, so I'm pretty certain that they are compatible. Here's my code: var anim : ID3DXAnimationSet; am : IDxAnimMesh; begin fAnim := ResMgr.AnimFetch('man01.x'); am := ResMgr.AnimFetch('a_rigtest.x'); DXCheck(am.Controller.GetAnimationSet(0,anim)); DXCheck(fAnim.Controller.RegisterAnimationSet(anim)); end; The file "man01.x" contains a default animation. And "a_rigtest.x" contains an animation exported from a different portion of the timeline fromt the same 3DS file. So it seems like they should be compatible. MView combines them with no trouble. Am I doing something wrong? Does anyone know how this is supposed to work? Or better yet, does anyone know where I could find the source code to MView? Any help would be appreciated.

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  • How to import 3rd party libraries

    - by Thahzan Mohomed
    I found some cool android libraries the other day and decided to try some. But I'm having trouble correctly importing the library. This is the URL of the library : https://github.com/dmytrodanylyk/android-process-button I first tried importing the library to eclipse (and move the files in java directory to src directory and set the project as library) and importing the sample to eclipse and set it to use the library project (Properties-Android-Libraries). But it didn't work. The layout files said it failed to instantiate [custom widget class]. The I tried importing the .jar file to libs directory (and update the java build path) but it didn't work either. It showed errors in the java files too. I then tried copying all the java and layout files to the sample project directory and it worked. But I'm guessing that's not the way to work with 3rd party libraries. I first thought it's some error with the library but all the other libraries I tried to import to my projects faced the same problem. Can someone walk me through how to correctly import a 3rd party library to my android project?

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  • How do I run an array through an IF statement in rails?

    - by codyvbrown
    I am creating an application that highlights user messages from a stream based on whether or not the user has been 'vouched'. It works fine if it's setup for a single author. For example controller: @vouch = Vouch.last.vouched_user_nickname view: <% Twitter::Search.new(params[:id]).each do |tweet| %> <li> <%= image_tag tweet.profile_image_url %> <% if @vouch.include? tweet.from_user %> <div class="flit_message_containerh"> <u> <a href="http://twitter.com/<%= tweet.from_user %>"> <%= tweet.from_user %></a></u> <%= linkup_mentions(auto_link(h tweet.text)) %> <div class="time_ago"> <%= link_to distance_of_time_in_words_to_now(tweet.created_at) , tweet %> <% else %> <div class="flit_message_container"> <u> <a href="http://twitter.com/<%= tweet.from_user %>"> <%= tweet.from_user %></a></u> <%= linkup_mentions(auto_link(h tweet.text)) %> <div class="time_ago"> <%= link_to distance_of_time_in_words_to_now(tweet.created_at) , tweet %> <% end %> But I'm having trouble doing it for multiple user nicknames. @vouch = Vouch.find(:all, :select => "vouched_user_nickname", :group => 'vouched_user_nickname' ) Any ideas would be greatly appreciated. I'm a rails noob.

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • Write out to text file using T-SQL

    - by sasfrog
    I am creating a basic data transfer task using TSQL where I am retrieving certain records from one database that are more recent than a given datetime value, and loading them into another database. This will happen periodically throughout the day. It's such a small task that SSIS seems like overkill - I want to just use a scheduled task which runs a .sql file. Where I need guidance is that I need to persist the datetime from the last run of this task, then use this to filter the records next time the task runs. My initial thought is to just store the datetime in a text file, and update (overwrite) it as part of the task each time it runs. I can read the file in without problems using T-SQL, but writing back out has got me stuck. I've seen plenty of examples which make use of a dynamically-built bcp command, which is then executed using xp_cmdshell. Trouble is, security on the server I'm deploying to precludes the use of xp_cmdshell. So, my question is, are there other ways to simply write a datetime value to a file using TSQL, or should I be thinking about a different approach? EDIT: happy to be corrected about SSIS being "overkill"...

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  • C++ Using a class from a header within a class

    - by Kotsuzui
    I'm having a bit of trouble with classes used within classes, from header files. I have an class time in time.h: class Time { private: int hour, second, minute; public: . . . int getHour(int h); etc. setHour(); etc. void print24hour(); // Prints time in 24 hour format } And then, main.cpp: #include "time.h" class Class { private: string name; double grade; Time startTime; Time endTime; public: Class(); ~Class(); void setName(); void setGrade(); etc. } int main() { //Need to print time in 24 hour format, but I don't know how. class[i].startTime.print24(getStartTime()); // ??? I'm rather lost } I get quite a few "hour, second, minute, etc." are private errors, I'm guessing I'm doing something simple in a rather wrong way. Please help.

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  • Unsure how to come up with a good design

    - by Mewzer
    Hello there, I am having trouble coming up with a good design for a group of classes and was hoping that someone could give me some guidance on best practices. I have kept the classes and member functions generic to make the problem simpler. Essentially, I have three classes (lets call them A, B, and C) as follows: class A { ... int GetX( void ) const { return x; }; int GetY( void ) const { return y; }; private: B b; // NOTE: A "has-a" B int x; int y; }; class B { ... void SetZ( int value ) { z = value }; private: int z; C c; // NOTE: B "has-a" C }; class C { private: ... void DoSomething(int x, int y){ ... }; void DoSomethingElse( int z ){ ... }; }; My problem is as follows: Class A uses its member variables "x" and "y" a lot internally. Class B uses its member variable "z" a lot internally. Class B needs to call C::DoSomething(), but C::DoSomething() needs the values of X and Y in class A passed in as arguments. C::DoSomethingElse() is called from say another class (e.g. D), but it needs to invoke SetZ() in class B!. As you can see, it is a bit of a mess as all the classes need information from one another!. Are there any design patterns I can use?. Any ideas would be much appreciated ....

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  • Converting IIS Redirect to .htaccess

    - by user1641321
    I am having trouble getting the rewrite to work on an apache server. The end result is so i can make subdomains on the fly just by adding a directory. For example anysubdomain.domain.com will redirect to domain.com/anysubdomain and still appear as anysubdomain.domain.com. Is there anyone out there that convert this for me? <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Subdomain Redirect" patternSyntax="ECMAScript" stopProcessing="true"> <match url="^(.*)$" /> <conditions trackAllCaptures="true"> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^www\.obdevsite\.com" negate="true" /> <add input="{HTTP_HOST}" pattern="^(.*)\.obdevsite\.com" /> <add input="{REQUEST_URI}" pattern="^(.*)$" /> </conditions> <action type="Rewrite" url="/{C:1}/{C:2}" appendQueryString="false" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite>

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  • Weird Rails database errors

    - by Jason Swett
    I've had some trouble getting my Rails app to connect to PostgreSQL so I decided to just say screw it and use SQLite for now. (I'm using the tutorial here: http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html) I started a BRAND NEW, fresh Rails app from this tutorial. When I visit my app in the browser after deleting public/index.html, I get this the first time: Please install the pg adapter: `gem install activerecord-pg-adapter` (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/pg_adapter) That's odd to me because I'm not mentioning PostgreSQL anywhere. Here's my databases.yml: # SQLite version 3.x # gem install sqlite3-ruby (not necessary on OS X Leopard) development: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/development.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/test.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 production: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/production.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 To make things more confusing, I only get that "pg adapter" error on the first load. For every subsequent page request, I get this error: ActiveRecord::ConnectionNotEstablished So even though I removed all mention of PostgreSQL, I'm still getting errors. What could be going on?

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • Specifying a DLL reference

    - by Jesse
    I'm having trouble setting the path to a DLL that is not in the same directory as the executable. I have a reference to dllA.dll. At present, everything is just copied into the same directory and all is well; however, I need to move the executable to another directory while still referencing the DLL in the original directory. So, it's setup like: C:\Original\Dir program.exe dllA.dll dllB.dll dllC.dll But I need to have it setup like: C:\New\Dir program.exe dllB.dll dllC.dl Such that it is still able to reference dllA.dll in C:\Original\dir I tried the following, but to no avail: Set the "Copy Local" value to false for dllA.dll because I want it to be referenced in its original location. Under "Tools Options Projects and Solutions VC++ Directories" I have added the path to "C:\Original\Dir" Added "C:\Original\Dir" to both the PATH and LIB environment variables At runtime, it informs me that it cannot locate dllA.dll Maybe the above steps I took only matter at compile time? I was able to find this http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1382704/c-specifying-a-location-for-dll-reference But I was thinking that my above method should've worked. Any ideas?

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