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Is there a best practice for concatenating MP3 Files, adjusting sample rates to match, while preserving original files?

- by Scott

Hello overflow community! Does anyone know if there is a "best practice" to concatenate mp3 files to create new files, while preserving the original files? I am working on a CentOS Linux machine, in command line. I will eventually call the command line from a PHP script. I have been doing research and I have come up with a process that I think could work. It combines general advice from different forums, blogs, and sources like this one. So here I go: Create a temporary folder Loop through files to create a new, converted copy, of file into a "raw" format (which one, I don't know. I didn't know "raw" files existed before too long ago. I could use some suggestions on this) Store the path to the temporary files, in the temporary folder, and then loop through the files to concatenate them and then put the new merged file the final "processed directory" Delete the contents of the temporary file with the temporary raw files inside. Convert the final file from "raw" to mp3 and enjoy the finished result I'm thinking that this course of action might be best because I can't necessarily control the quality of the original "source" mp3s. The only other option I could think of would be to create a script that would perform a similar process upon files being added to the system leaving only the files with the "proper" format and removing the original "erroneous" file. Hopefully you can see that I have put some thought into this and that I'm trying to leverage the collective knowledge of this community to choose the best direction. Perhaps there is a better path that I could take? By concatenate, I mean to join together in sequence to create a new audio file from the "concatenated files."

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Some questions about the .NET Entity Framework and Stored Procedures

- by Bara

Hey everyone, I had a couple of questions relating to the .NET Entity Framework and using stored procedures. Here goes: I know that we can right click a stored procedure and choose Function Import to be able to use with code. Is there a way to do this for many stored procedures at once? When doing a Function Import, I can create a new Complex type or use an existing Complex type. Well, how can I access Complex types/objects that are outside of the edmx file? That is, if I have a class in my project, is it possible to access it while doing a Function Import? When calling the stored procedure from code, it returns an IEnumerable of the Complex type I set it as. However, sometimes these complex types do not have all of the properties that I need, so I create a new class in my project that inherits from the complex type used in the stored procedure. Problem is, I can't seem to cast the complex type returned from the stored procedure to the new class I created. Any reason why I can't do this? What I ended up doing is looping through the IEnumerable and adding each item to a new list of the class that I created. But this feels and looks messy. Bara

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What Test Environment Setup do Committers Use in the Ruby Community?

- by viatropos

Today I am going to get as far as I can setting up my testing environment and workflow. I'm looking for practical advice on how to setup the test environment from you guys who are very passionate and versed in Ruby Testing. By the end of the day (6am PST?) I would like to be able to: Type one 1-command to run test suites for ANY project I find on Github. Run autotest for ANY Github project so I can fork and make TESTABLE contributions. Build gems from the ground up with Autotest and Shoulda. For one reason or another, I hardly ever run tests for projects I clone from Github. The major reason is because unless they're using RSpec and have a Rake task to run the tests, I don't see the common pattern behind it all. I have built 3 or 4 gems writing tests with RSpec, and while I find the DSL fun, it's less than ideal because it just adds another layer/language of methods I have to learn and remember. So I'm going with Shoulda. But this isn't a question about which testing framework to choose. So the questions are: What is your, the SO reader and Github project committer, test environment setup using autotest so that whenever you git clone a gem, you can run the tests and autotest-develop them if desired? What are the guys who are writing the Paperclip Tests and Authlogic Tests doing? What is their setup? Thanks for the insight. Looking for answers that will make me a more effective tester.

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Why does the entity framework need an ICollection for lazy loading?

- by Akk

I want to write a rich domain class such as public class Product { public IEnumerable<Photo> Photos {get; private set;} public void AddPhoto(){...} public void RemovePhoto(){...} } But the entity framework (V4 code first approach) requires an ICollection type for lazy loading! The above code no longer works as designed since clients can bypass the AddPhoto / RemovePhoto method and directly call the add method on ICollection. This is not good. public class Product { public ICollection<Photo> Photos {get; private set;} //Bad public void AddPhoto(){...} public void RemovePhoto(){...} } It's getting really frustrating trying to implement DDD with the EF4. Why did they choose the ICollection for lazy loading? How can i overcome this? Does NHibernate offer me a better DDD experience?

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Trying to make a plugin system in C++

- by Pirate for Profit

I'm making a task-based program that needs to have plugins. Tasks need to have properties which can be easily edited, I think this can be done with Qt's Meta-Object Compiler reflection capabilities (I could be wrong, but I should be able to stick this in a QtPropertyBrowser?) So here's the base: class Task : public QObject { Q_OBJECT public: explicit Task(QObject *parent = 0) : QObject(parent){} virtual void run() = 0; signals: void taskFinished(bool success = true); } Then a plugin might have this task: class PrinterTask : public Task { Q_OBJECT public: explicit PrinterTask(QObject *parent = 0) : Task(parent) {} void run() { Printer::getInstance()->Print(this->getData()); // fictional emit taskFinished(true); } inline const QString &getData() const; inline void setData(QString data); Q_PROPERTY(QString data READ getData WRITE setData) // for reflection } In a nutshell, here's what I want to do: // load plugin // find all the Tasks interface implementations in it // have user able to choose a Task and edit its specific Q_PROPERTY's // run the TASK It's important that one .dll has multiple tasks, because I want them to be associated by their module. For instance, "FileTasks.dll" could have tasks for deleting files, making files, etc. The only problem with Qt's plugin setup is I want to store X amount of Tasks in one .dll module. As far as I can tell, you can only load one interface per plugin (I could be wrong?). If so, the only possible way to do accomplish what I want is to create a FactoryInterface with string based keys which return the objects (as in Qt's Plug-And-Paint example), which is a terrible boilerplate that I would like to avoid. Anyone know a cleaner C++ plugin architecture than Qt's to do what I want? Also, am I safely assuming Qt's reflection capabilities will do what I want (i.e. able to edit an unknown dynamically loaded tasks' properties with the QtPropertyBrowser before dispatching)?

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Set service dependencies after install

- by Dennis

I have an application that runs as a Windows service. It stores various things settings in a database that are looked up when the service starts. I built the service to support various types of databases (SQL Server, Oracle, MySQL, etc). Often times end users choose to configure the software to use SQL Server (they can simply modify a config file with the connection string and restart the service). The problem is that when their machine boots up, often times SQL Server is started after my service so my service errors out on start up because it can't connect to the database. I know that I can specify dependencies for my service to help guide the Windows service manager to start the appropriate services before mine. However, I don't know what services to depend upon at install time (when my service is registered) since the user can change databases later on. So my question is: is there a way for the user to manually indicate the service dependencies based on the database that they are using? If not, what is the proper design approach that I should be taking? I've thought about trying to do something like wait 30 seconds after my service starts up before connecting to the database but this seems really flaky for various reasons. I've also considered trying to "lazily" connect to the database; the problem is that I need a connection immediately upon start up since the database contains various pieces of vital info that my service needs when it first starts. Any ideas?

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Java "Pool" of longs or Oracle sequence with reusable values

- by Anthony Accioly

Several months ago I implemented a solution to choose unique values from a range between 1 and 65535 (16 bits). This range is used to generate unique Route Targets suffixes, which for this customer massive network (it's a huge ISP) are a very disputed resource, so any free index needs to become immediately available to the end user. To tackle this requirement I used a BitSet. Allocate on the RT index with set and deallocate a suffix with clear. The method nextClearBit() can find the next available index. I handle synchronization / concurrency issues manually. This works pretty well for a small range... The entire index is small (around 10k), it is blazing fast and can be easy serialized into a Blob field. The problem is, some new devices can handle RTs of 32 bits (range 1 / 4294967296). Which can't be managed with a BitSet (it would, by itself, consume around 600Mb, plus be limited to int range). Even with this massive range available, the client still wants to free available Route Targets for the end user, mainly because the lowest ones (up to 65535) - which are compatible with old routers - are being heavily disputed. Before I tell the customer that this is impossible and he will have to conform with my reusable index for lower RTs (up to 65550) and use a database sequence for the other ones (which means that when the user frees a Route Target, it will not become available again). Would anyone shed some light? Maybe some kind soul already implemented a high performance number pool for Java (6 if it matters), or I am missing a killer feature of Oracle database (11R2 if it matters)... Wishful thinking. Thank you very much in advance.

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Appropriate uses of Monad `fail` vs. MonadPlus `mzero`

- by jberryman

This is a question that has come up several times for me in the design code, especially libraries. There seems to be some interest in it so I thought it might make a good community wiki. The fail method in Monad is considered by some to be a wart; a somewhat arbitrary addition to the class that does not come from the original category theory. But of course in the current state of things, many Monad types have logical and useful fail instances. The MonadPlus class is a sub-class of Monad that provides an mzero method which logically encapsulates the idea of failure in a monad. So a library designer who wants to write some monadic code that does some sort of failure handling can choose to make his code use the fail method in Monad or restrict his code to the MonadPlus class, just so that he can feel good about using mzero, even though he doesn't care about the monoidal combining mplus operation at all. Some discussions on this subject are in this wiki page about proposals to reform the MonadPlus class. So I guess I have one specific question: What monad instances, if any, have a natural fail method, but cannot be instances of MonadPlus because they have no logical implementation for mplus? But I'm mostly interested in a discussion about this subject. Thanks! EDIT: One final thought occured to me. I recently learned (even though it's right there in the docs for fail) that monadic "do" notation is desugared in such a way that pattern match failures, as in (x:xs) <- return [] call the monad's fail. It seems like the language designers must have been strongly influenced by the prospect of some automatic failure handling built in to haskell's syntax in their inclusion of fail in Monad.

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How to design data storage for partitioned tagging system?

- by Morgan Cheng

How to design data storage for huge tagging system (like digg or delicious)? There is already discussion about it, but it is about centralized database. Since the data is supposed to grow, we'll need to partition the data into multiple shards soon or later. So, the question turns to be: How to design data storage for partitioned tagging system? The tagging system basically has 3 tables: Item (item_id, item_content) Tag (tag_id, tag_title) TagMapping(map_id, tag_id, item_id) That works fine for finding all items for given tag and finding all tags for given item, if the table is stored in one database instance. If we need to partition the data into multiple database instances, it is not that easy. For table Item, we can partition its content with its key item_id. For table Tag, we can partition its content with its key tag_id. For example, we want to partition table Tag into K databases. We can simply choose number (tag_id % K) database to store given tag. But, how to partition table TagMapping? The TagMapping table represents the many-to-many relationship. I can only image to have duplication. That is, same content of TagMappping has two copies. One is partitioned with tag_id and the other is partitioned with item_id. In scenario to find tags for given item, we use partition with tag_id. If scenario to find items for given tag, we use partition with item_id. As a result, there is data redundancy. And, the application level should keep the consistency of all tables. It looks hard. Is there any better solution to solve this many-to-many partition problem?

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How to use db4o IObjectContainer in a web application ? (Container lifetime ?)

- by driis

I am evaluating db4o for persistence for a ASP .NET MVC project. I am wondering how I should use the IObjectContainer in a web context with regards to object lifetime. As I see it, I can do one of the following: Create the IObjectContainer at application startup and keep the same instance for the entire application lifetime. Create one IObjectContainer per request. Start a server, and get a client IObjectContainer for each database interaction. What are the implications of these options, in terms of performance and concurrency ? Since the database is locked when an IObjectContainer is opened, I am pretty sure that option 2) would get me some problems with concurrency - would this also be the case for option 1 ? As I understand it, if I retrieve an object from an IObjectContainer, it must be saved by the same IObjectContainer instance - in order for db4o to identify it as being the same object. Therefore, If I choose option 3), I would have to retrieve the original object, make the necessary changes (copy data from a modified object), and then store it using the same IObjectContainer. Is this true ?

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Protecting sensitive entity data

- by Andreas

Hi, I'm looking for some advice on architecture for a client/server solution with some peculiarities. The client is a fairly thick one, leaving the server mostly to peristence, concurrency and infrastructure concerns. The server contains a number of entities which contain both sensitive and public information. Think for example that the entities are persons, assume that social security number and name are sensitive and age is publicly viewable. When starting the client, the user is presented with a number of entities, not disclosing any sensitive information. At any time the user can choose to log in and authenticate against the server, given the authentication is successful the user is granted access to the sensitive information. The client is hosting a domain model and I was thinking of implementing this as some kind of "lazy loading", making the first request instantiating the entities and later refreshing them with sensitive data. The entity getters would throw exceptions on sensitive information when they've not been disclosed, f.e.: class PersonImpl : PersonEntity { private bool undisclosed; public override string SocialSecurityNumber { get { if (undisclosed) throw new UndisclosedDataException(); return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } } } Another more friendly approach could be to have a value object indicating that the value is undisclosed. get { if (undisclosed) return undisclosedValue; return base.SocialSecurityNumber; } Some concerns: What if the user logs in and then out, the sensitive data has been loaded but must be disclosed once again. One could argue that this type of functionality belongs within the domain and not some infrastructural implementation(i.e. repository implementations). As always when dealing with a larger number of properties there's a risk that this type of functionality clutters the code Any insights or discussion is appreciated!

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Advise guidance on how to form this jQuery script for show/hide fade element

- by Rick

Hey guys.. I basically have several links on the left side of the screen and on the right is a preview window. Below the preview window is another box for the affiliate link code. So what I am trying to do is create an affiliate page where you choose the banner size on the left by clicking on the link and on the right you see it dynamically change to the banner size and the code changes accordingly as well. So far I have the following code and it works but it seems very very cumbersome and bloated. Can you see if I can trim this down? jQuery(".banner-style li").click(function() { jQuery(".banner-style li").removeClass("selected"); jQuery(this).addClass("selected"); var $banner = jQuery(this).attr("class"); $banner = $banner.replace(" selected",""); jQuery(".preview img").fadeOut('fast',function() { jQuery(".preview img").attr("src", "http://localhost/site/banners/"+$banner+".jpg") .fadeIn('slow'); }); jQuery(".code p").removeClass('hide').hide(); jQuery(".code p."+$banner).show(); }); Also to note the funny thing is in FF, when you click for the first to on any link, the original image on the right fades out and in real quick and then it loads the "clicked" image. This does not happen in other browsers...

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Display one div if nothing is selected

- by Levani

I use this javascript to display different div classes upon selection. I need to display one div class if nothing is selected, for example when page is loaded, and that replace it with one of the divs according to the selection... <script type="text/javascript"> </script> css: <style type="text/css" media="screen"></style> HTML: <form id="FormName" action="blah.php" method="get" name="FormName"> <select name="selectName" size="1" onChange="showDiv(this.value);"> <option value="">Choose One...</option> <option value="one">first</option> <option value="two">second</option> <option value="three">third</option> </select> </form> <p id="one" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 1.</p> <p id="two" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 2.</p> <p id="three" class="hiddenDiv">This is paragraph 3.</p> Can anyone please help?

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Threshold of blurry image - part 2

- by 1''

How can I threshold this blurry image to make the digits as clear as possible? In a previous post, I tried adaptively thresholding a blurry image (left), which resulted in distorted and disconnected digits (right): Since then, I've tried using a morphological closing operation as described in this post to make the brightness of the image uniform: If I adaptively threshold this image, I don't get significantly better results. However, because the brightness is approximately uniform, I can now use an ordinary threshold: This is a lot better than before, but I have two problems: I had to manually choose the threshold value. Although the closing operation results in uniform brightness, the level of brightness might be different for other images. Different parts of the image would do better with slight variations in the threshold level. For instance, the 9 and 7 in the top left come out partially faded and should have a lower threshold, while some of the 6s have fused into 8s and should have a higher threshold. I thought that going back to an adaptive threshold, but with a very large block size (1/9th of the image) would solve both problems. Instead, I end up with a weird "halo effect" where the centre of the image is a lot brighter, but the edges are about the same as the normally-thresholded image: Edit: remi suggested morphologically opening the thresholded image at the top right of this post. This doesn't work too well. Using elliptical kernels, only a 3x3 is small enough to avoid obliterating the image entirely, and even then there are significant breakages in the digits:

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ASP.NET MVC twitter/myspace style routing

- by Astrofaes

Hi guys, This is my first post after being a long-time lurker - so please be gentle :-) I have a website similar to twitter, in that people can sign up and choose a 'friendly url', so on my site they would have something like: mydomain.com/benjones I also have root level static pages such as: mydomain.com/about and of course my homepage: mydomain.com/ I'm new to ASP.NET MVC 2 (in fact I just started today) and I've set up the following routes to try and achieve the above. public static void RegisterRoutes(RouteCollection routes) { routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("content/{*pathInfo}"); routes.IgnoreRoute("images/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute("About", "about", new { controller = "Common", action = "About" } ); // User profile sits at root level so check for this before displaying the homepage routes.MapRoute("UserProfile", "{url}", new { controller = "User", action = "Profile", url = "" } ); routes.MapRoute("Home", "", new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = "" } ); } For the most part this works fine, however, my homepage is not being triggered! Essentially, when you browser to mydomain.com, it seems to trigger the User Profile route with an empty {url} parameter and so the homepage is never reached! Any ideas on how I can show the homepage?

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Access VBA question: Change the query being referenced by a function, depending on context

- by Tara Amatista

I have a custom function in Access2007 that hinges on grabbing data out of a specific query. It opens Outlook, creates a new email and populates the fields with specific addresses and data taken from the query ("DecisionEmail"). Now I want to make a different query ("RequestEmail") and have it populate the email with that data. So all I have to do is change this line: Set MailList = db.OpenRecordset("DecisionEmail") and that's where I get stumped. This is my desired result: If the user is on Form_Decision and clicks the button "Send email", "DecisionEmail" will get plugged into the function and that data will appear in the email. If the user on Form_SendRequest and clicks the button "Send email", "RequestEmail" will instead get plugged in. The reason that these are different queries is because they contain very different information that is smudged about in different ways. However, since it's just one little thing that needs to change in the function code, I don't think a brand new function is a good idea. My last resort would be to make a brand new function and use the Conditions field in the Macro interface to choose between them, but I have a feeling there's a more elegant solution possible. I have a vague notion of setting the query names as variables and using an If statement but I just don't have the mental vocabulary for thinking through this.

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Formatting data for printing automatically

- by 0bytes

I have a requirement to retrieve data, format it to mimic an old request format we've used for years and then send it via IP address to any of a number of printers. Gathering the data and selecting the printer is no problem. I need to format the output for the printer and I'm just not sure what's best. The requirement is that the end users not have any interaction with the print request that's generated; only the intended recipients of the request job will know of the printed (& in a future release e-mailed) request. We also a requirement for a future update that we will have to incorporate into this solution an option to change the config in the DB so that each recipient site can choose printing or e-mail notification so I expect that I'll need to keep the control in a console app or webservice. I have the data and I can send it to the printers or generate an HTML-formatted e-mail easily; I just need to format it for the autoprinting. I don't think SSRS will help because I don't know of a way to designate a printer when running a report. Thanks for all help & suggestions.

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Versioning code in two separate projects concurently with subverison

- by Matt1776

I have a need to create a library of Object Oriented PHP code that will see much reuse and aspires to be highly flexible and modular. Because of its independent nature I would like it to exist as its own SVN project. I would like to be able to create a new web project, save it in SVN as its own separate project, and include within it the library project code as well. During this process, while coding the web application code and making commits, I may need to add a class to the library. I would like to be able to do so and commit those changes back to the libraries project code. In light of all this I could manage the code in two ways Commit the changes to the library back to a branch of its original base project code and make the branch name relevant to the web project I was using it with Commit the changes to the library back to the original code, growing it in size regardless of any specific references that might exist. I have two questions How can I include this library project code into a new project yet not break the subversion functionality, i.e. allowing me to make changes to each project individually? How I can keep the code synchronized? If I choose the first method of managing the library code I may want to grab changes from another branch and pull it in for use in another.

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Multidimensional data structure?

- by Austin Truong

I need a multidimensional data structure with a row and a column. Must be able to insert elements any location in the data structure. Example: {A , B} I want to insert C in between A and B. {A, C, B}. Dynamic: I do not know the size of the data structure. Another example: I know the [row][col] of where I want to insert the element. EX. insert("A", 1, 5), where A is the element to be inserted, 1 is the row, 5 is the column. EDIT I want to be able to insert like this. static void Main(string[] args) { Program p = new Program(); List<string> list = new List<string>(); list.Insert(1, "HELLO"); list.Insert(5, "RAWR"); for (int i = 0; i < list.Count; i++) { Console.WriteLine(list[i]); } Console.ReadKey(); } And of course this crashes with an out of bounds error. So in a sense I will have a user who will choose which ROW and COL to insert the element to.

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Saving a single entity instead of the entire context - revisited

- by nite

I’m looking for a way to have fine grained control over what is saved using Entity Framework, rather than the whole ObjectContext.SaveChanges(). My scenario is pretty straight forward, and I’m quite amazed not catered for in EF – pretty basic in NHibernate and all other data access paradigms I’ve seen. I’m generating a bunch of data (in a WPF UI) and allowing the user to fine tune what is proposed and choose what is actually committed to the database. For the proposed entities I’m: getting a bunch of reference entities (eg languages) via my objectcontext, creating the proposed entities and assigning these reference entities to them (as navigation properties), so by virtue of their relationship to the reference entities they’re implicitly added to the objectconext Trying to create & save individual entites based on the proposed entities. I figure this should be really simple & trivial but everything I’ve tried I’ve hit a brick wall, either I set up another objectcontext & add just the entity I need (it then tries to add the whole graph and fails as it’s on another objectcontext). I’ve tried MergeOptions = NoTracking on my reference entities to try to get the Attach/AddObject not to navigate through these to create a graph, no avail. I've removed the navigation properties from the reference entities. I've tried AcceptAllChanges, that works but pretty useless in practice as I do still want to track & save other entities. In a simple test, I can create 2 of my proposed entities, AddObject the one I want to save and then Detach the one I dont then call SaveChanges, this works but again not great in practice. Following are a few links to some of the nifty ideas which in the end don’t help in the end but illustrate the complexity of EF for something so simple. I’m really looking for a SaveSingle/SaveAtomic method, and think it’s a pretty reasonable & basic ask for any DAL, letalone a cutting edge ORM. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1301460/saving-a-single-entity-instead-of-the-entire-context www.codeproject.com/KB/architecture/attachobjectgraph.aspx?fid=1534536&df=90&mpp=25&noise=3&sort=Position&view=Quick&select=3071122&fr=1 bernhardelbl.spaces.live.com/blog/cns!DB54AE2C5D84DB78!238.entry

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How can I unit test my custom validation attribute

- by MightyAtom

I have a custom asp.net mvc class validation attribute. My question is how can I unit test it? It would be one thing to test that the class has the attribute but this would not actually test that the logic inside it. This is what I want to test. [Serializable] [EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute(ErrorMessage = "You must answer yes or no to all questions")] public class Eligability { [BooleanRequiredToBeTrue(ErrorMessage = "You must agree to the statements listed")] public bool StatementAgree { get; set; } [Required(ErrorMessage = "Please choose an option")] public bool? Income { get; set; } .....removed for brevity } [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.Class)] public class EligabilityStudentDebtsAttribute : ValidationAttribute { // If AnyDebts is true then // StudentDebts must be true or false public override bool IsValid(object value) { Eligability elig = (Eligability)value; bool ok = true; if (elig.AnyDebts == true) { if (elig.StudentDebts == null) { ok = false; } } return ok; } } I have tried to write a test as follows but this does not work: [TestMethod] public void Eligability_model_StudentDebts_is_required_if_AnyDebts_is_true() { // Arrange var eligability = new Eligability(); var controller = new ApplicationController(); // Act controller.ModelState.Clear(); controller.ValidateModel(eligability); var actionResult = controller.Section2(eligability,null,string.Empty); // Assert Assert.IsInstanceOfType(actionResult, typeof(ViewResult)); Assert.AreEqual(string.Empty, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewName); Assert.AreEqual(eligability, ((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.Model); Assert.IsFalse(((ViewResult)actionResult).ViewData.ModelState.IsValid); } The ModelStateDictionary does not contain the key for this custom attribute. It only contains the attributes for the standard validation attributes. Why is this? What is the best way to test these custom attributes? Thanks

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Html.RadioButton group defaulting to 0

- by awrigley

Hi A default value of 0 is creeping into a Surveys app I am developing, for no reason that I can see. The problem is as follows: I have a group of Html.RadioButtons that represent the possible values a user can choose to answer a survey question (1 == Not at all, 2 == A little, 3 == A lot). I have used a tinyint datatype, that does not allow null, to store the answer to each question. The view code looks like this: <ol class="SurveyQuestions"> <% foreach (SurveyQuestion question in Model.Questions) { string col = question.QuestionColumn; %> <li><%=question.QuestionText%> <ul style="float:right;" class="MultiChoice"> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "1")%></li> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "2")%></li> <li><%= Html.RadioButton(col, "3")%></li> </ul> <%= Html.ValidationMessage(col, "*") %> </li> <% } %> </ol> [Note on the above code:] Each survey has about 70 questions, so I have put the questions text in one table, and store the results in a different table. I have put the Questions into my form view model (hence Model.Questions); the questions table has a field called QuestionColumn that allows me to link up the answer table column to the question, as shown above (<%= Html.RadioButton(col, "1")%, etc) [/Note] However, when the user DOESN'T answer the question, the value 0 is getting inserted into the database column. As a result, I don't get what I expect, ie, a validation error. In no place have I stipulated a default value of 0 for the fields in the answers table. So what is happening? Any ideas?

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C#: socket closing if user user exists

- by corvallo

Hi to everyone I'm trying to create a server/client application for a school project. This is the scenario: a server on a given port, multiple user connected, each user has it's own username. Now I want to check if a user that try to connect to the user use a valid username, for example if a user with username A it's already connected a new user that want to connect cannot use the username A. If this happen the server answer to the new client with an error code. This is the code for this part private void Receive() { while (true) { byte[] buffer = new byte[64]; socket.Receive(buffer); string received = Encoding.Default.GetString(buffer); if (received.IndexOf("!error") != -1) { string[] mySplit = received.Split(':'); string errorCode = mySplit[1].Trim((char)0); if (errorCode == "user exists") { richTextBox1.AppendText("Your connection was refused by server, because there's already another user connected with the username you choose"); socket.Disconnect(true); connectBtn.Enabled = true; } } } } But when I try to do this the program crash and visual studio said that there's an invalid cross-thread operation on richTextBox1. Any ideas. Thank you in advance.

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ASP.NET server data persistence

- by Wayne Werner

Hi, I'm not really sure exactly how the question should be phrased, so please be patient if I ask the wrong thing. I'm writing an ASP.NET application using VB as the code behind language. I have a data access class that connects to the DB to run the query (parameterized, of course), and another class to perform the validation tasks - I access this class from my aspx page. What I would like is to be able to store the data server side and wait for the user to choose from a few options based on the validity of the data. But unless my understanding is completely off, having persistent data objects on the server will give problems when multiple users connect? My ultimate goal is that once the data has been validated the end user can't modify it. Currently I'm validating the data, but I still have to retrieve it from the web form AFTER the user says OK, which obviously leaves open the possibility of injecting bad data either accidentally (unlikely) or on purpose (also unlikely for the use, but I'd prefer not to take the chance). So am I completely off in my understanding? If so, can someone point me to a resource that provides some instructions on keeping persistent data on the server, or provide instruction? Thanks!

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Need help with jQuery/AJAX call in Safari/Mac

- by protohominid

I've got something that works perfectly in FF and MSIE but it's not working properly in Safari. It's a form with selects that get updated via AJAX/jQuery from a MySQL DB. In Safari, when you select the first item, it correctly loads the options for the next select menu; however, when you choose one of those (which loads new options in a subsequent select menu), the whole form resets and is broken from that point on. Does anyone know of a Safari bug that would cause this? Here's the JS: $(document).ready(function(){ $("#searchForm select").change(updateSearchForm); }); function updateSearchForm() { $.ajax({ url: '/elements/search_form.php?ajax=true', data: $('#searchForm').serialize(), error:function(xhr,err){ alert("readyState: "+xhr.readyState+"\nstatus: "+xhr.status); alert("responseText: "+xhr.responseText); }, success: function(data) { $("#searchForm").html(data); $("#searchForm select").change(updateSearchForm); } }); } I can post the relevant PHP/HTML for the form, but it's lengthy. I'm relatively new to JS so I'm not sure where to start debugging this... TIA

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