Search Results

Search found 40441 results on 1618 pages for 'function templates'.

Page 22/1618 | < Previous Page | 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29  | Next Page >

  • How to call a function from another class file

    - by Guy Parker
    I am very familiar with writing VB based applications but am new to Xcode (and Objective C). I have gone through numerous tutorials on the web and understand the basics and how to interact with Interface Builder etc. However, I am really struggling with some basic concepts of the C language and would be grateful for any help you can offer. Heres my problem… I have a simple iphone app which has a view controller (FirstViewController) and a subview (SecondViewController) with associated header and class files. In the FirstViewController.m have a function defined @implementation FirstViewController (void) writeToServer:(const uint8_t ) buf { [oStream write:buf maxLength:strlen((char)buf)]; } It doesn't really matter what the function is. I want to use this function in my SecondViewController, so in SecondViewController.m I import FirstViewController.h import "SecondViewController.h" import "FirstViewController.h" @implementation SecondViewController -(IBAction) SetButton: (id) sender { NSString *s = [@"Fill:" stringByAppendingString: FillLevelValue.text]; NSString *strToSend = [s stringByAppendingString: @":"]; const uint8_t *str = (uint8_t *) [strToSend cStringUsingEncoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; FillLevelValue.text = strToSend; [FirstViewController writeToServer:str]; } This last line is where my problem is. XCode tells me that FirstViewController may not respond to writeToServer. And when I try to run the application it crashes when this function is called. I guess I don't fully understand how to share functions and more importantly, the relationship between classes. In an ideal world I would create a global class to place my functions in and call them as required. Any advice gratefully received.

    Read the article

  • Pass Linq Expression to a function

    - by Kushan Hasithe Fernando
    I want to pass a property list of a class to a function. with in the function based on property list I'm going to generate a query. As exactly same functionality in Linq Select method. Here I'm gonna implement this for Ingress Database. As an example, in front end I wanna run a select as this, My Entity Class is like this public class Customer { [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name="Id",IsPrimaryKey=true)] public string Id { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Name")] public string Name { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Address")] public string Address { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Email")] public string Email { get; set; } [System.Data.Linq.Mapping.ColumnAttribute(Name = "Mobile")] public string Mobile { get; set; } } I wanna call a Select function like this, var result = dataAccessService.Select<Customer>(C=>C.Name,C.Address); then,using result I can get the Name and Address properties' values. I think my Select function should looks like this, ( *I think this should done using Linq Expression. But im not sure what are the input parameter and return type. * ) Class DataAccessService { // I'm not sure about this return type and input types, generic types. public TResult Select<TSource,TResult>(Expression<Func<TSource,TResult>> selector) { // Here using the property list, // I can get the ColumnAttribute name value and I can generate a select query. } } This is a attempt to create a functionality like in Linq. But im not an expert in Linq Expressions. There is a project call DbLinq from MIT, but its a big project and still i couldn't grab anything helpful from that. Can someone please help me to start this, or can someone link me some useful resources to read about this.

    Read the article

  • Creating a function in Postgresql that does not return composite values

    - by celenius
    I'm learning how to write functions in Postgresql. I've defined a function called _tmp_myfunction() which takes in an id and returns a table (I also define a table object type called _tmp_mytable) -- create object type to be returned CREATE TYPE _tmp_mytable AS ( id integer, cost double precision ); -- create function which returns query CREATE OR REPLACE FUNCTION _tmp_myfunction( id integer ) RETURNS SETOF _tmp_mytable AS $$ BEGIN RETURN QUERY SELECT id, cost FROM sales WHERE id = sales.id; END; $$ LANGUAGE plpgsql; This works fine when I use one id and call it using the following approach: SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); What I would like to be able to do is to call it, but to use a column of values instead of just one value. However, if I use the following approach I end up with all values of the table in one column, separated by commas: -- call function using all values in a column SELECT _tmp_myfunction(t.id) FROM transactions as t; I understand that I can get the same result if I use SELECT _tmp_myfunction(402); instead of SELECT * FROM _tmp_myfunction(402); but I don't know how to construct my query in such a way that I can separate out the results.

    Read the article

  • Modify onclick function with jQuery

    - by Chris Barr
    I've got a button that has an onclick event in it, which was set on the back end from .NET. Beside it is a checkbox <button class="img_button" onclick="if(buttonLoader(this)){WebForm_DoPostBackWithOptions(new WebForm_PostBackOptions('uxBtnRelease', '', true, '', 'somepage.aspx?oupid=5&fp=true', false, true))} return false;" type="button">Release</button> <input type="checkbox" checked="checked" id="myCheckbox"> When the checkbox is clicked, needs to change the value of the query string in the URL inside the onclick function of the button. So far I have this, and the idea is right, but I keep getting errors when it's run: "Uncaught SyntaxError: Unexpected token ILLEGAL" var defaultReleaseOnClick=null; $("#myCheckbox").click(function(){ var $releaseBtn = $(".img_button"); if(defaultReleaseOnClick==null) defaultReleaseOnClick=$releaseBtn.attr("onclick"); var newOnClickString = defaultReleaseOnClick.toString().replace(/&fp=[a-z]+'/i,"&fp="+this.checked); $releaseBtn.removeAttr("onclick").click(eval(newOnClickString)); }); I know it seems kinda hacky to convert the function to a string, do a replacement, and then try to convert it back to a function, but I don't know any other way to do it. Any ideas? I've set up a demo here: http://jsbin.com/asiwu4/edit

    Read the article

  • How to catch unintentional function interpositioning with GCC?

    - by SiegeX
    Reading through my book Expert C Programming, I came across the chapter on function interpositioning and how it can lead to some serious hard to find bugs if done unintentionally. The example given in the book is the following: my_source.c mktemp() { ... } main() { mktemp(); getwd(); } libc mktemp(){ ... } getwd(){ ...; mktemp(); ... } According to the book, what happens in main() is that mktemp() (a standard C library function) is interposed by the implementation in my_source.c. Although having main() call my implementation of mktemp() is intended behavior, having getwd() (another C library function) also call my implementation of mktemp() is not. Apparently, this example was a real life bug that existed in SunOS 4.0.3's version of lpr. The book goes on to explain the fix was to add the keyword static to the definition of mktemp() in my_source.c; although changing the name altogether should have fixed this problem as well. This chapter leaves me with some unresolved questions that I hope you guys could answer: Should our software group adopt the practice of putting the keyword static in front of all functions that we don't want to be exposed? Does GCC have a way to warn about function interposition? We certainly don't ever intend on this happening and I'd like to know about it if it does. Can interposition happen with functions introduced by static libraries? Thanks for the help.

    Read the article

  • PHP form validation function

    - by Barbs
    I am currently writing some PHP form validation (I have already validated clientside) and have some repetitive code that I think would work well in a nice little PHP function. However I have having trouble getting it to work. I'm sure it's just a matter of syntax but I just can't nail it down. Any help appreciated. //Validate phone number field to ensure 8 digits, no spaces. if(0 === preg_match("/^[0-9]{8}$/",$_POST['Phone']) { $errors['Phone'] = "Incorrect format for 'Phone'"; } if(!$errors) { //Do some stuff here.... } I found that I was writing the validation code a lot and I could save some time and some lines of code by creating a function. //Validate Function function validate($regex,$index,$message) { if(0 === preg_match($regex,$_POST[$index],$message) { $errors[$index] = $message; } And call it like so.... validate("/^[0-9]{8}$/","Phone","Incorrect format for Phone"); Can anyone see why this wouldn't work? Note I have disabled the client side validation while I work on this to try to trigger the error, so the value I am sending for 'Phone' is invalid.

    Read the article

  • How to specialize a c++ variadic template?

    - by Serge
    I'm trying to understand c++ variadic templates. I'm not much aware of the correct language to use to explain what I'd like to achieve, so it might be simpler if I provide a bit of code which illustrate what I'd like to achieve. #include <iostream> #include <string> using namespace std; template<int ...A> class TestTemplate1 { public: string getString() { return "Normal"; } }; template<int T, int ...A> string TestTemplate1<2, A...>::getString() { return "Specialized"; } template<typename ...A> class TestTemplate2 { }; int main() { TestTemplate1<1, 2, 3, 4> t1_1; TestTemplate1<1, 2> t1_2; TestTemplate1<> t1_3; TestTemplate1<2> t1_4; TestTemplate2<> t2_1; TestTemplate2<int, double> t2_2; cout << t1_1.getString() << endl; cout << t1_2.getString() << endl; cout << t1_3.getString() << endl; cout << t1_4.getString() << endl; } This throws several errors. error C2333: 'TestTemplate1<::getString' : error in function declaration; skipping function body error C2333: 'TestTemplate1<1,2,3,4::getString' : error in function declaration; skipping function body error C2333: 'TestTemplate1<1,2::getString' : error in function declaration; skipping function body error C2333: 'TestTemplate1<2::getString' : error in function declaration; skipping function body error C2977: 'TestTemplate1' : too many template arguments error C2995: 'std::string TestTemplate1::getString(void)' : function template has already been defined error C3860: template argument list following class template name must list parameters in the order used in template parameter list How can I have a specialized behavior for every TestTemplate1<2, ...> instances like t1_4?

    Read the article

  • Dojo 1.8: Getting dest.appendChild is not a function while rendering a custom template

    - by Jim Pedid
    After adding in the WidgetsInTemplateMixin, I am receiving an error dest.appendChild is not a function In the documentation, it claims that there will be an error if this.containerNode is not able to contain any child objects. However, I have marked the containerNode attachment point for a div with dojo type "dijit/layout/ContentPane". Can anyone explain to me why this isn't working? Here is the Template file <div class="${baseClass}"> <div class="${baseClass}Container" data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/BorderContainer" data-dojo-props="design: 'headline'"> <div data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/ContentPane" data-dojo-props="region: 'top'"> Top </div> <div data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/ContentPane" data-dojo-props="region: 'center'" data-dojo-attach-point="containerNode"> </div> <div data-dojo-type="dijit/layout/ContentPane" data-dojo-props="region: 'leading', splitter: true"> Sidebar </div> </div> </div> Here is the javascript definition define([ "dojo/_base/declare", "dijit/_WidgetBase", "dijit/_OnDijitClickMixin", "dijit/layout/BorderContainer", "dijit/layout/ContentPane", "dijit/layout/TabContainer", "dijit/_TemplatedMixin", "dijit/_WidgetsInTemplateMixin", "dojo/text!./templates/MainContainer.html" ], function (declare, _WidgetBase, _OnDijitClickMixin, BorderContainer, ContentPane, TabContainer, _TemplatedMixin, _WidgetsInTemplateMixin, template) { return declare([_WidgetBase, _OnDijitClickMixin, _TemplatedMixin, _WidgetsInTemplateMixin], { templateString:template, baseClass:"main" }); }); The custom widget defined declaratively <div data-dojo-type="main/ui/MainContainer" data-dojo-props="title: 'Main Application'"> Hello Center! </div>

    Read the article

  • question regarding templatization of virtual function

    - by jan
    Hi, I am new to this forum and sorry If I am repeating this question. I know that you cannot templatize the virtual function and I do understand the concept behind it. But I still need a way to get across some errors I am getting it. I am able to make my stuff work but it doesn't look to me. Here's the deal, I have class called System, #include "Vector.h" class System { virtual void VectorToLocal(Vector<T>& global_dir,const Vector<T>* global_pos = 0) const = 0; }; class UnresolvedSystem : public System { virtual void VectorToLocal(Vector<T>& global_dir,const Vector<T>* global_pos = 0) const { //do something } }; In Vector.h tenplate<typename T> class Vector { //some functions }; See now I want to templatize VectorToLocal in system.h to take just Vector, but I cannot do it as it is a virtual function. I want a work around. I know I can have VectorToLocal take Vector, Vector etc as arguments. But I do not want to do it. Any help would be really appreciated. Thanks in advance, Jan

    Read the article

  • Template Child Class Overriding a Parent Class's Virtual Function

    - by user334066
    The below code compiles with gcc v4.3.3 and the templated child class seems to be overriding a virtual function in the parent, but doesn't that break the rule that you cannot have a virtual template function? Or is something else happening that I don't understand? class BaseClass { public: virtual void Func(int var) { std::cout<<"Base int "<<var<<std::endl; } virtual void Func(double var) { std::cout<<"Base double "<<var<<std::endl; } }; template <class TT> class TemplateClass : public BaseClass { public: using BaseClass::Func; virtual void Func(TT var) { std::cout<<"Child TT "<<var<<std::endl; } }; int main(int argc, char **argv) { BaseClass a; TemplateClass<int> b; BaseClass *c = new TemplateClass<int>; int intVar = 3; double doubleVar = 5.5; a.Func(intVar); a.Func(doubleVar); b.Func(intVar); b.Func(doubleVar); c->Func(intVar); c->Func(doubleVar); delete c; } This then outputs: Base int 3 Base double 5.5 Child TT 3 Base double 5.5 Child TT 3 Base double 5.5 as I hoped, but I'm not sure why it works.

    Read the article

  • How to easily apply a function to a collection in C++

    - by Jesse Beder
    I'm storing images as arrays, templated based on the type of their elements, like Image<unsigned> or Image<float>, etc. Frequently, I need to perform operations on these images; for example, I might need to add two images, or square an image (elementwise), and so on. All of the operations are elementwise. I'd like get as close as possible to writing things like: float Add(float a, float b) { return a+b; } Image<float> result = Add(img1, img2); and even better, things like complex ComplexCombine(float a, float b) { return complex(a, b); } Image<complex> result = ComplexCombine(img1, img2); or struct FindMax { unsigned currentMax; FindMax(): currentMax(0) {} void operator(unsigned a) { if(a > currentMax) currentMax = a; } }; FindMax findMax; findMax(img); findMax.currentMax; // now contains the maximum value of 'img' Now, I obviously can't exactly do that; I've written something so that I can call: Image<float> result = Apply(img1, img2, Add); but I can't seem to figure out a generic way for it to detect the return type of the function/function object passed, so my ComplexCombine example above is out; also, I have to write a new one for each number of arguments I'd like to pass (which seems inevitable). Any thoughts on how to achieve this (with as little boilerplate code as possible)?

    Read the article

  • How do I add Keynote templates/themes to the iPad Keynote application

    - by Alex
    I work for a major blue-chip company that insists we do presentations in the company style. They make keynote templates available, but I don't know how to install them on the ipad. I note that some third parties now sell keynote templates for the iPad that can be downloaded and installed. How can I convert and upload my company templates into the iPad keynote application?

    Read the article

  • Specify an inline callback function as an argument.

    - by Matthias Vance
    LS, Let me first explain what I'm trying to achieve using some pseudo-code (JavaScript). // Declare our function that takes a callback as as an argument, and calls the callback with true. B(func) { func(true); } // Call the function B(function(bool success) { /* code that uses success */ }); I hope this says it all. If not, please comment on my question so I can write a little more to clarify my issue. What I want is to have code like this in C++. I have tried to use lambda functions, but I was unable to specify a parameter type for those. Kind regards, Matthias Vance

    Read the article

  • Pass array of data to jQuery function

    - by ILMV
    Here's the story... I have a jQuery function that does something, this function is referenced very regularly. One of the input parameters is an array, this array data is hard coded and thus I want to pass the data like this: (this is how I would do it using PHP) myFunction(Array("1"=>"a","2"=>"b","3"=>"c")); Instead of $arr=Array("1"=>"a","2"=>"b","3"=>"c"); myFunction($arr); So how do I achieve this with my jQuery function, I want this to be a one liner if possible.

    Read the article

  • Create Templates folder in Windows 7 profile

    - by Michael Itzoe
    I'd like to create a Templates folder in my profile on Windows 7, but there's already a junction to AppData\Roaming\Microsoft\Windows\Templates. I assume this is a system configuration so I don't want to delete it. I'm currently calling my folder File Templates, but that seems to verbose to me. Is there anything I can do?

    Read the article

  • Javascript function push problem

    - by Stefan
    Hello i've following JS function. responseData:function(resp){ this.jsondata = eval('(' + resp + ')'); this.propList = []; for (var i = 0;i<this.jsondata.length;i++) { for (obj in this.jsondata[i]) { alert(obj); //shows the property name of obj this.propList.push({ obj : this.jsondata[i][obj] //insert only simple obj string }); } } return this.propList; } I want to insert in my propList the property name and the value, but instead inserting the property name this function inserts simple 'obj' as a string. What i'm doing wrong? greetings Stefan

    Read the article

  • Function pointer arrays in Fortran

    - by Eduardo Dobay
    I can create function pointers in Fortran 90, with code like real, external :: f and then use f as an argument to another function/subroutine. But what if I want an array of function pointers? In C I would just do double (*f[])(int); to create an array of functions returning double and taking an integer argument. I tried the most obvious, real, external, dimension(3) :: f but gfortran doesn't let me mix EXTERNAL and DIMENSION. Is there any way to do what I want? (The context for this is a program for solving a system of differential equations, so I could input the equations without having a million parameters in my subroutines.)

    Read the article

  • Subsetting a data frame in a function using another data frame as parameter

    - by lecodesportif
    I would like to submit a data frame to a function and use it to subset another data frame. This is the basic data frame: foo <- data.frame(var1= c('1', '1', '1', '2', '2', '3'), var2=c('A', 'A', 'B', 'B', 'C', 'C')) I use the following function to find out the frequencies of var2 for specified values of var1. foobar <- function(x, y, z){ a <- subset(x, (x$var1 == y)) b <- subset(a, (a$var2 == z)) n=nrow(b) return(n) } Examples: foobar(foo, 1, "A") # returns 2 foobar(foo, 1, "B") # returns 1 foobar(foo, 3, "C") # returns 1 This works. But now I want to submit a data frame of values to foobar. Instead of the above examples, I would like to submit df to foobar and get the same results as above (2, 1, 1) df <- data.frame(var1=c('1','1','3'), var2=c("A", "B", "C")) When I change foobar to accept two arguments like foobar(foo, df) and use y[, c(var1)] and y[, c(var2)] instead of the two parameters x and y it still doesn't work. Which way is there to do this?

    Read the article

  • How to call iframe's function from this iframe

    - by Adrian
    Hi, I have an iframe created in Javascript with some function f(): var iframe = document.createElement("iframe"); $(iframe).attr({ width: 0, height: 0, frameborder: 0, src: this.options.url, name: id, id: id }); document.body.appendChild(iframe); iframe.contentWindow.f = function(data) { alert("test"); }; Document loaded in this iframe should call function f(): <script ...>f();</script> And this works perfectly in Firefox but Opera tells, f() is undefined. Is there any solution? Adrian.

    Read the article

  • Getting data from function loaded after current function

    - by Hwang
    I have 2 functions, 1 loaded before another. Some value are determine by the other function data, but since one of it has to load before the other 1, how should I get the data that is loaded after current function? private function wMessage():void { Message.width=Name.width+20; } private function wName():void { Name.x=(Message.x+Message.textWidth)-Name.textWidth; Name.y=Message.y+Message.height; } I've taken out some other unnecessary codes, but as you can see Name position is set according by the position + width of Message, but I want Message's width to be not smaller than Name

    Read the article

  • How to get the original variable name of variable passed to a function

    - by Acorn
    Is it possible to get the original variable name of a variable passed to a function? E.g. foobar = "foo" def func(var): print var.origname So that: func(foobar) Returns: >>foobar EDIT: All I was trying to do was make a function like: def log(soup): f = open(varname+'.html', 'w') print >>f, soup.prettify() f.close() .. and have the function generate the filename from the name of the variable passed to it. I suppose if it's not possible I'll just have to pass the variable and the variable's name as a string each time.

    Read the article

  • Please help get this msdn function working to create an auto complete method

    - by Phil
    Here is a method from msdn to provide data to an autocomplete extender / textbox: <System.Web.Services.WebMethodAttribute(), System.Web.Script.Services.ScriptMethodAttribute()> _ Public Shared Function GetCompletionList(ByVal prefixText As String, ByVal count As Integer, ByVal contextKey As String) As String() ' Create array of movies Dim movies() As String = {"Star Wars", "Star Trek", "Superman", "Memento", "Shrek", "Shrek II"} ' Return matching movies Return From m In movies(6) Where _ (m.StartsWith(prefixText, StringComparison.CurrentCultureIgnoreCase)) Select m).Take(count).ToArray() End Function The errors are: m.StartsWith - ('Startswith' is not a member of 'Char') Select m - ('Select Case' must end with a matching end select) .Take(count).ToArray() - (End of statement expected) Can you please let me know how to get this function working? Thanks

    Read the article

  • Get pointer to member function from within member function in C++

    - by Eli
    Currently in the program I am attempting to write I need to be able to get a pointer to a member function within a member function of the same class. The pointer needs to be passed to a function as a void (*)(). Example: //CallFunc takes a void (*)() argument class testClass { public: void aFunc2; void aFunc1; } void testClass:aFunc2(){ callFunc(this.*aFunc1); // How should this be done? } void testClass:aFunc1(){ int someVariable = 1; } I'm trying to do this in GCC 4.0.1. Also, the member function being called can't be static because it references non-static variables in the class that it is part of.

    Read the article

  • Overwriting arguments object for a Javascript function

    - by Ian Storm Taylor
    If I have the following: // Clean input. $.each(arguments, function(index, value) { arguments[index] = value.replace(/[\W\s]+/g, '').toLowerCase(); }); Would that be a bad thing to do? I have no further use for the uncleaned arguments in the function, and it would be nice not to create a useless copy of arguments just to use them, but are there any negative effects to doing this? Ideally I would have done this, but I'm guessing this runs into problems since arguments isn't really an Array: arguments = $.map(arguments, function(value) { return value.replace(/[\W\s]+/g, '').toLowerCase(); }); Thanks for any input. EDIT: I've just realized that both of these are now inside their own functions, so the arguments object has changed. Any way to do this without creating an unnecessary variable?

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29  | Next Page >