Search Results

Search found 7387 results on 296 pages for 'adrian hope bailie'.

Page 221/296 | < Previous Page | 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228  | Next Page >

  • Can i use Twig and Doctrine in my project which is licensed under GPL license?

    - by aRagnis
    Can i license my open sourced CMS under GPL v2/v3 license if it uses Twig (BSD License) and Doctrine (LGPL)? And i also want to know, that do i have to put this text to teh beginning of all my source files... * This file is part of Foobar. * * Foobar is free software: you can redistribute it and/or modify * it under the terms of the GNU General Public License as published by * the Free Software Foundation, either version 3 of the License, or * (at your option) any later version. * * Foobar is distributed in the hope that it will be useful, * but WITHOUT ANY WARRANTY; without even the implied warranty of * MERCHANTABILITY or FITNESS FOR A PARTICULAR PURPOSE. See the * GNU General Public License for more details. * * You should have received a copy of the GNU General Public License * along with Foobar. If not, see <http://www.gnu.org/licenses/>. ..or can i do it like phpbb does? /** * * @package mcp * @version $Id$ * @copyright (c) 2005 phpBB Group * @license http://opensource.org/licenses/gpl-license.php GNU Public License * */

    Read the article

  • define a closure as method from class

    - by user272839
    Hi, i'm trying to play with php5.3 and closure. I see here (Listing 7. Closure inside an object : http://www.ibm.com/developerworks/opensource/library/os-php-5.3new2/index.html) that it's possible to use $this in the callback function, but it's not. So I try to give $this as use variable : $self = $this; $foo = function() use($self) { //do something with $self } So to use the same example : class Dog { private $_name; protected $_color; public function __construct($name, $color) { $this->_name = $name; $this->_color = $color; } public function greet($greeting) { $self = $this; return function() use ($greeting, $self) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; }; } } $dog = new Dog("Rover","red"); $dog->greet("Hello"); Output: Hello, I am a red dog named Rover. First of all this example does not print the string but return the function, but that's not my problem. Secondly I can't access to private or protected, because the callback function is a global function and not in the context from the Dog object. Tha't my problem. It's the same as : function greet($greeting, $object) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } And I want : public function greet($greeting) { echo "$greeting, I am a {$self->_color} dog named {$self->_name}."; } Which is from Dog and not global. I hope that I am clear ...

    Read the article

  • How to .NET package JavaScript/bookmarklet as Interner Explorer 8/9 Plugin?

    - by Don
    How to .NET package JavaScript/bookmarklet as Interner Explorer 8/9 Plugin? I have recently finished writing JavaScript code for a browser addon, which basically (once the JS is included) runs on page-load, for given domains it then checks for certain elements in the DOM and adds new relevant elements(/information) to the page. Since the JavaScript only reads/affects the HTML DOM independently (and does not need any toolbar buttons or anything else) the JS purely needs adding to the browser's webpages. I have packaged the code to work with Firefox and Chrome and those are both working well, and I can run the code for IE in 'bookmarklet' form without problems, but I would like to learn how to package JavaScript as an actual .NET .MSI addon/plugin that will install for the current Internet Explorer 8/9. Does anyone know of a suitable guide or method I might refer to please? I have tried searching online for tutorials but most walkthroughs refer to writing the plugin body itself (which might involve unnecessary stages/includes) and are thus not regarding packing existing JS. I hope someone might have the solution please? Note: Someone packaged an old version for me as a MSI installer for Internet Explorer 7 a year ago, which installed into Program Files with a plugin.dll plugin.tlb and plugin.InstallState plus BandObjectLib.dll Interop.SHDocVw.dll and Microsoft.mshtml.dll if that is useful.

    Read the article

  • Strange Bug in iPhone SDK

    - by Crazer
    Hi all, I found a strange bug in iphone sdk. I try to explain it: I have a number of uibuttons in a view. They are all just images. Every buttons has a title but that is not displayed so you just see the images (all 80x80). I made it all in IB. In my code I position those buttons. Here's a snippet of that code: for(NSString *iconObject in iconArray){ //retrieve UIButtons from dictionary iconButton = [allIconsDictionary objectForKey:iconObject]; iconButton.hidden = NO; //position and resize icon Buttons iconButton.frame = CGRectMake((79 * col) + 28, (70 * row) + 70, 80 ,80); col++; //five buttons in a row if(col%5 == 0){ row++; col = 0; } } That works like it should. But for all buttons that title starts with a 't' the title displays in the simulator (also on the device). The title of the other buttons are not shown just those where the title starts with a 't'. I have no clue what this could be?! I hope I could describe the problem.

    Read the article

  • Java if statement strings and more

    - by user1820578
    I have decided to try and learn a little in java tonight and i have just been trying some stuff with things i have learned. My question is in an if statement how to i make two stings to be true. Here is what i have so far. if ("male".equals(gender)) && ("brendan".equals(name)) the problem i am pretty sure is the && but i am not sure. also my other question is with gender it should either be male or female. I want to have if statement with male and another for female. For this do i just do another if. For eg if ("male".equals(gender)) && ("brendan".equals(name)) { System.out.println("blah blah"); } else { System.out.println(" wrong wrong"); } if ("female".equals(gender)) { System.out.println("blah blah2"); } else { System.out.println(" wrong wrong 2"); } hope that makes sense. Any help would be great.

    Read the article

  • Why does instanceof seem to work in a static generic function sometimes?

    - by michael
    Greetings. This is my first post in this site. I thought that because of type erasure, one could not expect the following code to compile, and indeed, it did not compile on an earlier version of Eclipse. My understanding was that instanceof was a run-time operator and could not know about the generic type which would be, by run-time, compiled away: public static <E extends Comparable<? super E>> void SampleForQuestion(E e) { if ( !(e instanceof String) ) System.out.println("I am not a String"); else System.out.println("I am a String"); } However, I was surprised to see that one of your threads actually included some code like this in an answer, and my latest Eclipse (Galileo on Windows with JVM 1.6 rev 20) is perfectly happy with it -- and it works, too. (I did notice that someone said it worked on Eclipse but not in another IDE/JDK in that thread, but don't remember the specifics.) Can someone explain why it works, and more importantly, because I have to guide my students, whether it should be expected to work in the future. Thank you. (I hope the code formatting comes through correctly - it looks indented correctly from my perspective and there are no tabs.)

    Read the article

  • Deploying a WAR to tomcat only using a context descriptor

    - by DanglingElse
    i need to deploy a web application in WAR format to a remote tomcat6 server. The thing is that i don't want to do that the easy way, meaning not just copy/paste the WAR file to /webapps. So the second choice is to create a unique "Context Descriptor" and pointing this out to the WAR file. (Hope i got that right till here) So i have a few questions: Is the WAR file allowed to be anywhere in the file system? Meaning can i copy the WAR file anywhere in the remote file system, except /webapps or any other folder of the tomcat6 installation? Is there an easy way to test whether the deployment was successful or not? Without using any browser or anything, since i'm reaching to the remote server only via SSH and terminal. (I'm thinking ping?) Is it normal that the startup.sh/shutdown.sh don't exist? I'm not the admin of the server and don't know how the tomcat6 is installed. But i'm sure that in my local tomcat installations these files are in /bin and ready to use. I mean you can still start/restart/stop the tomcat etc., but not with the these -standard?- scripts. Thanks a lot.

    Read the article

  • Injecting correct object graph using StructureMap in Queue of different Objects

    - by davy
    I have a queuing service that has to inject a different dependency graph depending on the type of object in the queue. I'm using Structure Map. So, if the object in the queue is TypeA the concrete classes for TypeA are used and if it's TypeB, the concrete classes for TypeB are used. I'd like to avoid code in the queue like: if (typeA) { // setup TypeA graph } else if (typeB) { // setup TypeB graph } Within the graph, I also have a generic classes such as an IReader(ISomething, ISpomethingElse) where IReader is generic but needs to inject the correct ISomething and ISomethingElse for the type. ISomething will also have dependencies and so on. Currently I create a TypeA or TypeB object and inject a generic Processor class using StructureMap into it and then pass a factory manually inject a TypeA or TypeB factory into a method like: Processor.Process(new TypeAFactory) // perhaps I should have an abstract factory... However, because the factory then creates the generic IReader mentioned above, I end up manually injecting all the TypeA or TypeB classes fro there on. I hope enough of this makes sense. I am new to StructureMap and was hoping somebody could point me in the right direction here for a flexible and elegant solution. Thanks

    Read the article

  • Passing a paramter/object to a ruby unit/test before running it using TestRunner

    - by Nahir Khan
    I'm building a tool that automates a process then runs some tests on it's own results then goes to do some other stuff. In trying to clean up my code I have created a separate file that just has the test cases class. Now before I can run these tests, I have to pass the class a couple of parameters/objects before they can be run. Now the problem is that I can't seem to find a way to pass a parameter/object to the test class. Right now I am thinking to generate a Yaml file and read it in the test class but it feels "wrong" to use a temporary file for this. If anyone has a nicer solution that would be great! *********Edit******* Example Code of what I am doing right now: #!/usr/bin/ruby require 'test/unit/ui/console/testrunner' require 'yaml' require 'TS_SampleTestSuite' automatingSomething() importantInfo = getImportantInfo() File.open('filename.yml', 'w') do |f| f.puts importantInfo.to_yaml end Test::Unit::UI::Console::TestRunner.run(TS_SampleTestSuite) Now in the example above TS_SampleTestSuite needs importantInfo, so the first "test case" is a method that just reads in the information from the Yaml file filname.yml. I hope that clears up some confusion.

    Read the article

  • CodeIgniter and SimpleTest -- How to make my first test?

    - by Smandoli
    I'm used to web development using LAMP, PHP5, MySQL plus NetBeans with Xdebug. Now I want to improve my development, by learning how to use (A) proper testing and (B) a framework. So I have set up CodeIgniter, SimpleTest and the easy Xdebug add-in for Firefox. This is great fun because maroonbytes provided me with clear instructions and a configured setup ready for download. I am standing on the shoulders of giants, and very grateful. I've used SimpleTest a bit in the past. Here is a the kind of thing I wrote: <?php require_once('../simpletest/unit_tester.php'); require_once('../simpletest/reporter.php'); class TestOfMysqlTransaction extends UnitTestCase { function testDB_ViewTable() { $this->assertEqual(1,1); // a pseudo-test } } $test = new TestOfMysqlTransaction(); $test->run(new HtmlReporter()) ?> So I hope I know what a test looks like. What I can't figure out is where and how to put a test in my new setup. I don't see any sample tests in the maroonbytes package, and Google so far has led me to posts that assume unit testing is already functionally available. What do I do?

    Read the article

  • Quickest way to compare a bunch of array or list of values.

    - by zapping
    Can you please let me know on the quickest and efficient way to compare a large set of values. Its like there are a list of parent codes(string) and each code has a series of child values(string). The child lists have to be compared with each other and find out duplicates and count how many times they repeat. code1(code1_value1, code1_value2, code3_value3, ..., code1_valueN); code2(code2_value1, code1_value2, code2_value3, ..., code2_valueN); code3(code2_value1, code3_value2, code3_value3, ..., code3_valueN); . . . codeN(codeN_value1, codeN_value2, codeN_value3, ..., codeN_valueN); The lists are huge say like there are 100 parent codes and each has about 250 values in them. There will not be duplicates within a code list. Doing it in java and the solution i could figure out is. Store the values of first set of code in as codeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount). The count initialized to 0. Then compare the rest of the values with this. If its in the map then increment the count otherwise append it to the map. The downfall of this is to get the duplicates. Another iteration needs to be performed on a very large list. An alternative is to maintain another hashmap for duplicates like duplicateCodeMap.put(codeValue, duplicateCount) and change the initial hashmap to codeMap.put(codeValue, codeValue). Speed is what is requirement. Hope one of you can help me with it.

    Read the article

  • DB Design to store custom fields for a table

    - by Fazal
    Hi All, this question came up based on the responses I got for the question http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2785033/getting-wierd-issue-with-to-number-function-in-oracle As everyone suggested that storing Numeric values in VARCHAR2 columns is not a good practice (which I totally agree with), I am wondering about a basic Design choice our team has made and whether there are better way to design. Problem Statement : We Have many tables where we want to give certain number of custom fields. The number of required custom fields is known, but what kind of attribute is mapped to the column is available to the user E.g. I am putting down a hypothetical scenario below Say you have a laptop which stores 50 attribute values for every laptop record. Each laptop attributes are created by the some admin who creates the laptop. A user created a laptop product lets say lap1 with attributes String, String, numeric, numeric, String Second user created laptop lap2 with attributes String,numeric,String,String,numeric Currently there data in our design gets persisted as following Laptop Table Id Name field1 field2 field3 field4 field5 1 lap1 lappy lappy 12 13 lappy 2 lap2 lappy2 13 lappy2 lapp2 12 This example kind of simulates our requirement and our design Now here if somebody is lookinup records for lap2 table doing a comparison on field2, We need to apply TO_NUMBER. select * from laptop where name='lap2' and TO_NUMBER(field2) < 15 TO_NUMBER fails in some cases when query plan decides to first apply to_number instead of the other filter. QUESTION Is this a valid design? What are the other alternative ways to solve this problem One of our team mates suggested creating tables on the fly for such cases. Is that a good idea How do popular ORM tools give custom fields or flex fields handling? I hope I was able to make sense in the question. Sorry for such a long text.. This causes us to use TO_NUMBER when queryio

    Read the article

  • changing asp .net web service namespace when already in productive state

    - by eloQ
    by some unfortunate events we published a web service with the tempuri-namespace a couple of months ago and no one did notice (not in our company, not the companies connecting to the web service) even though it's live since that time and lots of companies (~25 i guess) already access this web service. now i'm thinking of correcting that mistake and have the namespace fixed to a proper value. the only problem is: as soon as we would do it, all the programs and services connected to this web service would stop working. i can't really allow that to happen. is there any way to fix the namespace for future purpose or to have the web service operate under two namespaces as one web service? any tip at all what i could do to get rid of the tempuri-namespace and have it fixed without needing to synchronize the change with all the external companies? i'm all out of ideas, so any help would be much appreciated! thanks! I hope this question is alright here, first time user, found this through using search engines on my research and found tempuri.org related posts, just not the right one..

    Read the article

  • PHP/MySQL time zone migration

    - by El Yobo
    I have an application that currently stores timestamps in MySQL DATETIME and TIMESTAMP values. However, the application needs to be able to accept data from users in multiple time zones and show the timestamps in the time zone of other users. As such, this is how I plan to amend the application; I would appreciate any suggestions to improve the approach. Database modifications All TIMESTAMPs will be converted to DATETIME values; this is to ensure consistency in approach and to avoid having MySQL try to do clever things and convert time zones (I want to keep the conversion in PHP, as it involves less modification to the application, and will be more portable when I eventually manage to escape from MySQL). All DATETIME values will be adjusted to convert them to UTC time (currently all in Australian EST) Query modifications All usage of NOW() to be replaced with UTC_TIMESTAMP() in queries, triggers, functions, etc. Application modifications The application must store the time zone and preferred date format (e.g. US vs the rest of the world) All timestamps will be converted according to the user settings before being displayed All input timestamps will be converted to UTC according to the user settings before being input Additional notes Converting formats will be done at the application level for several main reasons The approach to converting time zones varies from DB to DB, so handing it there will be non-portable (and I really hope to be migrating away from MySQL some time in the not-to-distant future). MySQL TIMESTAMPs have limited ranges to the permitted dates (~1970 to ~2038) MySQL TIMESTAMPs have other undesirable attributes, including bizarre auto-update behaviour (if not carefully disabled) and sensitivity to the server zone settings (and I suspect I might screw these up when I migrate to Amazon later in the year). Is there anything that I'm missing here, or does anyone have better suggestions for the approach?

    Read the article

  • Creating a RESTful API - HELP!

    - by Martin Cox
    Hi Chaps Over the last few weeks I've been learning about iOS development, which has naturally led me into the world of APIs. Now, searching around on the Internet, I've come to the conclusion that using the REST architecture is very much recommended - due to it's supposed simplicity and ease of implementation. However, I'm really struggling with the implementation side of REST. I understand the concept; using HTTP methods as verbs to describe the action of a request and responding with suitable response codes, and so on. It's just, I don't understand how to code it. I don't get how I map a URI to an object. I understand that a GET request for domain.com/api/user/address?user_id=999 would return the address of user 999 - but I don't understand where or how that mapping from /user/address to some method that queries a database has taken place. Is this all coded in one php script? Would I just have a method that grabs the URI like so: $array = explode("/", ltrim(rtrim($_SERVER['REQUEST_URI'], "/"), "/")) And then cycle through that array, first I would have a request for a "user", so the PHP script would direct my request to the user object and then invoke the address method. Is that what actually happens? I've probably not explained my thought process very well there. The main thing I'm not getting is how that URI /user/address?id=999 somehow is broken down and executed - does it actually resolve to code? class user(id) { address() { //get user address } } I doubt I'm making sense now, so I'll call it a day trying to explain further. I hope someone out there can understand what I'm trying to say! Thanks Chaps, look forward to your responses. Martin p.s - I'm not a developer yet, I'm learning :)

    Read the article

  • JQuery use variable by name of divID

    - by Russell Parrott
    Just a quick question, that I cannot fathom out, hope you guys and girls can help. I have a div (with ID) that when clicked opens a new div - great works well, what I really want is to "populate" the new div with predefined text based on the clicked div's ID. example: <div class="infobox" id="help_msg1">Click me</div> I may have say 3 (actually more but...) of these div's This opens: <div id="helpbox">text in here</div> In/on my .js page I have doc ready etc then: var help_msg1 ='text that is a help message'; var help_msg2 ='text that is another help message'; var help_msg3 ='text that is yet another help message'; Then $('.infobox').live('click',function() { $('#helpbox').remove(); $('label').css({'font-weight': '400'}); $(this).next('label').css({'font-weight': '900'}); var offset = $(this).next().next().offset(); var offsetby = $(this).next().next().width(); var leftitby = offset.left+offsetby+10; $('body').append('text in here'); $('#helpbox').css( { 'left': leftitby, 'top': offset.top } ); }); Note I remove each #helpbox before appending the new one and the .next().next() identifies the appropriate text input that lot all works. What I need is how do I put var help_msg1 into the append when id="help_msg1" is clicked or var help_msg2 when id="help_msg2" is clicked etc. I have tried

    Read the article

  • JSP/Struts2/Hibernate: loop through a self-referencing table.

    - by TBW
    Hello everyone, Let's say we have a self-referencing table called PERSON, with the following columns: ID, PARENT, where PARENT is a foreign key to the ID column of another element in the PERSON table. Of course, many persons can have the same parent. I use Hibernate 3 in lazy fetching mode to deal with the database. Hibernate fetches a person element from the database, which is then put in the ValueStack by the Struts2 action, to be used on the result JSP page. Now the question is : In JSP, how can I do to display all the child (and the child's child, and so on, like a family tree) of this person element? Of course, for the n+1 children I can use the < s:iterator tag over the person.person. I can also nest another < s:iterator tag over person.person.person to get the n+2 children. But what if I want to do this in an automated manner, up to the last n+p child, displaying in the process all the children of all the n+1..n+p elements? I hope I have been clear enough. Thank you all for your time. -- TBW.

    Read the article

  • Modelling in Agile Development

    - by bertzzie
    I'm writing a bachelor dissertation report where I'm developing a system with Agile methodology. Given that the development is an one man show, of course the "Agile" I did was not really agile at all (from my understanding at least). So I want some perspective from SO crowds, who is of course a professional, real world, developer with tons of experience. I think real world experience is better than the theory and experiments that I did. My question is: Do we model during development time when using Agile? UML? DFD? Or a Functional Specification is enough1? If modelling is not really necessary, what do we use to communicate to the user, as the user almost always won't understand UML or DFD? For my system, I use UI & UX Design with heavy prototyping, but then I don't have time to draw UML any more. Which one is better? 1 http://www.joelonsoftware.com/articles/fog0000000036.html I hope the question's not "subjective and argumentative" as I know this question exist because of my lack of understanding in the agile development. If it is, could someone just give me a pointer or reference about that? Possible duplicate: Do you use UML in Agile development practices?

    Read the article

  • Splitting 25mb .txt file into smaller files using text delimiter

    - by user574141
    Regards, SO I am new to python and Perl. I have been trying to solve a simple problem and getting tied in knots with syntax. I hope someone has the time and patience to help. I have a 25mb file in ".txt" format which contains news-wire articles going back to 1970. Each news story is concatenated to the next, with only the "Copyright" statement to delimit. Each news story starts with "Item XX of XXX DOCUMENTS". There are certain metadata that are repeated throughout, I will use these for tagging later on. I wish to split this 25mb file into separate .txt files, each containing one news story (i.e. the text between "DOCUMENTS" and "Copyright", saving each with a different name (obviously). I am trying to 1 ) open the file... 2) iterate over lines in the file checking for the eof delimiter, and if it is not present writing the line to a list 3)write that list to a seperate small file. I'm having big problems with changing filenames using the counter, and how do I make Python start from where I left off, is the "seek" function appropriate? so far I have been trying this approach, completely unsuccessfully: myfile = open ("myfile.txt", 'r') filenumber = 0 for line in myfile.readline(): filenumber += 1 w=0 while myfile.readline() != '\s+DOCUMENTS\s*\n' ### read my line into a list mysmallfile()['w'] = [myfile.readline()] w += 1 output = open('C:\\Users\\dunner7\\Documents\###how do I change the filename each iteration???', 'w') output.writelines(mysmallfile) ###go back to start. Thank you for your time and patience. RD

    Read the article

  • Call .NET Webservice with Android

    - by Lasse P
    Hi, I know this question has been asked here before, but I don't think those answers were adequate for my needs. We have a SOAP webservice that is used for an iPhone application, but it is possible that we need an Android specific version or a proxy of the service, so we have the option to go with either SOAP or JSON. I have a few concerns about both methods: SOAP solution: Is it possible to generate java source code from a WSDL file, if so, will it include some kind of proxy class to invoke the webservice and will it work in the Android environment at all? Google has not provided any SOAP library in Android, so i need to use 3rd party, any suggestion? What about the performance/overhead with parsing and transmitting SOAP xml over the wire versus the JSON solution? JSON solution: There is a few classes in the Android sdk that will let me parse JSON, but does it support generic parsing, like if I want the result to be parsed as a complex type? Or would I need to implement that myself? I have read about 2 libraries before here on Stackoverflow, GSON an Jackson. What is the difference performance and usability (from a developers perspective) wise? Do you guys have any experince with either of those libraries? So i guess the big question is, what method to go with? I hope you can help me out. Thanks in advance :-)

    Read the article

  • In Perl v 5.10.1 on Windows, my variable loses it's value

    - by Sylvia
    I hope this is something straightforward that I'm doing wrong. I saw something online about "variable suicide" that looked good, but it was for an older version and I'm on 5.10.1. Anyway - a variable that I declared - $RootDirectory - just suddenly loses it's value, and I can't figure out why. Here's a script to reproduce the problem. When I run through the script in debug mode (perl -d) I can get it to print out the $RootDirectory at line 21 and 26. But it's gone by line 30. use strict; my $RootDirectory; my @RootDirectories; @RootDirectories = ( 'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\EDWDM\\main\\db\\' ,'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\EDWADS\\main\\db\\' ,'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\FJE\\main\\db\\' ); foreach $RootDirectory (@RootDirectories) { # $RootDirectory = 'c:\\P4\\EDW\\PRODEDW\\EDWDM\\main\\db\\'; # print ' In foreach ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; RunSchema (); } exit(0); sub RunSchema() { # print ' In RunSchema ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; CreateTables (); } sub CreateTables() { # print ' In CreateTables ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; SQLExecFolder ('tbl'); } sub SQLExecFolder() { print ' In SQLExecFolder ' . $RootDirectory. "\n"; # Variable $RootDirectory value is gone by now }

    Read the article

  • Decompress a GZipped response from the server (Socket)

    - by Lith
    Umm, ok, after sending some data to the server, noting this particular part: "Accept-Encoding: gzip,deflate\r\n" I am getting the following response: HTTP/1.1 200 OK Server: nginx Date: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Content-Type: text/html; charset=UTF-8 Transfer-Encoding: chunked Connection: keep-alive X-Powered-By: PHP/5.2.8 Expires: Mon, 26 Jul 1997 05:00:00 GMT Last-Modified: Fri, 09 Apr 2010 23:25:27 GMT Cache-Control: no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate Cache-Control: post-check=0, pre-check=0 Pragma: no-cache Content-Encoding: gzip Vary: Accept-Encoding 7aa ??U-?Rh?%?2?w??PM]??7?qZ?K?)???2?&??m???"q??/p9w?????x?[`tA!G???G?5z??????a>k????????Q ???N?? ('??f?,(??Y:5B???-?)?3x^0e:j?`,???**???F>G)?2????@???b??????A?k???Ar?n? But how do I decompress it? Note that I am using the Socket Class to do all the work. I know how to decompress it, but the problem here lies in the fact that I cannot separate the Packet from the GZipped data, psuedo-psuedocode (or whatever) on how I do it: Socket sends packet; Socket reads response from server, stores into a ByteArray; Create MemoryStream, use ByteArray; Create GZipStream, use Memorystream; now the problem occurs; I am getting the following Error: System.IO.InvalidDataException The magic number in GZip header is not correct. Make sure you are passing in a GZip stream. I hope the explanation is clear enough __.

    Read the article

  • Rails: Multiple "types" of one model through related models?

    - by neezer
    I have a User model in my app, which I would like to store basic user information, such as email address, first and last name, phone number, etc. I also have many different types of users in my system, including sales agents, clients, guests, etc. I would like to be able to use the same User model as a base for all the others, so that I don't have to include all the fields for all the related roles in one model, and can delegate as necessary (cutting down on duplicate database fields as well as providing easy mobility from changing one user of one type to another). So, what I'd like is this: User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "client", so ---- client field 1 ---- client field 2 ---- client field 3 User -- first name -- last name -- email --> is a "sales agent", so ---- sales agent field 1 ---- sales agent field 2 ---- sales agent field 3 and so on... In addition, when a new user signs up, I want that new user to automatically be assigned the role of "client" (I'm talking about database fields here, not authorization, though I hope to eventually include this logic in my user authorization as well). I have a multi-step signup wizard I'm trying to build with wizardly. The first step is easy, since I'm simply calling the fields included in the base User model (such as first_name and email), but the second step is trickier since it should be calling in fields from the associated model (like--per my example above--the model client with fields client_field_1 or client_field_2, as if those fields were part of User). Does that make sense? Let me know if that wasn't clear at all, and I'll try to explain it in a different way. Can anyone help me with this? How would I do this?

    Read the article

  • asp.net Can I force every page to inherit from a base page? Also should some of this logic be in my master page?

    - by Bex
    Hi! I have a web app that has a base page. Each page needs to inherit from this base page as it contains properties they all need as well as dealing with the login rights. My base page has some properties, eg: IsRole1, IsRole2, currentUserID, Role1Allowed, Role2Allowed. On the init of each page I set the properties "Role1Allowed" and "Role2Allowed" Private Sub Page_Init(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Init Role1Allowed = True Role2Allowed= False End Sub The basepage then decides if the user needs redirecting. 'Sample code so not exactly what is going to be, bug gives the idea Protected Overridable Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) If Role1Allowed And Not Role1 Then 'Redirect somewhere End If End Sub The page then must override this pageload if they need anything else in it, but making sure they call the base pageload first. Protected Overrides Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load MyBase.Page_Load(sender, e) If Not IsPostBack Then BindGrid() End If End Sub The other properties (IsRole1, IsRole, currentUserID) are also accessible by the page so it can be decided if certain things need doing based on the user. (I hope this makes sense) Ok so I have 2 questions Should this functionality be in the base page or should it somehow be in the master, and if so how would I get access to all the properties if it was? As there are multiple people working on this project and creating pages some are forgetting to inherit from this basepage, or call the base pageload when overriding it. Is there any way to force them to do this? Thanks for any help. bex

    Read the article

  • IE 8 remove line break between nodes with JavaScript

    - by Tokimon
    Ok i have a list of HTML nodes which should be inline with no spacing between them. The problem is, that the nodes are written from a CMS and therefore will come with all sorts of linebreaks and spaces. Therefore I'm removing the spaces with JS using the method descibed in this question. The problem is, however, that in IE (not 9) the white spaces isn't part of the childrens list of the parent node, rendering the method useless in IE. However IE 7 (or at least IE 9 emulating IE 7) ignores the linebreaks, so that one is in the clear. That leaves IE 8 as the troublemaker. I discovered that the line break is actually a part of the outerHTML and that a simple reset of the outerHTML did the trick - like so: node.outerHTML = node.outerHTML However this will reset the node intirely and therefore removing all events and other settings on the node, which isn't really any good. So my question is now: Is there a way to remove that linebreak from the nodes outerHTML whitout resetting the node? I've tried with zoom: 1, but to no avail. Hope anyone has any experience with this.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 217 218 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228  | Next Page >