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• Hosting images from unsecured servers (travelnow.com)

  - by i.am.not.aids

  Hi, My application needs to serve images hosted in travelnow.com (ie. this image) but the application only allow images hosted on a secured server (ie. https). What are my options? TravelNow's suggestion is as follows. How do I do this? Akamai image servers are not secure. Therefore you are unable to serve any of the image urls with a secure HTTPS URL. If you need to serve an image with HTTPS, you must temporarily save the image to your own secure server. This is suggested only for images to be saved as you use them or need them temporarily on the secure page. The hotel images file available from the Affiliate Center provides up to 1.5 million URLs at any time for all properties storing images in the Akamai system. It is not recommended or advised to store all files in advance on your own system since properties change and update images frequently. Although we are not responsible for the images each property stores on the Akamai system, YOU will be responsible for any customer issues arising from displaying outdated or saved image files on your own pages. Thanks! Adrian

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• Bizarre Bug with our Rails app in IE

  - by Callmeed

  We're experiencing a really bizarre bug in our Rails 2.3.4 app. This bug only happens in Internet Explorer (7 and 8). Here's what happens: A new customer creates an account at https://domain.com/signup/free (notice no subdomain) Their account is identified by a subdomain like "example.domain.com" After signing up, they get a welcome screen with a link to their account's home page They follow the link, then click the "log in" button and attempt to login Even though they provide valid credentials, the app redirects back to their account's root url ... they can never reach their admin area The only way they can login (on IE) is by quitting and re-opening IE ... then it works fine ... Something with their initial session is preventing them from logging in. If it matters, we are using restful_authentication and the ssl_requirement plugin ... I'm not sure if one or both of those has a problem with IE but we are stumped here. Also, I've read IE has an issue with subdomains that contain underscores ... this isn't what's going on.

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• Validation problem with a 'JotForm' template

  - by Thomas

  A client sent me a form template they had created using jotform.com to implement on their wordpress site. The form template is supposed to hide part of the form until the user clicks the 'next' button. At which point a script is supposed to validate all of the input fields the user has presumably filled out and then display the rest of the form. While I have successfully managed to get the form to display the next part of the form when the user clicks 'next', it fails to validate the input fields. Its kind of difficult to explain without a huge block of text so it is probably easier to show you: The original working template that the customer sent me: http://www.loftist.com/jotform/List_Your_Loft.html The problem child: http://www.loftist.com/?page_id=78 If you just click on one of the input fields and then click elsewhere on the page, the input fields successfully return a validation error message and prevent the user from clicking on the 'next' button. However, if you simply click on the next button than the next set of fields get displayed. Any thoughts? What am I doing wrong here? Im convinced this must be a really simple problem but Im not sure what it could be....

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• htmlspecialchars() - How and when to use and avoid multiple use

  - by naescent

  Hi, I'm building a PHP intranet for my boss. A simple customer, order, quote system. It will be denied access from the Internet and only used by 3 people. I'm not so concerned with security as I am with validation. Javascript is disables on all machines. The problem I have is this: Employee enters valid data into a form containing any of the following :;[]"' etc. Form $_POSTS this data to a validationAndProcessing.php page, and determines whether the employee entered data or not in to the fields. If they didn't they are redirected back to the data input page and the field they missed out is highlighted in red. htmlspecialchars() is applied to all data being re-populated to the form from what they entered earlier. Form is then resubmitted to validationAndProcessing.php page, if successful data is entered into the database and employee is taken to display data page. My question is this: If an employee repeatedly enters no data in step 1, they will keep moving between step 1 and 4 each time having htmlspecialchars() applied to the data. So that:- & becomes:- &amp; becomes:- &amp;amp; becomes:- &amp;amp;amp; etc.. How can I stop htmlspecialchars() being applied multiple times to data that is already cleaned? Thanks, Adam

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• How do common web frameworks (Django, Rails, Symfony, etc) handle multiple instances of the same plu

  - by Steven Wei

  Do any of the popular web frameworks solve this problem well? Here's an example: suppose you're running one of these web frameworks and you want to install a blog plugin. Except instead of a single blog, you need to run two separate instances of the blog plugin, and you want to keep them segregated. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a user authentication plugin, because you want to segregate your administrative users from your customer user accounts. Or say you want to install multiple instances of a wiki plugin for different parts of your site, or multiple instances of a comments plugin, or whatever else. It seems to me that at the basic level, each instance of plugin would need to be able to configured with a different set of database tables, and would need to be 'installed' at a different URL path. My experience is mostly with Django and Symfony, and I haven't seen a clean solution to this problem in either of them. They both tend to assume that each plugin (or app, in Django's case) is only ever going to be installed once. I'm curious if the Rails folks have figured out a clean solution to this problem, or any other framework authors (in any language). And if you were going to design a solution to this problem, what would it look like?

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• [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

  - by bitschnau

  I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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• Digitally sign MS Office (Word, Excel, etc..) and PDF files on the server

  - by Sébastien Nussbaumer

  I need to digitally sign MS Office and PDF files that are stored on a server. I really mean a digital signature that is integrated in the document, according to each specific file formats. This is the process I had in mind : Create a hash of the file's content Send the hash to a custom written java applet in the browser The user encrypts the hash with his/her private key (on an usb token via PKCS#11 for example), thus effectively signing the file. The applet then sends the signature to the server On the server I would then incorporate the signature in the file's (MS Office and PDF files can do that without changing the file's content, probably by just setting some metadata field) What is cool is that you never have to download and upload the complete file to the server again. What is even cooler, the customer doesn't need Office or PDF Writer to sign the files. Parts 2, 3 and 4 are OK for me, my company bought all the JAVA technology I need for that for a previous project I worked on. Problem : I can't seem to find any documentation/examples to do parts 1 and 5 for Office files . Are my google skills failing me this time ? Do you have any pointers to documentation or examples for doing that for MS Office files ? The underlying technology isn't that important to me : I can use Java, .Net, COM, any working technology is OK ! Note : I'm 95% sure I can nail points 1 and 5 for PDF files using iText Thanks ** Edit : If I can't do that with hashes and must download the complete file to the client, it's also possible. But then I still need the documentation to be able to sign Office file... in java this time (from an applet)

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• Tfs 2010: how to set up a corporate source server?

  - by bwerks

  Hi all, I'm looking for guidance in setting up a corporate source server, but when I google this topic the best I can come up with is articles and walkthrough concerned with configuring VS to use microsoft's public symbol servers for use with debugging .NET assemblies. Provided for background info, the environment I'm concerned with using is Vs2010/Tfs2010. Basically, the workflow I'm looking to facilitate is this: 1) customer reports problem with application 2) application of the appropriate version is installed on a virtual machine 3) developer repros bug attaching to process on virtual machine and leveraging source server (symbol server?) on corporate domain. This is the step I'm concerned with. 4) developer pinpoints problem fixes bug in workspace. 5) developer performs a dll swap on VM to test changes? (side topic, not sure on this) 6) normal development/source control workflows. Any advice is welcome! Edit: since writing this, I have stumbled on this article, which is a nice writeup on the configuration of source server for TFS 2008. Has anyone adapted this for Tfs 2010?

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• Web API Getting Http 500 error : Issue Solved See Below

  - by Joe Grasso

  Here is my MVC Controller and everything is fine: private UnitOfWork UOW; public InventoryController() { UOW = new UnitOfWork(); } // GET: /Inventory/ public ActionResult Index() { var products = UOW.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return View(products); } Same method call in API Controller gives me an Http 500 Error: private UnitOfWork _unitOfWork; public TestController() { _unitOfWork = new UnitOfWork(); } public IEnumerable<Product> Get() { var products = _unitOfWork.ProductRepository.GetAll().ToList(); return products; } Debugging shows that indeed there is data being returned in both controllers' UOW calls. I then added a customer configuration in Global: public static void CustomizeConfig(HttpConfiguration config) { config.Formatters.Remove(config.Formatters.XmlFormatter); var json = config.Formatters.JsonFormatter; json.SerializerSettings.ContractResolver = new CamelCasePropertyNamesContractResolver(); } I am still receiving an Http 500 in API Controller ONLY and at a loss as to why. Any ideas? UPDATE: It appears using lazy loading caused the problem. When I set the associated properties to NON-VIRTUAL the Test API provided the necessary JSON string. However, whereas before I had the Vendor class included, I only have VendorId. I really wanted to included the associated classes. Any ideas? I know there are alot of smart people out there. Anyone?

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• Asp MVC - "The Id field is required" validation message on Create; Id not set to [Required]

  - by Dann

  This is happening when I try to create the entity using a Create style action in Asp.Net MVC 2. The POCO has the following properties: public int Id {get;set;} [Required] public string Message {get; set} On the creation of the entity, the Id is set automatically, so there is no need for it on the Create action. The ModelState says that "The Id field is required", but I haven't set that to be so. Is there something automatic going on here? EDIT - Reason Revealed The reason for the issue is answered by Brad Wilson via Paul Speranza in one of the comments below where he says (cheers Paul): You're providing a value for ID, you just didn't know you were. It's in the route data of the default route ("{controller}/{action}/{id}"), and its default value is the empty string, which isn't valid for an int. Use the [Bind] attribute on your action parameter to exclude ID. My default route was: new { controller = "Customer", action = "Edit", id = " " } // Parameter defaults EDIT - Update Model technique I actually changed the way I did this again by using TryUpdateModel and the exclude parameter array asscoiated with that. [HttpPost] public ActionResult Add(Venue collection) { Venue venue = new Venue(); if (TryUpdateModel(venue, null, null, new[] { "Id" })) { _service.Add(venue); return RedirectToAction("Index", "Manage"); } return View(collection); }

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• Cannot install windows service

  - by Matthew Dalton

  I have created a very simple window service using visual studio 2010 and .Net 4.0. This service has no functionality added from the default windows service project, other than an installer has been added. If i run installutil.exe appName.exe on my dev box or other windows 2008 R2 machines in our domain the windows service installs without issue. When i try to do this same thing on our customer site, it fails to install with the following error. Microsoft (R) .NET Framework Installation utility Version 4.0.30319.1 Copyright (c) Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. Exception occurred while initializing the installation: System.IO.FileLoadException: Could not load file or assembly 'file:///C:\TestService\WindowsService1.exe' or one of its dependencies. Operation is not supported. (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80131515). This solution has only 1 project and no dependencies added. I have tried it on multiple machines in our environment and two in our customers. The machines are all windows 2008 R2, both fresh installs. One machine has just .net 2.0 and .net 4.0. The other .net 2, 3, 3.5 and 4. I am a local admin on each of the machines. I have also tried the 64bit installer but get the following error, so i think the 32 bit one is the one to use. System.BadImageFormatException Any guidance would be appreciated. Thanks.

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• How to start with entity framework and service oriented architecture?

  - by citronas

  At work I need to create a new web application, that will connection to an MySql Database. (So far I only have expercience with Linq-To-Sql classes and MSSQL Servers.) My superior tells me to use the entity framework (he probably refers to Linq-To-Entity) and provide everything as a service based architecture. Unfortunatly nobody at work has experience with that framework and with a real nice server oriented architecture. (till now no customer wanted to pay for architecture that he can't see. This speficic project I'm leading will be long-term, meaning multiple years, so it would be best to design it the way, that multiple targetting plattforms like asp.net, c# wpf, ... could use it) For now, the main target plattform is ASP.net So I do have the following questions: 1) Where can I read best what's really behind service oriented architecture (but for now beginner tutorials work fine as well) and how to do it in best practise? 2) So far I can't seem a real difference between Linq-To-Sql classes and the information I've google so far on the 'entity framework'. So, whats the difference? Where do I find nice tutorials for it. 3) Is there any difference in the entity framework regarding the database server (MSSQL or MySQL). If not, does that mean that code snipperts I will stumble across will word database independent? 4) I do you Visual Studio 2010. Do I have to regard something specific?

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• Product Name Print Several times, How to fix.?

  - by mans

  i had added the following Opencart module for my order report list... http://www.opencart.com/index.php?route=extension/extension/info&extension_id=3597&filter_search=order%20list%20filter%20model&page=4 I have problems with the column "Products". If there are more than one option the products name prints several times. So if I got a product with three options the product name prints three times. Is there any way to fix this problem? i want print product name and model number only once, any idea.? i will attach the results what i got now... this is my sql query... public function getOrders($data = array()) { $sql = "select o.order_id,o.email,o.telephone,CONCAT(o.shipping_address_1, ' ', o.shipping_address_2) AS address,CONCAT(o.firstname, ' ', o.lastname) AS customer,o.payment_zone AS state,o.payment_address_2 AS block, o.payment_address_1 AS address,o.payment_postcode AS postcode,(SELECT os.name FROM " . DB_PREFIX . "order_status os WHERE os.order_status_id = o.order_status_id AND os.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') AS status,o.payment_city AS city,GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,GROUP_CONCAT(op.model) AS model,o.date_added,sum(op.quantity) AS quantity,GROUP_CONCAT(opt.value ) AS options, GROUP_CONCAT(opt.order_product_id ) AS ordprdid,GROUP_CONCAT(op.order_product_id ) AS optprdid, GROUP_CONCAT(op.quantity) AS opquantity from `" . DB_PREFIX . "order` o LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_product op ON (op.order_id = o.order_id) LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "product_description pd ON (pd.product_id = op.product_id and pd.language_id = '" . (int)$this->config->get('config_language_id') . "') LEFT JOIN " . DB_PREFIX . "order_option opt ON (opt.order_product_id = op.order_product_id) "; Product Name = GROUP_CONCAT(pd.name) AS pdtname,

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• Why might ASP.NET be putting JavaScript in HTML Comment blocks, not CDATA?

  - by d4nt

  We have an ASP.NET 2.0 WebForms app that uses MS Ajax 1.0. It's working fine on all our environments (dev, test, IE6 VMs etc.). However, at the customer site the client side validation is not happening. We're currently trying to eliminate all the various factors and along the way we asked them to get their page source and send it to us, and we found something interesting. In our environment, our page has ASP.NET javascript in CDATA blocks: <script type="text/javascript"> //<![CDATA[ . . . //]]> </script> In their environment, the same code looks like this: <script type="text/javascript"> <!-- . . . //--> </script> This may be a red herring, but I'd like to eliminate it as the cause of the validation issues. Does anyone know whether specific configurations/patches/versions of ASP.NET will make it do this?

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• IIS7 dynamic content compression and webservices

  - by vandalo

  I am moving and old asmx webservice to a new server with IIS7. This webservice basically sends a big dataset (10mb+) to a winform application. The old solution was implemented using a custom soap extension which compressed the content before sending the stream to the client. The client, of course, implemented the same custom soap extension, to decompressed the stream in a dataset. Everything has worked pretty well for years. My customer doesn't want to change the code upgrading to WCF. They just want to put the old App on the new server and use the new dynamic content compression features. We're testing things on a test server (win serv 2008) and it seems that it's working pretty well, even if it seems slow: we can't see any difference in performance (speed) between the uncompressed and compressed stream. Here's the question. Where should I put the settings? Most people say I can't put it in my web.config; others say it can be put there. I am a bit confused. Are there any tricks or things I should know? What about mimeTypes? Should I set some parameters, somewhere? ... considering my stream is XML (dataset) ?? Thanks to everyone who would like to help Alberto

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• What database strategy to choose for a large web application

  - by Snoopy

  I have to rewrite a large database application, running on 32 servers. The hardware is up to date, each machine has two quad core Xeon and 32 GByte RAM. The database is multi-tenant, each customer has his own file, around 5 to 10 GByte each. I run around 50 databases on this hardware. The app is open to the web, so I have no control on the load. There are no really complex queries, so SQL is not required if there is a better solution. The databases get updated via FTP every day at midnight. The database is read-only. C# is my favourite language and I want to use ASP.NET MVC. I thought about the following options: Use two big SQL servers running SQL Server 2012 to serve the 32 servers with data. On the 32 servers running IIS hosting providing REST services. Denormalize the database and use Redis on each webserver. Use booksleeve as a Redis client. Use a combination of SQL Server and Redis Use SQL Server 2012 together with Hadoop Use Hadoop without SQL Server What is the best way for a read-only database, to get the best performance without loosing maintainability? Does Map-Reduce make sense at all in such a scenario? The reason for the rewrite is, the old app written in C++ with ISAM technology is too slow, the interfaces are old fashioned and not nice to use from an website, especially when using ajax. The app uses a relational datamodel with many tables, but it is possible to write one accerlerator table where all queries can be performed on, and all other information from the other tables are possible by a simple key lookup.

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• Planning and coping with deadlines in SCRUM

  - by John

  From wikipedia: During each “sprint”, typically a two to four week period (with the length being decided by the team), the team creates a potentially shippable product increment (for example, working and tested software). The set of features that go into a sprint come from the product “backlog,” which is a prioritized set of high level requirements of work to be done. Which backlog items go into the sprint is determined during the sprint planning meeting. During this meeting, the Product Owner informs the team of the items in the product backlog that he or she wants completed. The team then determines how much of this they can commit to complete during the next sprint. During a sprint, no one is allowed to change the sprint backlog, which means that the requirements are frozen for that sprint. After a sprint is completed, the team demonstrates the use of the software. I was reading this and two questions immediately popped into my head: 1)If a sprint is only a couple of weeks, decided in a single meeting, how can you accurately plan what can be achieved? High-level tasks can't be estimated accurately in my experience, and can easily double what seems reasonable. As a developer, I hate being pushed into committing what I can deliver in the next month based on a set of customer requirements, this goes against everything I know about generating reliable estimates rather than having to roughly estimate and then double it! 2)Since the requirements are supposed to be locked and a deliverable product available at the end, what happens when something does take twice as long? What if this feature is only 1/2 done at the end of the sprint? The wiki article goes on to talk about Sprint planning, where things are broken down into much smaller tasks for estimation (<1 day) but this is after the Sprint features are already planned and the release agreed, isn't it? kind of like a salesman promising something without consulting the developers.

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• MS Access: Permission problems with views

  - by Keith Williams

  "I'll use an Access ADP" I said, "it's only a tiny project and I've got better things to do", I said, "I can build an interface really quickly in Access" I said. </sarcasm> Sorry for the rant, but it's Friday, I have a date in just under two hours, and I'm here late because this just isn't working - so, in despair, I turn to SO for help. Access ADP front-end, linked to a SQL Server 2008 database Using a SQL Server account to log into the database (for testing); this account is a member of the role, "Api"; this role has SELECT, EXECUTE, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE access to the "Api" schema The "Api" schema is owned by "dbo" All tables have a corresponding view in the Api schema: e.g. dbo.Customer -- Api.Customers The rationale is that users don't have direct table access, but can deal with views as if they were tables I can log into SQL using my test login, and it works fine: no access to the tables, but I can select, insert, update and delete from the Api views. In Access, I see the views, I can open them, but whenever I try to insert or update, I get the following error: The SELECT permission was denied on the object '[Table name which the view is using]', database '[database name]', schema 'dbo' Crazy as it sounds, Access seems to be trying to access the underlying table rather than the view. Any ideas?

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• setting write permissions on theme subdirectory?

  - by Scott B

  I've a theme which supports multiple templates, each with a header background image whose color can be set by the site owner via a colorpicker widget in my theme's options panel. This has the effect of opening the background image, recoloring it and resaving it back to the server. I've had zero issues with this routine until recently when a customer installed the theme on a web host whose default read/write permissions are apparently much more restrictive than the norm. In this case, the user was unable to alter the colors of the template images because of the permissions settings. I'm looking for a bit of understanding on what the permissions would need to be (assuming I purposefully set them via script) to allow the logged in wordpress user to write to files under my theme's styles directory. The code I'm using to write to the image file is below... $img = imagecreatefromgif("../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/".get_option('my_theme')."/image.gif"); $color = imagecolorallocate($img, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagecolorset($img, 0, $info["red"], $info["green"], $info["blue"]); imagegif($img, $path);

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• Refactoring an ASP.NET 2.0 app to be more "modern"

  - by Wayne M

  This is a hypothetical scenario. Let's say you've just been hired at a company with a small development team. The company uses an internal CRM/ERP type system written in .NET 2.0 to manage all of it's day to day things (let's simplify and say customer accounts and records). The app was written a couple of years ago when .NET 2.0 was just out and uses the following architectural designs: Webforms Data layer is a thin wrapper around SqlCommand that calls stored procedures Rudimentary DTO-style business objects that are populated via the sprocs A "business logic" layer that acts as a gateway between the webform and database (i.e. code behind calls that layer) Let's say that as there are more changes and requirements added to the application, you start to feel that the old architecture is showing its age, and changes are increasingly more difficult to make. How would you go about introducing refactoring steps to A) Modernize the app (i.e. proper separation of concerns) and B) Make sure that the app can readily adapt to change in the organization? IMO the changes would involve: Introduce an ORM like Linq to Sql and get rid of the sprocs for CRUD Assuming that you can't just throw out Webforms, introduce the M-V-P pattern to the forms Make sure the gateway classes conform to SRP and the other SOLID principles. Change the logic that is re-used to be web service methods instead of having to reuse code What are your thoughts? Again this is a totally hypothetical scenario that many of us have faced in the past, or may end up facing.

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• How to do an additional search on archive in rails if record not found, by extending model?

  - by Nick Gorbikoff

  Hello, I was wondering if somebody knows an elegant solution to the following: Suppose I have a table that holds orders, with a bunch of data. So I'm at 1M records, and searches begin to take time. So I want to speed it up by archiving some data that is more than 3 years old - saving it into a table called orders-archive, and then purging them from the orders table. So if we need to research something or customer wants to pull older information - they still can, but 99% of the lookups are done on the orders no older than a year and a half - so there is no reason to keep looking through older data all the time. These move & purge operations can be then croned to be done on a weekly basis. I already did some tests and I know that I will slash my search times by about 4 times. So far so good, right? However I was thinking about how to implement older archival lookups and the only reasonable thing I can think of is some sort of if-else If not found in orders, do a search in orders-archive. However - I have about 20 tables that I want to archive and god knows how many searches / finds are done through out the code, that I don't want to modify. So I was wondering if there is an elegant rails-way solution to this problem, by extending a model somehow? Has anyone dealt with similar case before? Thank you.

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• Rails - Scalable calculation model

  - by H O

  I currently have a calculation structure in my rails app that has models metric, operand and operation_type. Presently, the metric model has many operands, and can perform calculations based on the operation_type (e.g. sum, multiply, etc.), and each operand is defined as being right or left (i.e. so that if the operation is division, the numerator and denominator can be identified). Presently, an operand is always an attribute of some model, e.g. @customer.sales.selling_price.sum. In order to make this scalable, in need to allow an operand to be either an attribute of some kind, or the results of a previous operation, i.e. an operand can be a metric. I have included a diagram of how my models currently look: Can anyone assist me with the most elegant way of allowing an operand to be an actual operand, or another metric? Thanks! EDIT: It seems based on the only answer so far that perhaps polymorphic associations are the way to go on this, but the answer is so brief I have no idea how they could be used in this way - can anyone elaborate? EDIT 2: OK, I think I'm getting somewhere - essentially i presently have a metric, which has_many operands, and an operand has_many metrics. I need a polymorphic self join, where a metric can also have many metrics - do I need to call this something else, perhaps calculated_metrics, so that the metric model can use itself? That would leave me with a situation where a metric has_many operands, and a metric has many calculated_metrics.

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• .NET Remoting: Getting underlying socket?

  - by Alan

  Hi, I'm writing a light remoting app to assist in debugging a problem with remoting communication. This app mimics much of what a larger application does: Periodically sends a heartbeat to another peer application, and periodically verifies that a heartbeat has been received within some time threshold. What we're seeing is in our big application, the heartbeats seem to get dropped. One peer will go for long periods of time without seeing heartbeats from another peer, until the peer that is "dead" is restarted. The big application is responsive in all other ways. We believe it has something to do with the network setup. We were able to repro the problem locally, and fixed it by making some configuration changes to our test environment. To help our customer diagnose the issue, the mini-remoting app needs to log as much information as possible. So, is there a way to get the underlying socket for the remoting connection? I'm aware that I could write a custom sink for this, but I'd like to keep the actual remoting process as close to what is implemented in the big app as possible. Also as an aside, any ideas why the big-app might be "dropping" heartbeats?

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• MouseListener fired without checking JCheckBox

  - by Morinar

  This one is pretty crazy: I've got an AppSight recording (for those not familiar, it's a recording of what they did including keyboard/mouse input + network traffic, etc) of a customer reproducing a bug. Basically, we've got a series of items listed on the screen with JCheckBox-es down the left side. We've got a MouseListener set for the JPanel that looks something like this: private MouseAdapter createMouseListener() { return new MouseAdapter(){ public void mousePressed( MouseEvent e ) { if( e.getComponent() instanceof JCheckBox ) { // Do stuff } } }; } Based on the recording, it appears very strongly that they click just above one of the checkboxes. After that, it's my belief that this listener fired and the "Do stuff" block happened. However, it did NOT check the box. The user then saw that the box was unchecked, so they clicked on it. This caused the "Do stuff" block to fire again, thus undoing what it had done the first time. This time, the box was checked. Therefore, the user thinks that the box is checked, and it looks like it is, but our client thinks that the box is unchecked as it was clicked twice. Is this possible at all? For the life of me, I can't reproduce it or see how it could be possible, but based on the recording and the data the client sent to the server, I can't see any other logical explanation. Any help, thoughts, and or ideas would be much appreciated.

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• Using parameterized function calls in SELECT statements. SQL Server

  - by geekzlla

  I have taken over some code from a previous developer and have come across this SQL statement that calls several SQL functions. As you can see, the function calls in the select statement pass a parameter to the function. How does the SQL statement know what value to replace the variable with? For the below sample, how does the query engine know what to replace nDeptID with when it calls, fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) nDeptID IS a column in table Note. SELECT STATEMENT: SELECT nCustomerID AS [Customer ID], nJobID AS [Job ID], dbo.fn_SelDeptName_DeptID(nDeptID) AS Department, nJobTaskID AS JobTaskID, dbo.fn_SelDeptTaskDesc_OpenTask(nJobID, nJobTaskID) AS Task, nStandardNoteID AS StandardNoteID, dbo.fn_SelNoteTypeDesc(nNoteID) AS [Note Type], dbo.fn_SelGPAStandardNote(nStandardNoteID) AS [Standard Note], nEntryDate AS [Entry Date], nUserName as [Added By], nType AS Type, nNote AS Note FROM Note WHERE nJobID = 844261 ORDER BY nJobID, Task, [Entry Date] ====================== Function fn_SelDeptName_DeptID: ALTER FUNCTION [dbo].[fn_SelDeptName_DeptID] (@iDeptID int) RETURNS varchar(25) -- Used by DataCollection for Job Tracking -- if the Deptartment isnt found return an empty string BEGIN -- Return the Department name for the given DeptID. DECLARE @strDeptName varchar(25) IF @iDeptID = 0 SET @strDeptName = '' ELSE BEGIN SET @strDeptName = (SELECT dName FROM Department WHERE dDeptID = @iDeptID) IF (@strDeptName IS NULL) SET @strDeptName = '' END RETURN @strDeptName END ========================== Thanks in advance.

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