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  • c# Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters?

    - by Rich Oliver
    Why can't open generic types be passed as parameters. I frequently have classes like: public class Example<T> where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} } Lets say BaseClass is as follows; public BaseClass { public int num; } I then want a method of say: public int MyArbitarySumMethod(Example example)//This won't compile Example not closed { int sum = 0; foreach(BaseClass i in example.myList)//myList being infered as an IEnumerable sum += i.num; sum = sum * example.a; return sum; } I then have to write an interface just to pass this one class as a parameter as follows: public interface IExample { public int a {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get;} } The generic class then has to be modified to: public class Example<T>: IExample where T: BaseClass { public int a {get; set;} public List<T> mylist {get; set;} public IEnumerable<BaseClass> myIEnum {get {return myList;} } } That's a lot of ceremony for what I would have thought the compiler could infer. Even if something can't be changed I find it psychologically very helpful if I know the reasons / justifications for the absence of Syntax short cuts.

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  • Problem with making a simple JS XmlHttpRequest call

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I have to create a very simple client that makes GET and POST calls to our server and parses the returned XML. I am writing this in JavaScript, problem is I don't know how to program in JS (started to look into this just this morning)! As n initial test, I am trying to ping to the Twitter API, here's the function that gets called when user enters the URL http://api.twitter.com/1/users/lookup.xml and hits the submit button: function doRequest() { var req_url, req_type, body; req_url = document.getElementById('server_url').value; req_type = document.getElementById('request_type').value; alert("Connecting to url: " + req_url + " with HTTP method: " + req_type); req = new XMLHttpRequest(); req.open(req_type, req_url, false, "username", "passwd");// synchronous conn req.onreadystatechange=function() { if (req.readyState == 4) { alert(req.status); } } req.send(null); } When I run this on FF, I get a Access to restricted URI denied" code: "1012 error on Firebug. Stuff I googled suggested that this was a FF-specific problem so I switched to Chrome. Over there, the second alert comes up, but displays 0 as HTTP status code, which I found weird. Can anyone spot what the problem is? People say this stuff is easier to use with JQuery but learning that on top of JS syntax is a bit too much now.

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  • How can I speed up a 1800-line PHP include? It's slowing my pageload down to 10sec/view

    - by somerandomguy
    I designed my code to put all important functions in a single PHP file that's now 1800 lines long. I call it in other PHP files--AJAX processors, for example--with a simple "require_once("codeBank.php")". I'm discovering that it takes about 10 seconds to load up all those functions, even though I have nothing more than a few global arrays and a bunch of other functions involved. The main AJAX processor code, for example, is taking 8 seconds just to do a simple syntax verification (whose operational function is stored in codeBank.php). When I comment out the require_once, my AJAX response time speeds up from 10sec to 40ms, so it's pretty clear that PHP's trying to do something with those 1800 lines of functions. That's even with APC installed, which is surprising. What should I do to get my code speed back to the sub-100ms level? Am I failing to get the cache's benefit somehow? Do I need to cut that single function bank file into different pieces? Are there other subtle things that I could be doing to screw up my response time? Or barring all that, what are some tools to dig further into which PHP operations are hitting speed bumps?

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  • Passing the form scope to a Remote cfc

    - by cf_PhillipSenn
    What is the syntax for passing the form scope into a cfc with access="remote"? I have: <cfcomponent> <cfset Variables.Datasource = "xxx"> <cffunction name="Save" access="remote"> <cfset var local = {}> <!--- todo: try/catch ---> <cfif arguments.PersonID> <cfquery datasource="#Variables.Datasource#"> UPDATE Person SET FirstName = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.FirstName#"> ,LastName = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.LastName#"> WHERE PersonID = <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_integer" value="#arguments.PersonID#"> </cfquery> <cfset local.result = arguments.PersonID> <cfelse> <cfquery name="local.qry" datasource="#Variables.Datasource#"> INSERT INTO Person(FirstName,LastName) VALUES( <cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.FirstName#"> ,<cfqueryparam cfsqltype="cf_sql_varchar" value="#arguments.LastName#"> ); SELECT PersonID FROM Person WHERE PersonID=Scope_Identity() </cfquery> <cfset local.result = local.qry.PersonID> </cfif> <cfreturn local.result> </cffunction> </cfcomponent> I need to pass in form.PersonID, form.firstname, form.lastname.

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  • Reference - What does this error mean in PHP?

    - by hakre
    On Stackoverflow you can see a lot of questions popping up about errors. Some users do not even know that error messages exists, others are asking about code that gives an error message but they do not understand the error message. If the error message is common, many questions about the same kind of error appears, but it is hard to find existing Q&A about the topic. Please add "your favorite" error message, one per answer, a short description what it means (even if it is only highlighting terms to their manual page) and a listing of existing Q&A that are of value. This will create a list. The question is a community wiki, so you are not answering for reputation but for creating a reference list for new users. It's based on error messages. Compare with the existing Reference - What does this symbol mean in PHP? question, which works pretty well. What are common errors in PHP and what are their Solutions. Index of Errors Just starting, but there are already some: Warning: Cannot modify header information - headers already sent Warning: mysql_fetch_array() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given in ... on line Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_XXX in YYY on line ZZZ Fatal Error: Call to a member function ... on a non-object

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  • Jquery passing an HTML element into a function

    - by christian
    I have an HTML form where I am going to copy values from a series of input fields to some spans/headings as the user populates the input fields. I am able to get this working using the following code: $('#source').keyup(function(){ if($("#source").val().length == 0){ $("#destinationTitle").text('Sample Title'); }else{ $("#destinationTitle").text($("#source").val()); } }); In the above scenario the html is something like: Sample Title Basically, as the users fills out the source box, the text of the is changed to the value of the source input. If nothing is input in, or the user deletes the values typed into the box some default text is placed in the instead. Pretty straightforward. However, since I need to make this work for many different fields, it makes sense to turn this into a generic function and then bind that function to each 's onkeyup() event. But I am having some trouble with this. My implementation: function doStuff(source,target,defaultValue) { if($(source).val().length == 0){ $(target).text(defaultValue); }else{ $(target).text($(source).val()); } } which is called as follows: $('#source').keyup(function() { doStuff(this, '"#destinationTitle"', 'SampleTitle'); }); What I can't figure out is how to pass the second parameter, the name of the destination html element into the function. I have no problem passing in the element I'm binding to via "this", but can't figure out the destination element syntax. Any help would be appreciated - many thanks!

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  • Stored procedure for generic MERGE

    - by GilliVilla
    I have a set of 10 tables in a database (DB1). And there are 10 tables in another database (DB2) with exact same schema on the same SQL Server 2008 R2 database server machine. The 10 tables in DB1 are frequently updated with data. I intend to write a stored procedure that would run once every day for synchronizing the 10 tables in DB1 with DB2. The stored procedure would make use of the MERGE statement. Now, my aim is to make this as generic and parametrized as possible. That is, accommodate for more tables down the line... and accommodate different source and target DB names. Definitely no hard coding is intended. This is my algorithm so far: Have the database names as parameters Have the first query within the stored procedure... result in giving the names of the 10 tables from a lookup table (this can be 10, 20 or whatever) Have a generic MERGE statement that does the sync for each of the above set of tables (based on primary key?) This is where I need more inputs on. What is the best way to achieve this stored procedure? SQL syntax would be helpful.

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  • transforming 1d (1column) into 5d(5column) matrix through copy paste or other

    - by Curious
    Ex. I want to take the column with 12345..... and order 5 columns across as seen. next 5 numbers in column will be next row. However my code creates a 4 row gap in between each successive row. I dont know what additional logic (possibly if then statement) I can embed into do loop to may make it cleaner. I am new to this, so showing as much sample code to learn the syntax would be most beneficial. thanks in advance. Below is the Result of my code. VBA code is below result. 1 1 2 3 4 5 2 3 4 5 6 6 7 8 9 10 7 8 9 10 11 11 12 13 14 15 12 13 14 15 16 16 17 17 Sub Working_Code() ' Working_Code Macro Do ActiveCell.Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(0, 5).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(1, -5).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-1, 6).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(2, -6).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-2, 7).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(3, -7).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-3, 8).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(4, -8).Select Selection.Copy ActiveCell.Offset(-4, 9).Select ActiveSheet.Paste ActiveCell.Offset(5, -9).Select Loop Until IsEmpty(ActiveCell.Offset(0, -1)) End Sub

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  • ruby on rails implement search with auto complete

    - by user429400
    I've implemented a search box that searches the "Illnesses" table and the "symptoms" table in my DB. Now I want to add auto-complete to the search box. I've created a new controller called "auto_complete_controller" which returns the auto complete data. I'm just not sure how to combine the search functionality and the auto complete functionality: I want the "index" action in my search controller to return the search results, and the "index" action in my auto_complete controller to return the auto_complete data. Please guide me how to fix my html syntax and what to write in the js.coffee file. I'm using rails 3.x with the jquery UI for auto-complete, I prefer a server side solution, and this is my current code: main_page/index.html.erb: <p> <b>Syptoms / Illnesses</b> <%= form_tag search_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search] %> <br/> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil %> </p> <% end %> </p> auto_complete_controller.rb: class AutoCompleteController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") + Symptom.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") render json: @results.map(&:name) end end search_controller.rb: class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.search(params[:search]) + Symptom.search(params[:search]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @results } end end end Thanks, Li

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  • How to update attributes without valitation

    - by Brian Roisentul
    I've got a model with its validations, and I found out that I can't update an attribute without validating the object before. I already tried to add on => :create syntax at the end of each validation line, but I got the same results. My announcement model have the following validations: validates_presence_of :title validates_presence_of :description validates_presence_of :announcement_type_id validate :validates_publication_date validate :validates_start_date validate :validates_start_end_dates validate :validates_category validate :validates_province validates_length_of :title, :in => 6..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :subtitle, :in => 0..255, :on => :save validates_length_of :place, :in => 0..50, :on => :save validates_numericality_of :vacants, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true validates_numericality_of :price, :greater_than_or_equal_to => 0, :only_integer => true My rake task does the following: task :announcements_expiration => :environment do announcements = Announcement.expired announcements.each do |a| #Gets the user that owns the announcement user = User.find(a.user_id) puts a.title + '...' a.state = 'deactivated' if a.update_attributes(:state => a.state) puts 'state changed to deactivated' else a.errors.each do |e| puts e end end end This throws all the validation exceptions for that model, in the output. Does anybody how to update an attribute without validating the model?

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  • jQuery code not executing when DOM is ready

    - by Ben
    I have written a simple jQuery script that changes the hash tag of a link. I do this because I am using IntenseDebate comments in Wordpress but the comment link still links replaced id of the old comments. I'm using jQuery so that if javascript is enabled, the user can click on the comments link and it will take them to the IntenseDebate comments. If its not enabled it will take them to the traditional comments (because IntenseDebate requires javascript to function). The issue I'm having lies in this script to change the hash tag at the end of the link. Currently the URL "someurl.com/#respond" but I need the script to change it to "someurl.com/#comments". What is happening is that the script doesn't work, however I believe my syntax is correct so I decided to try copying and pasting the code into Firebug's console and the code executed perfectly. I could see that the link I was trying to change was now correct, and I could click on it and it worked as I desired. So what I don't understand is why the code is not executing when it is supposed to. I am using $(document).ready() and I have other jQuery on the page that executes just fine. I even tested it on a simple HTML page away from all the problems that might be caused by Wordpress and I received the same result. Does anyone know why this might be happening? Here is my code (I am using noConflict because Wordpress makes use of other frameworks): jQuery.noConflict(); jQuery(document).ready(function($) { $("a[href$='respond']").each(function() { this.href = this.href.replace("respond", "comments"); }); })(jQuery); Thanks very much for your help!

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  • How do I use XPath with a default namespace with no prefix?

    - by Scott Stafford
    What is the XPath (in C# API to XDocument.XPathSelectElements(xpath, nsman) if it matters) to query all MyNodes from this document? <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <configuration> <MyNode xmlns="lcmp" attr="true"> <subnode /> </MyNode> </configuration I tried /configuration/MyNode which is wrong because it ignores the namespace. I tried /configuration/lcmp:MyNode which is wrong because lcmp is the URI, not the prefix. I tried /configuration/{lcmp}MyNode which failed because Additional information: '/configuration/{lcmp}MyNode' has an invalid token. EDIT: I can't use mgr.AddNamespace("df", "lcmp"); as some of the answerers have suggested. That requires that the XML parsing program know all the namespaces I plan to use ahead of time. Since this is meant to be applicable to any source file, I don't know which namespaces to manually add prefixes for. It seems like {my uri} is the XPath syntax, but Microsoft didn't bother implementing that... true?

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  • WCF hosting: Can access svc file but cannot go to wsdl link

    - by Impulse
    Hello, I have a WCF service that is hosted in IIS 7.5. I have two servers, one for test and one for production. The service works fine on test server, but on the production server I have the following error. When I access the address http//..../service.svc I can see the default page that says: You have created a service. To test this service, you will need to create a client and use it to call the service. You can do this using the svcutil.exe tool from the command line with the following syntax: svcutil.exe http://..../service.svc?wsdl This will generate a configuration file and a code file that contains the client class. Add the two files to your client application and use the generated client class to call the Service. But when I click the wsdl link, I cannot go to the wsdl page. It returns me to this default web page without any errors. I am suspecting a network/firewall authorization error but does anybody have an experience like this one? All IIS settings are the same for test and production servers. Thank you, Best Regards.

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  • error catching exception while System.out.print

    - by user1702633
    I have 2 classes, one that implements a double lookup( int i); and one where I use that lookup(int i) in solving a question, or in this case printing the lookup values. This case is for an array. So I read the exception documentation or google/textbook and come with the following code: public double lookup(int i) throws Exception { if( i > numItems) throw new Exception("out of bounds"); return items[i]; } and take it over to my class and try to print my set, where set is a name of the object type I define in the class above. public void print() { for (int i = 0; i < set.size() - 1; i++) { System.out.print(set.lookup(i) + ","); } System.out.print(set.lookup(set.size())); } I'm using two print()'s to avoid the last "," in the print, but am getting an unhandled exception Exception (my exception's name was Exception) I think I have to catch my exception in my print() but cannot find the correct formatting online. Do I have to write catch exception Exception? because that gives me a syntax error saying invalid type on catch. Sources like http://docs.oracle.com/javase/tutorial/essential/exceptions/ are of little help to me, I'm can't seem to grasp what the text is telling me. I'm also having trouble finding sources with multiple examples where I can actually understand the coding in the examples. so could anybody give me a source/example for the above catch phrase and perhaps a decent source of examples for new Java programmers? my book is horrendous and I cannot seem to find an understandable example for the above catch phrase online.

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  • shell script stopped working --- need to rewrite?

    - by OopsForgotMyOtherUserName
    The script below worked on my Mac OS X. I'm now using Ubuntu OS, and the script is no longer working. I'm wondering if there's something that I need to change here? I did change the first line from #!/bin/bash to #!/bin/sh, but it's still throwing up an error.... Essentially, I get an error when I try to run it: Syntax error: end of file unexpected (expecting ")") #!/bin/sh REMOTE='ftp.example.com' USER='USERNAME' PASSWORD='PASSWORD' CMDFILE='/jtmp/rc.ftp' FTPLOG='/jtmp/ftplog' PATTERN='SampFile*' date > $FTPLOG rm $CMDFILE 2>/dev/null LISTING=$(ftp -in $REMOTE <<EOF user $USER $PASSWORD cd download ls $PATTERN quit EOF ) echo "open $REMOTE" >> $CMDFILE echo "user $USER $PASSWORD" >> $CMDFILE echo "verbose" >> $CMDFILE echo "bin" >> $CMDFILE echo "cd download" >> $CMDFILE for FILE in $LISTING do echo "get $FILE" >> $CMDFILE done echo "quit" >> $CMDFILE ftp -in < $CMDFILE >> $FTPLOG 2>&1 rm $CMDFILE

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  • how to do validations when composing object of a class in other class ?

    - by haansi
    Hi, I have an IPAddress class which has one property named ip and in its setter I am validating data coming and if data is invalid it throws an error. (Its code is as the following): private string ip; public string IP { get { return ip; } set { string PartsOfIP = value.Split('.'); if (PartsOfIP.Length == 4) { foreach (string part in PartsOfIP) { int a = 0; bool result = int.TryParse(part, out a); if (result != true) { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } else { ip = value; } } } else { throw new Exception("Invalid IP"); } } In User Class I want to compose an object of IPAddress class. I am doing validations for properties of User in User class and validations of Ip in IPAddress class. My question is how I will compose IPAddress object in UserClass and what will be syntax for this ? If I again mention get and set here with IPAddress object in User class will my earlier mentioned (in IPAddress class) getter and setter work ? plz advice me in details thanks

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  • Java : Inner class of an interface (from google guice)

    - by bsreekanth
    Hello, I was going through the source of google guice, and found an unfamiliar piece of code. It would be great learning if someone can clarify it. I have very basic understanding of inner classes, as they keep the implementation details close to the public interface. Otherwise the inner class may pollute the namespace. Now, I see the below lines at public static final Scope SINGLETON = new Scope() { public <T> Provider<T> scope(final Key<T> key, final Provider<T> creator) { return new Provider<T>() { ......... } It assign an inner class instance to the static variable, but Scope is an interface defined as (at) public interface Scope Is it possible to instantiate the interface?? or is it a succinct syntax for an anonymous implementation of an interface?? If anyone can explain what the author is intended by multiple nested classes above (Scope and Provider), and why it make sense to implement this way, it would help me to understand. thanks.

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  • Attempt to use a while loop for the 'next' arg of a for loop generates #arg error

    - by JerryK
    Am attempting to teach myself to program using Tcl. The task i've set myself to motivate my learning of Tcl is to solve the 8 queens problem. My approach to creating a program is to successively 'prototype' a solution. I have asked an earlier question related to the correctly laying out the nested for loops and received a helpful answer. To my dismay I find that the next development of my code creates the same interpreter error : "wrong # args" I have been careful to have an open brace at the end of the line preceding the while loop command. I've also tried to put the arguments of the whileloop in braces. This generates a different error. I have sincerely tried to understand the Tcl syntax man page - not too successfully - suggested by the answerer of my earlier question. Here is the code set allowd 1 set notallowd 0 for {set r1p 1} {$r1p <= 8} {incr r1p } { puts "1st row q placed at $r1p" ;# re-initialize r2 'free for q placemnt' array after every change of r1 q pos: for {set i 1 } {$i <= 8} {incr i} { set r2($i) $allowd } for { set r2($r1p) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p-1]) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p+1]) $notallowd ; set r2p 1} {$r2p <= 8} { ;# 'next' arg of r2 forloop will be a whileloop : while r2($r2p)== $notallowd incr r2p } { puts "2nd row q placed at $r2p" ;# end of 'commnd' arg of r2 forloop } } Where am I going wrong? EDIT : to provide clear reply @slebetman As stated in my text, I did brace the arguments of the whileloop (indeed that was how i first wrote the code) below is exactly the layout of the r2 forloop tried: for { set r2($r1p) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p-1]) $notallowd ; set r2([expr $r1p+1]) $notallowd ; set r2p 1} {$r2p <= 8} { ;# 'next' arg of r2 forloop will be a whileloop : while { r2($r2p)== $notallowd } { incr r2p } } { puts "2nd row q placed at $r2p" ;# end of 'commnd' arg of r2 forloop } but this generates the fatal interpreter error : "unknown math function 'r2' while compiling while { r2($r2p .... "

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  • What's the best way to get a bunch of rows from MySQL if you have an array of integer primary keys?

    - by Evan P.
    I have a MySQL table with an auto-incremented integer primary key. I want to get a bunch of rows from the table based on an array of integers I have in memory in my program. The array ranges from a handful to about 1000 items. What's the most efficient query syntax to get the rows? I can think of a few: "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id IN (1, 2, 3, 4, 5)" (this is what I do now) "SELECT * FROM thetable where id = 1 OR id = 2 OR id = 3" Multiple queries of the form "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 1". Probably the most friendly to the query cache, but expensive due to having lots of query parsing. A union, like "SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 1 UNION SELECT * FROM thetable WHERE id = 2 ..." I'm not sure if MySQL caches the results of each query; it's also the most verbose format. I think using the NoSQL interface in MySQL 5.6+ would be the most efficient way to do this, but I'm not yet up to MySQL 5.6.

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  • if statement inside array : codeigniter

    - by ahmad
    Hello , I have this function to edit all fields that come from the form and its works fine .. function editRow($tableName,$id) { $fieldsData = $this->db->field_data($tableName); $data = array(); foreach ($fieldsData as $key => $field) { $data[ $field->name ] = $this->input->post($field->name); } $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update($tableName, $data); } now I want to add a condition for Password field , if the field is empty keep the old password , I did some thing like that : function editRow($tableName,$id) { $fieldsData = $this->db->field_data($tableName); $data = array(); foreach ($fieldsData as $key => $field) { if ($data[ $field->name ] == 'password' && $this->input->post('password') == '' ) { $data[ 'password' ] => $this->input->post('hide_password'), //'password' => $this->input->post('hide_password'), } else { $data[ $field->name ] => $this->input->post($field->name) } } $this->db->where('id', $id); $this->db->update($tableName, $data); } but I get error ( Parse error: syntax error, unexpected T_DOUBLE_ARROW in ... ) Html , some thing like this : <input type="text" name="password" value=""> <input type="hidden" name="hide_password" value="$row->$password" /> umm , any help ? thanks ..

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  • Tiny MCE (jquery plugin version) not showing toolbar in IE (works fine in other browsers)

    - by I am Wonder
    I had an implementation working well but for some reason IE decided it was tired of playing nice. I have an advanced implementation of TinyMCE (the jquery plugin version - see http://tinymce.moxiecode.com/examples/example_23.php for details). It still works great in all browsers but IE. In IE it shows the drop-down options for Format, Font family, and Font size, but only as text.. not as a drop down normally looks. All other buttons on the toolbar are missing. (I've tried IE8 and IE8 Compatibility Mode) I get a javascript error: Syntax error Line 36 Char 1. Unfortunately the javascript is being loaded dynamically so this doesn't help me. Here is my implementation code for the TinyMCE editor: $(function () { $('#InputStuffHere').tinymce({ // General options theme: "advanced", plugins: "safari,pagebreak,style,layer,table,save,advhr,advimage,advlink,inlinepopups,preview,media,searchreplace,contextmenu,paste,fullscreen,noneditable,visualchars,nonbreaking,template", // Theme options theme_advanced_buttons1: "bold,italic,underline,strikethrough,|,justifyleft,justifycenter,justifyright,justifyfull,formatselect,fontselect,fontsizeselect,|,hr,removeformat", theme_advanced_buttons2: "cut,copy,paste,pastetext,pasteword,|,search,replace,|,bullist,numlist,|,outdent,indent,blockquote,|,undo,redo,|,link,unlink,image,|,forecolor,backcolor,|,spellchecker", theme_advanced_buttons3 : "", theme_advanced_toolbar_location: "top", theme_advanced_toolbar_align: "left", theme_advanced_statusbar_location: "bottom", theme_advanced_resizing: true, // Drop lists for link/image/media/template dialogs template_external_list_url: "lists/template_list.js", external_link_list_url: "lists/link_list.js", external_image_list_url: "lists/image_list.js", media_external_list_url: "lists/media_list.js", //initialization callback init_instance_callback: "TinyMCEReady", add_form_submit_trigger : false }); }); So... anyone seen anything like this or have any ideas for me? Thank you so much everyone!

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  • T-SQL: how to sort table rows based on 2 columns

    - by Criss Nautilus
    I'm quite stuck with this problem for sometime now.. How do I sort column A depending on the contents of Column B? I have this sample: ID count columnA ColumnB 12 1 A B 13 2 C D 14 3 B C I want to sort it like this: ID count ColumnA ColumnB 12 1 A B 14 3 B C 13 2 C D so I need to sort the rows if the previous row of ColumnB = the next row of ColumnA I'm thinking a loop? but can't quite imagine how it will work... I was thinking it will go like this (maybe) SELECT a.ID, a.ColumnA, a.ColumnB FROM TableA WITH a (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN TableA b WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.ID = b.ID and a.counts = b.counts Where a.columnB = b.ColumnA the above code isn't working though and I was thinking more on the lines of... DECLARE @counts int = 1 DECLARE @done int = 0 --WHILE @done = 0 BEGIN SELECT a.ID, a.ColumnA, a.ColumnB FROM TableA WITH a (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN TableA b WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.ID = b.ID and a.counts = @counts Where a.columnB = b.ColumnA set @count = @count +1 END If this was a C code, would be easier for me but t-sql's syntax is making it a bit harder for a noobie like me.

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  • Help me sort programing languages a bit

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, so I asked here few days ago about C# and its principles. Now, if I may, I have some additional general questions about some languages, becouse for novice like me, it seems a bit confusing. To be exact I want to ask more about language functions capabilities than syntax and so. To be honest, its just these special functions that bothers me and make me so confused. For exmaple, C has its printf(), Pascal has writeln() and so. I know in basic the output in assembler of these funtions would be similiar, every language has more or less its special functions. For console output, for file manipulation, etc. But all these functions are de-facto part of its OS API, so why is for example in C distinguished between C standard library functions and (on Windows) WinAPI functions when even printf() has to use some Windows feature, call some of its function to actually show desired text on console window, becouse the actuall "showing" is done by OS. Where is the line between language functions and system API? Now languages I dont quite understand - Python, Ruby and similiar. To be more specific, I know they are similiar to java and C# in term they are compiled into bytecode. But, I do not unerstand what are its capabilities in term of building GUI applications. I saw tutorial for using Ruby to program GUI applications on Linux and Windows. But isn´t that just some kind of upgrade? I mean fram other tutorials It seemed like these languages was first intended for small scripts than building big applications. I hope you understand why I am confused. If you do, please help me sort it out a bit, I have no one to ask.

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  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

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  • How do I define a monadic function to work on a list in J?

    - by Gregory Higley
    Let's say I have the following J expression: # 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 This counts the number of numbers between 1 and 1000 that are evenly divisible by 3. (Now, before anyone points out that there's an easier way to do this, this question is about the syntax of J, and not mathematics.) Let's say I define a monadic function for this, as follows: f =: monad define # y ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 ) This works great with a single argument, e.g., f 4 250 If I pass a list in, I get a length error: f 1 2 3 |length error: f Now, I completely understand why I get the length error. When you substitute the list 1 2 3 for the y argument of the monad, you get: # 1 2 3 ((|=0:)#]) 1+i.1000 If you know anything about J, it's pretty clear why the length error is occurring. So, I don't need an explanation of that. I want to define the function such that when I pass a list, it returns a list, e.g., f 1 2 3 1000 500 333 How can I either (a) redefine this function to take a list and return a list or (b) get the function to work on a list as-is without being redefined, perhaps using some adverb or other technique?

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