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  • Address book Phone number (+45) prefix causing crash!

    - by CCDEV
    Hi Guys... I am having trouble getting phone numbers from the iPhone Addressbook. There is no problem when the number do not contain a country code prefix like +45, but if it does, my app crashes... Is this a known issue? I haven't been able to find anything about it... Thanks EDIT: I get phonenumber like this: -(void)getContact { ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *pp = [[ABPeoplePickerNavigationController alloc] init]; pp.displayedProperties = [NSArray arrayWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithInt:kABPersonPhoneProperty]]; pp.peoplePickerDelegate = self; [self presentModalViewController:pp animated:YES]; [pp release]; } - (void)peoplePickerNavigationControllerDidCancel:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker { // assigning control back to the main controller [self dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; } - (BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person { return YES; } -(BOOL)peoplePickerNavigationController:(ABPeoplePickerNavigationController *)peoplePicker shouldContinueAfterSelectingPerson:(ABRecordRef)person property:(ABPropertyID)property identifier:(ABMultiValueIdentifier)identifier { ABMultiValueRef phoneProperty = ABRecordCopyValue(person,property); saveString = (NSString *)ABMultiValueCopyValueAtIndex(phoneProperty,identifier); saveString = [saveString stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@" " withString:@""]; nummerTextField.text = saveString; }

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  • How can I introduce a regex action to match the first element in a Catalyst URI ?

    - by RET
    Background: I'm using a CRUD framework in Catalyst that auto-generates forms and lists for all tables in a given database. For example: /admin/list/person or /admin/add/person or /admin/edit/person/3 all dynamically generate pages or forms as appropriate for the table 'person'. (In other words, Admin.pm has actions edit, list, add, delete and so on that expect a table argument and possibly a row-identifying argument.) Question: In the particular application I'm building, the database will be used by multiple customers, so I want to introduce a URI scheme where the first element is the customer's identifier, followed by the administrative action/table etc: /cust1/admin/list/person /cust2/admin/add/person /cust2/admin/edit/person/3 This is for "branding" purposes, and also to ensure that bookmarks or URLs passed from one user to another do the expected thing. But I'm having a lot of trouble getting this to work. I would prefer not to have to modify the subs in the existing framework, so I've been trying variations on the following: sub customer : Regex('^(\w+)/(admin)$') { my ($self, $c, @args) = @_; #validation of captured arg snipped.. my $path = join('/', 'admin', @args); $c->request->path($path); $c->dispatcher->prepare_action($c); $c->forward($c->action, $c->req->args); } But it just will not behave. I've used regex matching actions many times, but putting one in the very first 'barrel' of a URI seems unusually traumatic. Any suggestions gratefully received.

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  • JSON is not being recognised

    - by richzilla
    Hi All, Im having a bit of trouble getting my JSON to be recognised by my web page. I have validated JSON that im getting returned from server, so i know that is correct, however my javascript function is not doing anything with it. My succes function is as follows: success: function(data) { $('input[name=customer_name]').val(data.name); $('textarea[name=customer_address]').text(data.address); $('input[name=customer_email]').val(data.email); $('input[name=customer_tel]').val(data.tel); $('input[name=user_id]').val(item.id); } Yet the fields are not being repopulated with the data that is returned, if it helps, a sample of my JSON data: { "name": "Terry O'Toole", "address": "Terrys House\nTerry Street\nTerrysville\nTerrytown\nTT1 6TT", "email": "[email protected]", "tel": "05110000000" } Any help would be appreciated. [EDIT] Expanded ajax call: $.ajax({ url: "<?php echo site_url('user/users/ajax'); ?>", type: 'POST', data: {"userid": item.id}, success: function(data) { $('input[name=customer_name]').val(data.name); $('textarea[name=customer_address]').text(data.address); $('input[name=customer_email]').val(data.email); $('input[name=customer_tel]').val(data.tel); $('input[name=user_id]').val(item.id); } }) });

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  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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  • Subversion update misses new directories

    - by Mike Q
    Hi all, Periodically we have trouble with SVN when doing updates. Very occasionally when someone adds a new directory doing an update through Tortoise doesn't work. If we do a "Fully Recursive" update using "Update from revision..." option then it picks it up fine. I'm poked around and seen this question which is virtually identical but with no answer. I've found the item on the SVN website, referenced by that post, that talks about an issue in 1.6.0 which is now fixed. However my SVN version is 1.6.9 and Tortoise is 1.6.7 so I wouldn't expect to have this problem any more. This only seems to occur with new directories, never seen it for individual files. We may have had older versions of Tortoise at one point (can't remember which tho) so maybe some issue has been introduced into our repo that an upgrade doesn't solve. We have the workaround but it wastes a few minutes of head-scratching after failed builds to figure it out and people who haven't come across this problem before really struggle until they ask someone else. Anyone know if this is a known bug and any permanent solutions? Thanks.

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  • Implicit linking vs. explicit linking of DLL in Delphi

    - by Tom
    I'm having trouble getting my dll to work when using explicit linking. Using implicit linking it works fine. Would someone google me a solution? :) No, just kidding, here's my code: This code works fine: function CountChars(_s: Pchar): integer; StdCall; external 'sample_dll.dll'; procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); begin ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); end; This code doesn't work (I get an access violation): procedure TForm1.Button1Click(Sender: TObject); var LibHandle: HMODULE; CountChars: function(_s: PChar): integer; begin LibHandle := LoadLibrary('sample_dll.dll'); ShowMessage(IntToStr(CountChars('Hello world'))); // Access violation FreeLibrary(LibHandle); end; This is the DLL code: library sample_dll; uses FastMM4, FastMM4Messages, SysUtils, Classes; {$R *.res} function CountChars(_s: PChar): integer; stdcall; begin Result := Length(_s); end; exports CountChars; begin end.

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  • Convert Virtual Key Code to unicode string

    - by Joshua Weinberg
    I have some code I've been using to get the current keyboard layout and convert a virtual key code into a string. This works great in most situations, but I'm having trouble with some specific cases. The one that brought this to light is the accent key next to the backspace key on german QWERTZ keyboards. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:KB_Germany.svg That key generates the VK code I'd expect kVK_ANSI_Equal but when using a QWERTZ keyboard layout I get no description back. Its ending up as a dead key because its supposed to be composed with another key. Is there any way to catch these cases and do the proper conversion? My current code is below. TISInputSourceRef currentKeyboard = TISCopyCurrentKeyboardInputSource(); CFDataRef uchr = (CFDataRef)TISGetInputSourceProperty(currentKeyboard, kTISPropertyUnicodeKeyLayoutData); const UCKeyboardLayout *keyboardLayout = (const UCKeyboardLayout*)CFDataGetBytePtr(uchr); if(keyboardLayout) { UInt32 deadKeyState = 0; UniCharCount maxStringLength = 255; UniCharCount actualStringLength = 0; UniChar unicodeString[maxStringLength]; OSStatus status = UCKeyTranslate(keyboardLayout, keyCode, kUCKeyActionDown, 0, LMGetKbdType(), kUCKeyTranslateNoDeadKeysBit, &deadKeyState, maxStringLength, &actualStringLength, unicodeString); if(actualStringLength > 0 && status == noErr) return [[NSString stringWithCharacters:unicodeString length:(NSInteger)actualStringLength] uppercaseString]; }

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  • calling a function from a set of overloads depending on the dynamic type of an object

    - by Jasper
    I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

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  • How to understand other people's CSS architectures?

    - by John
    I am reasonably good with CSS. However, when working with someone else's CSS, it's difficult for me to see the "bigger picture" in their architecture (but i have no problem when working with a CSS sheet I wrote myself). For example, I have no problems using Firebug to isolate and fix cross browser compatibility issues, or fixing a floating issue, or changing the height on a particular element. But if I'm asked to do something drastic such as, "I want the right sidebars of pages A, B, C and D to have a red border. I want the right side bars of pages E, F and G to have a blue border if and only if the user mouses over", then it takes me time a long time to map out all the CSS inheritance rules to see the "bigger picture". For some reason, I don't encounter the same difficulty with backend code. After a quick debriefing of how a feature works, and a quick inspection of the controller and model code, I will feel comfortable with the architecture. I will think, "it's reasonable to assume that there will be an Employee class that inherits from the Person Class that's used by a Department controller". If I discover inconvenient details that aren't consistent with overall architectural style, I am confident that I can hammer things back in place. With someone else's CSS work, it's much harder for me to see the "relationships" between different classes, and when and how the classes are used. When there are many inheritance rules, I feel overwhelmed. I'm having trouble articulating my question and issues... All I want to know is, why is it so much harder for me to see the bigger picture in someone else's CSS architecture than compared to someone else's business logic layer? **Does it have any thing to do with CSS being a relatively new technology, and there aren't many popular design patterns?

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  • Html 5 Time Tag not recognized by IE8 when cloning

    - by matsientst
    I have been having trouble getting IE to recognize the new Time tag in this context. This all works great in FF. Here is the code: var origComment = $('.articleComment:first div'); if (origComment.length > 0) { var commentHtml = origComment.clone(true); commentHtml.find('time').text('today'); var html = '<article class="' + ((side == 'LEFT') ? '' : 'that') + '">' + commentHtml.html() + '</article>'; $(html).insertAfter('.articleComment:last'); The HTML looks something like this: <article class="articleComment that"> <div id="156" class="parent"> <div class="byline"> <p>Posted <time pubdate="pubdate" datetime="2010-05-07T09:11:08">today</time> by<br/> <a class="username" href="/u/matt">matt</a> </p> <p class="report"><a href="#">Report?</a></p> </div> <div class="comment">left</div> </div> </article> IE can find the Time tag but it returns a collection of 2 elements. I assume the beginning and ending. However, I cannot access it to modify it. I have tried val(), html() and text(). I also can't drop to the actual HTMLElement. I can't get(0).innerHTML. But, if I .get(0).tagName it actually is the Time tag I've got. Any ideas? I hope this makes sense.

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  • dynamic inheritance without touching classes

    - by Jasper
    I feel like the answer to this question is really simple, but I really am having trouble finding it. So here goes: Suppose you have the following classes: class Base; class Child : public Base; class Displayer { public: Displayer(Base* element); Displayer(Child* element); } Additionally, I have a Base* object which might point to either an instance of the class Base or an instance of the class Child. Now I want to create a Displayer based on the element pointed to by object, however, I want to pick the right version of the constructor. As I currently have it, this would accomplish just that (I am being a bit fuzzy with my C++ here, but I think this the clearest way) object->createDisplayer(); virtual void Base::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } virtual void Child::createDisplayer() { new Displayer(this); } This works, however, there is a problem with this: Base and Child are part of the application system, while Displayer is part of the GUI system. I want to build the GUI system independently of the Application system, so that it is easy to replace the GUI. This means that Base and Child should not know about Displayer. However, I do not know how I can achieve this without letting the Application classes know about the GUI. Am I missing something very obvious or am I trying something that is not possible?

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  • Entity Filter child without include

    - by Lic
    i'm a C# developer and i have a trouble with Entity Framework 5. I have mapped my database with Entity using the default code generation strategy. In particolar there are three classes: menus, submenus and submenuitems. The relationships about three classes are: one menu - to many submenus one submenu - to many submenuitems. All classes have a boolean attribute called "Active". Now, i want to filter all the Menus with the SubMenus active, and the SubMenus with the SubMenuItems active. To get this i've tried this: var tmp = _model.Menus.Where(m => m.Active) .Select => new { Menu = x, SubMenu = x.SubMenus.Where(sb => sb.Active) .Select(y => new { SubMenu = y, SubMenuItem = y.SubMenuItems.Where(sbi => sbi.Active) }) }) .Select(x => x.Menu).ToList(); But didn't work. Someone can help me? Thank you for your help!

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  • query sql database for specific value in vb.net

    - by user2952298
    I am trying to convert VBA code to vb.net, im having trouble trying to search the database for a specific value around an if statement. any suggestions would be greatly appriciated. thedatabase is called confirmation, type is the column and email is the value im looking for. could datasets work? Function SendEmails() As Boolean Dim objOutlook As Outlook.Application Dim objOutlookMsg As Outlook.MailItem Dim objOutlookRecip As Outlook.Recipient Dim objOutlookAttach As Outlook.Attachment Dim intResponse As Integer Dim confirmation As New ADODB.Recordset Dim details As New ADODB.Recordset On Error GoTo Err_Execute Dim MyConnObj As New ADODB.Connection Dim cn As New ADODB.Connection() MyConnObj.Open( _ "Provider = sqloledb;" & _ "Server=myserver;" & _ "Database=Email_Text;" & _ "User Id=bla;" & _ "Password=bla;") confirmation.Open("Confirmation_list", MyConnObj) details.Open("MessagesToSend", MyConnObj) If details.EOF = False Then confirmation.MoveFirst() Do While Not confirmation.EOF If confirmation![Type] = "Email" Then ' Create the Outlook session. objOutlook = CreateObject("Outlook.Application") ' Create the message. End IF

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  • Cocoa button won't display image

    - by A Mann
    Just started exploring Cocoa so pretty much a total noob. I've written a very simple game. Set it up in Interface Builder and got it working fine. It contains a number of buttons and I'm now trying to get the buttons to display images. To start with I'm trying to get an image displayed on just one of the buttons which is called tile0 . The image file (it's nothing but a green square at the moment, but I'm just trying to get that working before I attempt anything more exotic) is sitting in the same directory as the class file which controls the game. I have the following code sitting in my wakeFromNib method: NSString *myImageFileName = [[NSString alloc] init]; myImageFileName = @"greenImage.jpg"; NSImage *myImage = [[NSImage alloc] initByReferencingFile:myImageFileName]; [tile0 setImage: myImage]; Trouble is, the game runs fine, but the image isn't appearing on my button. Is there someone who could kindly tell me if I'm doing something obviously wrong? Many Thanks.

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  • XmlSerializer construction with same named extra types

    - by NoizWaves
    Hey, I am hitting trouble constructing an XmlSerializer where the extra types contains types with the same Name (but unique Fullname). Below is an example that illustrated my scenario. Type definitions in external assembly I cannot manipulate: public static class Wheel { public enum Status { Stopped, Spinning } } public static class Engine { public enum Status { Idle, Full } } Class I have written and have control over: public class Car { public Wheel.Status WheelStatus; public Engine.Status EngineStatus; public static string Serialize(Car car) { var xs = new XmlSerializer(typeof(Car), new[] {typeof(Wheel.Status),typeof(Engine.Status)}); var output = new StringBuilder(); using (var sw = new StringWriter(output)) xs.Serialize(sw, car); return output.ToString(); } } The XmlSerializer constructor throws a System.InvalidOperationException with Message "There was an error reflecting type 'Engine.Status'" This exception has an InnerException of type System.InvalidOperationException and with Message "Types 'Wheel.Status' and 'Engine.Status' both use the XML type name, 'Status', from namespace ''. Use XML attributes to specify a unique XML name and/or namespace for the type." Given that I am unable to alter the enum types, how can I construct an XmlSerializer that will serialize Car successfully?

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  • Trying to edit an entity with data from dropdowns in MVC...

    - by user598352
    Hello! I'm having trouble getting my head around sending multiple models to a view in mvc. My problem is the following. Using EF4 I have a table with attributes organised by category. Couldn't post an image :-( [Have a table called attributes (AttributeTitle, AttributeName, CategoryID) connected to a table called Category (CategoryTitle).] What I want to do is be able to edit an attribute entity and have a dropdown of categories to choose from. I tried to make a custom viewmodel public class AttributeViewModel { public AttributeViewModel() { } public Attribute Attribute { get; set; } public IQueryable<Category> AllCategories { get; set; } } But it just ended up being a mess. <div class="editor-field"> <%: Html.DropDownList("Category", new SelectList((IEnumerable)Model.AllCategories, "CategoryID", "CategoryName")) %> </div> I was getting it back to the controller... [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(int AttributeID, FormCollection formcollection) { var _attribute = ProfileDB.GetAttribute(AttributeID); int _selcategory = Convert.ToInt32(formcollection["Category"]); _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory; try { UpdateModel(_attribute); (<---Error here) ProfileDB.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("Index"); } catch (Exception e) { return View(_attribute); } } I've debugged the code and my _attribute looks correct and _attribute.CategoryID = (int)_selcategory updates the model, but then I get the error. Somewhere here I thought that there should be a cleaner way to do this, and that if I could only send two models to the view instead of having to make a custom viewmodel. To sum it up: I want to edit my attribute and have a dropdown of all of the available categories. Any help much appreciated!

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  • Adding to page control collection from inside a user control

    - by Zarigani
    I have an asp.net usercontrol which represents a "popup" dialog. Basically, it's a wrapper for the jQuery UI dialog which can be subclassed to easily make dialogs. As part of this control, I need to inject a div into the page the control is used on, either at the very top or very bottom of the form so that when the popup is instantiated, it's parent is changed to this div. This allows "nested" popups without the child popup being trapped inside the parent popup. The trouble is, I can't find a safe way to inject this div into the page. A usercontrol doesn't have a preinit event, so I can't do it there, and calling Page.Form.Controls.Add(...) in Init, Load or PreRender causes the standard exception "The control collection cannot be modified during DataBind, Init, Load, PreRender or Unload phases." I thought I had found a solution by using... ScriptManager.RegisterClientScriptBlock(Page, Me.GetType, UniqueID + "_Dialog_Div", containerDiv, False) ... which seemed to work well normally, but recently a coworker tried putting an UpdatePanel inside the dialog and now she's getting the error "The script tag registered for type 'ASP.controls_order_viewzips_ascx' and key 'ctl00$ContentBody$OViewZips_Dialog_Div' has invalid characters outside of the script tags: . Only properly formatted script tags can be registered." How are you supposed to add controls to the pages control collection from inside a user control?

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  • error catching exception while System.out.print

    - by user1702633
    I have 2 classes, one that implements a double lookup( int i); and one where I use that lookup(int i) in solving a question, or in this case printing the lookup values. This case is for an array. So I read the exception documentation or google/textbook and come with the following code: public double lookup(int i) throws Exception { if( i > numItems) throw new Exception("out of bounds"); return items[i]; } and take it over to my class and try to print my set, where set is a name of the object type I define in the class above. public void print() { for (int i = 0; i < set.size() - 1; i++) { System.out.print(set.lookup(i) + ","); } System.out.print(set.lookup(set.size())); } I'm using two print()'s to avoid the last "," in the print, but am getting an unhandled exception Exception (my exception's name was Exception) I think I have to catch my exception in my print() but cannot find the correct formatting online. Do I have to write catch exception Exception? because that gives me a syntax error saying invalid type on catch. Sources like http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/exceptions/ are of little help to me, I'm can't seem to grasp what the text is telling me. I'm also having trouble finding sources with multiple examples where I can actually understand the coding in the examples. so could anybody give me a source/example for the above catch phrase and perhaps a decent source of examples for new Java programmers? my book is horrendous and I cannot seem to find an understandable example for the above catch phrase online.

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  • Array of Arrays - writing to File problem

    - by iFloh
    Hi, and again my array of arrays ... I try to improve my app performance by buffering arrays on file for later reuse. I have an NSMutableArray that contains about 30 NSMutableArrays with NSNumber, NSDate and NSString Objects. I try to write the file using this call: bool result = [myArray writeToFile:[fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]] atomically:NO]; = result = FALSE. The Path method is: + (NSString *) getFullPath:(NSString *)forFileName { NSArray *paths = NSSearchPathForDirectoriesInDomains(NSDocumentDirectory, NSUserDomainMask, YES); NSString *documentsDirectory = [paths objectAtIndex:0]; return [documentsDirectory stringByAppendingPathComponent:forFileName]; } and the aDate call returns a shortDateString with ddMMyy. The NSLog NSLog(@"%@", [fileMethods getFullPath:[NSString stringWithFormat:@"iEts%@.arr", [aDate shortDateString]]]); on the path generation returns: /Users/me/Library/Application Support/iPhone Simulator/User/Applications/86729620-EC1D-4C10-A799-0C638BB27933/Documents/iEts010510.arr FURTHER: It must have something to do with the Array of Arrays, since I also write 3 further simple arrays (containing NSStrings) that all succeed. The Array of Arrays gets generated using the addObject method Any ideas what could cause the trouble?

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  • Benefits of "Don't Fragment" on TCP Packets?

    - by taspeotis
    One of our customers is having trouble submitting data from our application (on their PC) to a server (different geographical location). When sending packets under 1100 bytes everything works fine, but above this we see TCP retransmitting the packet every few seconds and getting no response. The packets we are using for testing are about 1400 bytes (but less than 1472). I can send an ICMP ping to www.google.com that is 1472 bytes and get a response (so it's not their router/first few hops). I found that our application sets the DF flag for these packets, and I believe a router along the way to the server has an MTU less than/equal to 1100 and dropping the packet. This affects 1 client in 5000, but since everybody's routes will be different this is expected. The data is a SOAP envelope and we expect a SOAP response back. I can't justify WHY we do it, the code to do this was written by a previous developer. So... Are there are benefits OR justification to setting the DF flag on TCP packets for application data? I can think of reasons it is needed for network diagnostics applications but not in our situation (we want the data to get to the endpoint, fragmented or not). One of our sysadmins said that it might have something to do with us using SSL, but as far as I know SSL is like a stream and regardless of fragmentation, as long as the stream is rebuilt at the end, there's no problem. If there's no good justification I will be changing the behaviour of our application. Thanks in advance.

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  • Javascript function with PHP throwing a "Illegally Formed XML Syntax" error

    - by Joe
    I'm trying to learn some javascript and i'm having trouble figuring out why my code is incorrect (i'm sure i'm doing something wrong lol), but anyways I am trying to create a login page so that when the form is submitted javascript will call a function that checks if the login is in a mysql database and then checks the validity of the password for the user if they exist. however I am getting an error (Illegally Formed XML Syntax) i cannot resolve. I'm really confused, mostly because netbeans is saying it is a xml syntax error and i'm not using xml. here is the code in question: function validateLogin(login){ login.addEventListener("input", function() { $value = login.value; if (<?php //connect to mysql mysql_connect(host, user, pass) or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Connected.');"); echo("</script>"); //select db mysql_select_db() or die(mysql_error()); echo("<script type='text/javascript'>"); echo("alert('MYSQL Database Selected.');"); echo("</script>"); //query $result = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM logins") or die(mysql_error()); //check results against given login while($row = mysql_fetch_array($result)){ if($row[login] == $value){ echo("true"); exit(0); } } echo("false"); exit(0); ?>) { login.setCustomValidity("Invalid Login. Please Click 'Register' Below.") } else { login.setCustomValidity("") } }); } the code is in an external js file and the error throws on the last line. Also from reading i understand best practices is to not mix js and php so how would i got about separating them but maintaining the functionality i need? thanks!

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  • Simple jQuery syntax help, don't know where I've gone wrong

    - by Jascination
    I'm having trouble with a jQuery code at the moment, I know WHERE the problem lies, but I don't know what the problem is exactly. Probably very basic, but I'm new to this. You can see a (non)working fiddle here: http://www.jsfiddle.net/CvZeQ/ Basically I want to set different .click function based on whatever is selected (I have 5 image maps, each with a different #mapname, and want each to pertain to a different variable (answer1, answer2, answer3...) so as to store the selected 'answer' for each map.) Here is the code I'm using for one of the maps: $(window).load(function(){ //Get cookies when page loaded var useranswers=$.cookie('survery'); useranswers= JSON.parse (useranswers); // do something with previous answers //#shape functions $('#shape area').hover( function(e){ $('#'+ this.alt).addClass('hover'); }, function(e){ $('#'+ this.alt).removeClass('hover'); } ).click( function(e){ $('img.selected-region').removeClass('selected-region'); }, function(e){ $('#'+ this.alt).addClass('selected-region'); }, function(e){ var answer1 = $(this).attr("class"); }); }); I know the problem lies somewhere with the .click function, but I'm not entirely sure what I've done wrong. Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Detect mouseover and show tooltip text for dots on an HTML Canvas

    - by carl asquith
    Ive recently created a "map" although not very sophisticated (im working on it) it has the basic function and is generally heading in the right direction. If you look at it you can see a tiny red dots and on those tiny red dots i want to mouseover it and see text basically but ive had a bit of trouble getting the code right. http://hummingbird2.x10.mx/website%20creation/mainpage.htm This is all the code so far. <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN""http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>Oynx Warrior</title> <link rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" href="mystyle.css" /> </head> <body> <h1>Oynx Warrior</h1> <canvas id="myCanvas" width="500" height="500" style="border:1px solid #c3c3c3;"> Your browser does not support the canvas element. </canvas> <script type="text/javascript"> var c=document.getElementById("myCanvas"); var cxt=c.getContext("2d"); cxt.fillStyle="#red"; cxt.beginPath(); cxt.arc(50,50,1,0,Math.PI*2,true); cxt.closePath(); cxt.fill(); </script> </body> </html>

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  • How to replace auto-implemented c# get body at runtime or compile time?

    - by qstarin
    I've been trying to figure this out all night, but I guess my knowledge of the .Net Framework just isn't that deep and the problem doesn't exactly Google well, but if I can get a nod in the right direction I'm sure I can implement it, one way or another. I'd like to be able to declare a property decorated with a custom attribute as such: public MyClass { [ReplaceWithExpressionFrom(typeof(SomeOtherClass))] public virtual bool MyProperty { get; } } public SomeOtherClass : IExpressionHolder<MyClass, bool> { ... } public interface IExpressionHolder<TArg, TResult> { Expression<Func<TArg, TResult>> Expression { get; } } And then somehow - this is the part I'm having trouble figuring - replace the automatically generated implementation of that getter with a piece of custom code, something like: Type expressionHolderType = LookupAttributeCtorArgTypeInDeclarationOfPropertyWereReplacing(); return ReplaceWithExpressionFromAttribute.GetCompiledExpressionFrom(expressionHolderType)(this); The main thing I'm not sure how to do is replace the automatic implementation of the get. The first thing that came to mind was PostSharp, but that's a more complicated dependency than I care for. I'd much prefer a way to code it without using post-processing attached to the build (I think that's the jist of how PostSharp sinks its hooks in anyway). The other part of this I'm not so sure about is how to retrieve the type parameter passed to the particular instantiation of the ReplaceWithExpressionFrom attribute (where it decorates the property whose body I want to replace; in other words, how do I get typeof(SomeOtherClass) where I'm coding the get body replacement). I plan to cache compiled expressions from concrete instances of IExpressionHolder, as I don't want to do that every time the property gets retrieved. I figure this has just got to be possible. At the very least I figure I should be able to search an assembly for any method decorated with the attribute and somehow proxy the class or just replace the IL or .. something? And I'd like to make the integration as smooth as possible, so if this can be done without explicitly calling a registration or initialization method somewhere that'd be super great. Thanks!

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  • When to define SDD(System Sequence Diagram) operations System->Actor?

    - by devoured elysium
    I am having some trouble understanding how to make System Sequence Diagrams, as I don't fully grasp why in some cases one should define operations for System - Actor and in others don't. Here is an example: Let's assume the System is a Cinema Ticket Store and the Actor is a client that wants to buy a ticket. 1) The User tells the System that wants to buy some tickets, stating his client number. 2) The System confirms that the given client number is valid. 3) The User tells the System the movie that wants to see. 4) The System shows the set of available sessions and seats for that movie. 5) The System asks the user which session/seat he wants. 6) The User tells the System the chosen session/seat. This would be converted to: a) -----> tellClientNumber(clientNumber) b) <----- validClientNumber c) -----> tellMovieToSee(movie) d) <----- showsAvailableSeatsHours e) -----> tellSystemChosenSessionSeat(session, seat) I know that when we are dealing with SDD's we are still far away from coding. But I can't help trying to imagine how it how it would have been had I to convert it right away to code: I can understand 1) and 2). It's like if it was a C#/Java method with the following signature: boolean tellClientNumber(clientNumber) so I put both on the SDD. Then, we have the pair 3) 4). I can imagine that as something as: SomeDataStructureThatHoldsAvailableSessionsSeats tellSystemMovieToSee(movie) Now, the problem: From what I've come to understand, my lecturer says that we shouldn't make an operation on the SDD for 5) as we should only show operations from the Actor to the System and when the System is either presenting us data (as in c)) or validating sent data (such as in b)). I find this odd, as if I try to imagine this like a DOS app where you have to put your input sequencially, it makes sense to make an arrow even for 5). Why is this wrong? How should I try to visualize this? Thanks

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