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  • Methodology for a Rails app

    - by Aaron Vegh
    I'm undertaking a rather large conversion from a legacy database-driven Windows app to a Rails app. Because of the large number of forms and database tables involved, I want to make sure I've got the right methodology before getting too far. My chief concern is minimizing the amount of code I have to write. There are many models that interact together, and I want to make sure I'm using them correctly. Here's a simplified set of models: class Patient < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :PatientAddresses has_many :PatientFileStatuses end class PatientAddress < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end class PatientFileStatus < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :Patient end The controller determines if there's a Patient selected; everything else is based on that. In the view, I will be needing data from each of these models. But it seems like I have to write an instance variable in my controller for every attribute that I want to use. So I start writing code like this: @patient = Patient.find(session[:patient]) @patient_addresses = @patient.PatientAddresses @patient_file_statuses = @patient.PatientFileStatuses @enrollment_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].EnrollmentReceivedWhen @consent_received = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceived @consent_received_when = @patient_file_statuses[0].ConsentReceivedWhen The first three lines grab the Patient model and its relations. The next three lines are examples of my providing values to the view from one of those relations. The view has a combination of text fields and select fields to show the data above. For example: <%= select("patientfilestatus", "ConsentReceived", {"val1"="val1", "val2"="val2", "Written"="Written"}, :include_blank=true )% <%= calendar_date_select_tag "patient_file_statuses[EnrollmentReceivedWhen]", @enrollment_complete_when, :popup=:force % (BTW, the select tag isn't really working; I think I have to use collection_select?) My questions are: Do I have to manually declare the value of every instance variable in the controller, or can/should I do it within the view? What is the proper technique for displaying a select tag for data that's not the primary model? When I go to save changes to this form, will I have to manually pick out the attributes for each model and save them individually? Or is there a way to name the fields such that ActiveRecord does the right thing? Thanks in advance, Aaron.

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  • Dynamically loading modules in Python (+ threading question)

    - by morpheous
    I am writing a Python package which reads the list of modules (along with ancillary data) from a configuration file. I then want to iterate through each of the dynamically loaded modules and invoke a do_work() function in it which will spawn a new thread, so that the code runs in a separate thread. At the moment, I am importing the list of all known modules at the beginning of my main script - this is a nasty hack I feel, and is not very flexible, as well as being a maintenance pain. This is the function that spawns the threads. I will like to modify it to dynamically load the module when it is encountered. The key in the dictionary is the name of the module containing the code: def do_work(work_info): for (worker, dataset) in work_info.items(): #import the module defined by variable worker here... t = threading.Thread(target=worker.do_work, args=[dataset]) # I'll NOT dameonize since spawned children need to clean up on shutdown # Since the threads will be holding resources #t.daemon = True t.start() Question 1 When I call the function in my script (as written above), I get the following error: AttributeError: 'str' object has no attribute 'do_work' Which makes sense, since the dictionary key is a string (name of the module to be imported). When I add the statement: import worker before spawning the thread, I get the error: ImportError: No module named worker This is strange, since the variable name rather than the value it holds are being used - when I print the variable, I get the value (as I expect) whats going on? Question 2 As I mentioned in the comments section, I realize that the do_work() function written in the spawned children needs to cleanup after itself. My understanding is to write a clean_up function that is called when do_work() has completed successfully, or an unhandled exception is caught - is there anything more I need to do to ensure resources don't leak or leave the OS in an unstable state? Question 3 If I comment out the t.daemon flag statement, will the code stil run ASYNCHRONOUSLY?. The work carried out by the spawned children are pretty intensive, and I don't want to have to be waiting for one child to finish before spawning another child. BTW, I am aware that threading in Python is in reality, a kind of time sharing/slicing - thats ok Lastly is there a better (more Pythonic) way of doing what I'm trying to do?

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  • Unit testing class in a web service in .net

    - by Dan Bailiff
    After some digging here, I took the advice in this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/371961/how-to-unit-test-c-web-service-with-visual-studio-2008 I've created a separate class and my web service class is just a wrapper for that one. The problem is that when I try to create a unit test project in VS2008, it insists on creating a unit test that acts like I'm testing the web service calls instead of the class I specified. I can't get to the class I'm trying to test. I have a web service "subscription_api.asmx". The code behind is "subscription_api.cs" which contains the web method wrapper calls to the real code at "subscription.cs". I would expect to be able to do the following: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription sub = new subscription(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatusTest(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } But instead I get this mess which is autogenerated from VS'08: /// <summary> ///A test for GetSystemStatus ///</summary> // TODO: Ensure that the UrlToTest attribute specifies a URL to an ASP.NET page (for example, // http://.../Default.aspx). This is necessary for the unit test to be executed on the web server, // whether you are testing a page, web service, or a WCF service. [TestMethod()] [HostType("ASP.NET")] [AspNetDevelopmentServerHost("C:\\CVSROOT\\rnr\\pro\\product\\wms\\ss\\subscription_api", "/subscription_api")] [UrlToTest("http://localhost/subscription_api")] public void GetSystemStatusTest() { subscription_Accessor target = new subscription_Accessor(); // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode expected = null; // TODO: Initialize to an appropriate value XmlNode actual; actual = target.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.AreEqual(expected, actual); Assert.Inconclusive("Verify the correctness of this test method."); } Additionally, there is a "subscription_api.accessor" in the Test References folder. When I try this: [TestMethod()] public void GetSystemStatusTest2() { subscription_Accessor sub = new subscription_Accessor(); XmlNode node = sub.GetSystemStatus(); Assert.IsNotNull(node); } I get an error: Test method subscription_api.Test.subscriptionTest.GetSystemStatusTest2 threw exception: System.TypeInitializationException: The type initializer for 'subscription_Accessor' threw an exception. ---> System.ArgumentNullException: Value cannot be null. I'm really new to unit testing and feel lost. How can I create a unit test just for my subscription class in "subscription.cs" without testing the web service? Am I limited to testing within the same project (I hope not)? Do I have to put the target class in its own project outside of the web service project?

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  • jQuery multiple class selection

    - by morpheous
    I am a bit confused with this: I have a page with a set of buttons (i.e. elements with class attribute 'button'. The buttons belong to one of two classes (grp1 and grp2). These are my requirements For buttons with class enabled, when the mouse hovers over them, a 'button-hover' class is added to them (i.e. the element the mouse is hovering over). Otherwise, the hover event is ignored When one of the buttons with class grp2 is clicked on (it has to be 'enabled' first), then I disable (i.e. remove the 'enabled' class for all elements with class 'enabled' (should probably selecting for elements with class 'button' AND 'enabled' - but I am having enough problems as it is, so I need to keep things simple for now). This is what my page looks like: <html> <head> <title>Demo</title> <style type="text/css" .button {border: 1px solid gray; color: gray} .enabled {border: 1px solid red; color: red} .button-hover {background-color: blue; } </style> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> </head> <body> <div class="btn-cntnr"> <span class="grp1 button enabled">button 1</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 2</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 3</span> <span class="grp2 button enabled">button 4</span> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> /* <![CDATA[ */ $(document).ready(function(){ $(".button.enabled").hover(function(){ $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }, function() { $(this).toggleClass('button-hover'); }); $('.grp2.enabled').click(function(){ $(".grp2").removeClass('enabled');} }); /* ]]> */ </script> </body> </html> Currently, when a button with class 'grp2' is clicked on, the other elements with class 'grp2' have the 'enabled' class removed (works correctly). HOWEVER, I notice that even though the class no longer have a 'enabled' class, SOMEHOW, the hover behaviour is still applied to these elemets (WRONG). Once an element has been 'disabled', I no longer want it to respond to the hover() event. How may I implement this behavior, and what is wrong with the code above (i.e. why is it not working? (I am still learning jQuery)

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  • C++ SQLDriverConnect API

    - by harshalkreddy
    Hi, I am using visual studio 2008 and sql server 2008 for developing application(SQL server is in my system). I need to fetch some fields from the database. I am using the SQLDriverConnect API to connect to the database. If I use the "SQL_DRIVER_PROMPT" I will get pop window to select the data source. I don't want this window to appear. As per my understanding this window will appear if we provide insufficient information in the connection string. I think I have provided all the information. I am trying to connect with windows authentication. I tried different options but still no luck. Please help me in solving this problem. Below is the code that I am using: //******************************************************************************** // SQLDriverConnect_ref.cpp // compile with: odbc32.lib user32.lib #include <windows.h> #include <sqlext.h> int main() { SQLHENV henv; SQLHDBC hdbc; SQLHSTMT hstmt; SQLRETURN retcode; SQLWCHAR OutConnStr[255]; SQLSMALLINT OutConnStrLen; SQLCHAR ConnStrIn[255] = "DRIVER={SQL Server};SERVER=(local);DSN=MyDSN;DATABASE=MyDatabase;Trusted_Connection=yes;"; //SQLWCHAR *ConntStr =(SQLWCHAR *) "DRIVER={SQL Server};DSN=MyDSN;"; HWND desktopHandle = GetDesktopWindow(); // desktop's window handle // Allocate environment handle retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, SQL_NULL_HANDLE, &henv); // Set the ODBC version environment attribute if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLSetEnvAttr(henv, SQL_ATTR_ODBC_VERSION, (SQLPOINTER*)SQL_OV_ODBC3, 0); // Allocate connection handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, henv, &hdbc); // Set login timeout to 5 seconds if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLSetConnectAttr(hdbc, SQL_LOGIN_TIMEOUT, (SQLPOINTER)5, 0); retcode = SQLDriverConnect( // SQL_NULL_HDBC hdbc, desktopHandle, (SQLWCHAR *)ConnStrIn, SQL_NTS, OutConnStr, 255, &OutConnStrLen, SQL_DRIVER_NOPROMPT); // Allocate statement handle if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { retcode = SQLAllocHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hdbc, &hstmt); // Process data if (retcode == SQL_SUCCESS || retcode == SQL_SUCCESS_WITH_INFO) { SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_STMT, hstmt); } SQLDisconnect(hdbc); } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_DBC, hdbc); } } SQLFreeHandle(SQL_HANDLE_ENV, henv); } } //******************************************************************************** Thanks in advance, Harsha

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  • C# Getting a node with attributes from SelectSingleNode

    - by bdefreese
    Hi folks, I am quite the n00b but lately I have been playing with parsing some XML data. I actually found a nice feature on this site where I can get to a specific node with a specific attribute by doing: docFoo.SelectSingleNode("foo/bar/baz[@name='qux']); However, the data looks like this: <saving-throws> <saving-throw> <name>Fortitude</name> <abbr>Fort</abbr> <ability>Con</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="2"/> <modifier name="ability" value="5"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> <saving-throw> <name>Reflex</name> <abbr>Ref</abbr> <ability>Dex</ability> <modifiers> <modifier name="base" value="6"/> <modifier name="ability" value="1"/> <modifier name="magic" value="0"/> <modifier name="feat" value="0"/> <modifier name="race" value="0"/> <modifier name="familar" value="0"/> <modifier name="feature" value="0"/> <modifier name="user" value="0"/> <modifier name="misc" value="0"/> </modifiers> </saving-throw> And I want to be able to get the node with name=base but for each saving-throw node where childnode "abbr" = xx. Can I somehow do that in a single SelectSingleNode or am I going to have to stop at saving throw and walk through the rest of the tree? Thanks!

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  • Searching in XML using Xpath

    - by Sathish
    I have an XML file like below , using xpath and xnavigator how can get the Value of the supplied Tag Attribute for example if i supply RangeName i should get AssumptClient <Validations> <FieldInfo id="1"> <Name>OMID</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOMID</RangeName> <DataType>int</DataType> <MaxLength>10</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="2"> <Name>ClientName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptClient</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="3"> <Name>OppName</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptProjectName</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> <FieldInfo id="4"> <Name>OperatingGroup</Name> <Mandatory>Yes</Mandatory> <RangeName>AssumptOperatingGroup</RangeName> <DataType>string</DataType> <MaxLength>50</MaxLength> </FieldInfo> </Validations> for now i am using the below code XPathDocument doc; XPathNavigator nav; XPathExpression expr; XPathNodeIterator iterator; doc = new XPathDocument(strConfigFile); nav = doc.CreateNavigator(); expr = nav.Compile("/configuration/Validations/FieldInfo[RangeName='AssumptClient']"); iterator = nav.Select(expr); if (iterator.MoveNext()) { XPathNavigator nav2 = iterator.Current.Clone(); textBox1.Text = nav2.GetAttribute("RangeName", ""); }

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  • Multiple column subselect in mysql 5 (5.1.42)

    - by rubber boots
    This one seems to be a simple problem, but I can't make it work in a single select or nested select. Retrieve the authors and (if any) advisers of a paper (article) into one row. I order to explain the problem, here are the two data tables (pseudo) papers (id, title, c_year) persons (id, firstname, lastname) plus a link table w/one extra attribute (pseudo): paper_person_roles( paper_id person_id act_role ENUM ('AUTHOR', 'ADVISER') ) This is basically a list of written papers (table: papers) and a list of staff and/or students (table: persons) An article my have (1,N) authors. An article may have (0,N) advisers. A person can be in 'AUTHOR' or 'ADVISER' role (but not at the same time). The application eventually puts out table rows containing the following entries: TH: || Paper_ID | Author(s) | Title | Adviser(s) | TD: || 21334 |John Doe, Jeff Tucker|Why the moon looks yellow|Brown, Rayleigh| ... My first approach was like: select/extract a full list of articles into the application, eg.SELECT q.id, q.title FROM papers AS q ORDER BY q.c_year and save the results of the query into an array (in the application). After this step, loop over the array of the returned information and retrieve authors and advisers (if any), via prepared statement (? is the paper's id) from the link table like:APPLICATION_LOOP(paper_ids in array) SELECT p.lastname, p.firstname, r.act_role FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE p.id=r.person_id AND r.paper_id = ? # The application does further processing from here (pseudo): foreach record from resulting records if record.act_role eq 'AUTHOR' then join to author_column if record.act_role eq 'ADVISER' then join to avdiser_column end print id, author_column, title, adviser_column APPLICATION_LOOP This works so far and gives the desired output. Would it make sense to put the computation back into the DB? I'm not very proficient in nontrivial SQL and can't find a solution with a single (combined or nested) select call. I tried sth. like SELECT q.title (CONCAT_WS(' ', (SELECT p.firstname, p.lastname AS aunames FROM persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r WHERE q.id=r.paper_id AND r.act_role='AUTHOR') ) ) AS aulist FROM papers AS q, persons AS p, paper_person_roles AS r in several variations, but no luck ... Maybe there is some chance? Thanks in advance r.b.

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  • Why jQuery selector can't work but getElementById works in this scenario?

    - by Stallman
    Here is the HTML: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.7.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8" src="jquery-1.7.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="access.js"></script> </head> <body> <button id="trigger"></button> <img id= "testElement" style= "position: absolute; border-color: white; top:340px; left:615px;" width="34px" height= "34px" /> </body> </html> And the access.js file is: $(document).ready( function(){ $('#trigger').click(function(){ $('#testElement').src="success.png"; //THIS WON'T WORK. document.getElementById('testElement').src= "success.png"; //BUT THIS WORKS. }); }); I know that if I use $, the return object is a jQuery object. It's not the same as getElementById. But why the jQuery selector can't work here? I need the jQuery object to make more operations like "append/style"... Thanks. UPDATE Too much correct answers appear at almost the same time... Please give more explanations to let me decide who I should give the credit, thanks!!! Sorry for my poor understanding of your correct answer... I just want more detail. Are all the attribute nodes(src/width/height...) not the property of jQuery object? So does the jQuery selector only select DOM Element Node like ? Thank you! 3. List item

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  • Replacing text after node

    - by Andrew
    I am trying to remove the "Hide this data" from this XML which is proceeded with the qualifier type="noView" <element version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="View" /> Good to go </element> <element version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="noView" /> Hide this data </element> I am using this XSL <?xml version="1.0"?> <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:template match="node()|@*"> <xsl:copy> <xsl:apply-templates select="@*"/> <xsl:apply-templates/> </xsl:copy> </xsl:template> <xsl:template match="qualifier"> <xsl:call-template name="replace-noview" /> </xsl:template> <xsl:template name="replace-noview"> <xsl:param name="text" select="@type"/> <xsl:choose> <xsl:when test="contains($text, 'noView')"> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> <xsl:text>DELETED</xsl:text> </xsl:when> <xsl:otherwise> <xsl:copy-of select="."/> </xsl:otherwise> </xsl:choose> </xsl:template> The output I'm getting is <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="View" /> Good to go </element> <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="noView" />DELETED Hide this data </element> I am matching the "noView" attribute and can add the "DELETED" text. However I need to remove the follow "Hide this data" text. The output I would like is <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="View" /> Good to go </element> <element identifier="ContactName" version="Local"> <qualifier name="Public" type="noView" /> DELETED </element>

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  • How to infer the type of a derived class in base class?

    - by enzi
    I want to create a method that allows me to change arbitrary properties of classes that derive from my base class, the result should look like this: SetPropertyValue("size.height", 50); – where size is a property of my derived class and height is a property of size. I'm almost done with my implementation but there's one final obstacle that I want to solve before moving on, to describe this I will first have to explain my implementation a bit: Properties that can be modified are decorated with an attribute There's a method in my base class that searches for all derived classes and their decorated properties For each property I generate a "property modifier", a class that contains 2 delegates: one to set and one to get the value of the property. Property Modifiers are stored in a dictionary, with the name of the property as key In my base class, there is another dictionary that contains all property-modifier-dictionaries, with the Type of the respective class as key. What the SetPropertyValue method does is this: Get the correct property-modifier-dictionary, using the concrete type of the derived class (<- yet to solve) Get the property modifier of the property to change (e.g. of the property size) Use the get or set delegate to modify the property's value Some example code to clarify further: private static Dictionary<RuntimeTypeHandle, object> EditableTypes; //property-modifier-dictionary protected void SetPropertyValue<T>(EditablePropertyMap<T> map, string property, object value) { var property = map[property]; // get the property modifier property.Set((T)this, value); // use the set delegate (encapsulated in a method) } In the above code, T is the Type of the actual (derived) class. I need this type for the get/set delegates. The problem is how to get the EditablePropertyMap<T> when I don't know what T is. My current (ugly) solution is to pass the map in an overriden virtual method in the derived class: public override void SetPropertyValue(string property, object value) { base.SetPropertyValue((EditablePropertyMap<ExampleType>)EditableTypes[typeof(ExampleType)], property, value); } What this does is: get the correct dictionary containing the property modifiers of this class using the class's type, cast it to the appropiate type and pass it to the SetPropertyValue method. I want to get rid of the SetPropertyValue method in my derived class (since there are a lot of derived classes), but don't know yet how to accomplish that. I cannot just make a virtual GetEditablePropertyMap<T> method because I cannot infer a concrete type for T then. I also cannot acces my dictionary directly with a type and retrieve an EditablePropertyMap<T> from it because I cannot cast to it from object in the base class, since again I do not know T. I found some neat tricks to infere types (e.g. by adding a dummy T parameter), but cannot apply them to my specific problem. I'd highly appreciate any suggestions you may have for me.

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  • NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

    - by Alex
    Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

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  • CLR: Multi Param Aggregate, Argument not in Final Output?

    - by OMG Ponies
    Why is my delimiter not appearing in the final output? It's initialized to be a comma, but I only get ~5 white spaces between each attribute using: SELECT [article_id] , dbo.GROUP_CONCAT(0, t.tag_name, ',') AS col FROM [AdventureWorks].[dbo].[ARTICLE_TAG_XREF] atx JOIN [AdventureWorks].[dbo].[TAGS] t ON t.tag_id = atx.tag_id GROUP BY article_id The bit for DISTINCT works fine, but it operates within the Accumulate scope... Output: article_id | col ------------------------------------------------- 1 | a a b c I only have rudimentary C# API knowledge... C# Code: using System; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; using System.Data.SqlTypes; using Microsoft.SqlServer.Server; using System.Xml.Serialization; using System.Xml; using System.IO; using System.Collections; using System.Text; [Serializable] [SqlUserDefinedAggregate(Format.UserDefined, MaxByteSize = 8000)] public struct GROUP_CONCAT : IBinarySerialize { ArrayList list; string delimiter; public void Init() { list = new ArrayList(); delimiter = ","; } public void Accumulate(SqlBoolean isDistinct, SqlString Value, SqlString separator) { delimiter = (separator.IsNull) ? "," : separator.Value ; if (!Value.IsNull) { if (isDistinct) { if (!list.Contains(Value.Value)) { list.Add(Value.Value); } } else { list.Add(Value.Value); } } } public void Merge(GROUP_CONCAT Group) { list.AddRange(Group.list); } public SqlString Terminate() { string[] strings = new string[list.Count]; for (int i = 0; i < list.Count; i++) { strings[i] = list[i].ToString(); } return new SqlString(string.Join(delimiter, strings)); } #region IBinarySerialize Members public void Read(BinaryReader r) { int itemCount = r.ReadInt32(); list = new ArrayList(itemCount); for (int i = 0; i < itemCount; i++) { this.list.Add(r.ReadString()); } } public void Write(BinaryWriter w) { w.Write(list.Count); foreach (string s in list) { w.Write(s); } } #endregion }

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  • Validate dependent model validation and show error message.

    - by piemesons
    Just taking a simple example. We have a question on stackoverflow and while posting a question we want to validate title_of_question, description_of_question that they should be present. Now we have a another model tag having habtm relationshio with question model. How to validate that while saving the question. Means question must have some tags. here the code:-- Models:-- class Question < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_and_belongs_to_many :tags has_many :comments, :as => :commentable has_many :answers, :dependent => :destroy validates_presence_of :title, :content, :user_id end class Tag < ActiveRecord::Base has_and_belongs_to_many :questions validates_presence_of :tag end Form for entering question and tag <div class="form"> <% form_for :question ,@question, :url => {:action => "create" } do |f| %> <fieldset> <%= f.error_messages %> <legend>Post a question</legend> <div> <%= f.label :title %>: <%= f.text_field :title, :size => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= f.label :content ,'Question' %>: <%= f.text_area :content, :rows => 10, :cols => 100 %> </div> <div> <%= label_tag 'tags' %>: <%= text_field_tag 'tag' ,'',:size=> 60 %> add multiple tag using comma </div> <div> <%= submit_tag "Post question" %> </div> </fieldset> <% end %> </div> From Controller.. (Right now question will be saved without validating tag) def create @question = Question.new(params[:question]) @question.user_id=session[:user_id] if @question.save flash[:notice] = "Question has been posted." redirect_to question_index_path else render :action => "new" end end questions_tags table has been created. One approach is creating a virtual column using attribute accessors. another approach is validate associated. right now assuming new tags can be created.(but not duplicate).

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  • How can I run an android frame animation without it skewing?

    - by GameDev123
    I have a small state machine that runs a series of frame by frame animations in an ImageView, in a nested hierarchy of layouts. There is more than adequate space to display each frame of the animation. Each frame of the animation is cropped to fit the minimum amount of area, in order to save memory. If a frame only contains 50x50 worth of pixels then the png is 50x50. There is no transparent padding to keep them the same size. The ImageView is directly within a RelativeLayout, and is anchored to the bottom left with some padding. The general idea being that the character in the animation performs some action, which results in individual frames of the animation growing or shrinking. The issue is that individual frames of animation are skewed, and there does not appear to be any way of preventing this. If I set the source of the imageview directly to one of the frames of animation, it displays fine in the layout manager. I have tried this with Adjust View Bounds set to true, false, and undefined. I have tried using the background and the src attribute of imageview to set the animation drawable, I have tried every configuration of layout manager and setting minimum/maximum size that I can think of, and it still stretches the character on various frames depending on the size of the source png. In essence, all I want to do is say "I want this ImageView to anchor in the bottom left and then display any frame that happens to be in it without stretching or skewing it in any way aside from that which occurred when the frame png's were loaded." Seems simple, but I have yet to come across any way of doing it. Here is the layout of the imageview as of my last test, I had to remove bits of the XML to get it to display but nothing pertinent: RelativeLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_above="@+id/MenuOptions" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:id="@+id/AnimationLayout" android:clipChildren="false" android:minHeight="180dp" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/GameBarLayout" ImageView android:id="@+id/animatedImg" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:visibility="visible" android:baselineAlignBottom="true" android:minHeight="180dp" android:minWidth="200dp" android:adjustViewBounds="true" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" android:paddingLeft="30dp" android:paddingBottom="10dp" android:src="@drawable/idle01"/ImageView /RelativeLayout Here is how an animation is set up: animationDrawable = new AnimationDrawable(); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle01), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle02), 16); animationDrawable.addFrame(res.getDrawable(R.drawable.idle03), 16);

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  • jQuery slider onChange auto submit form

    - by bikey77
    I'm using a jQuery slider as a price range selector in a form. I'd like to have the form submit automatically when one of the values has been changed. I used a couple of examples I found on SO but they didn't work with my code. <form action="itemlist.php" method="post" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded" name="priceform" id="priceform" target="_self"> <div id="slider-holder"> Prices: From <span id="pricefromlabel">100 &#8364;</span> To <span id="pricetolabel">500 &#8364;</span> <input type="hidden" id="pricefrom" name="pricefrom" value="100" /> <input type="hidden" id="priceto" name="priceto" value="500" /> <div id="slider-range"></div> <input name="Search" type="submit" value="Search" /> </div> </form> This is the code that displays the values of the slider and updates 2 hidden form fields I use to store the prices in order to submit: <script> $(function() { $("#slider-range" ).slider({ range: true, min: 0, max: 1000, values: [ <?=$minprice?>, <?=$maxprice?> ], start: function (event, ui) { event.stopPropagation(); }, slide: function( event, ui ) { $( "#pricefrom" ).val(ui.values[0]); $( "#priceto" ).val(ui.values[1]); $( "#pricefromlabel" ).html(ui.values[0] + ' &euro;'); $( "#pricetolabel" ).html(ui.values[1] + ' &euro;'); } }); return false; }); </script> I've tried adding this code as well as an data-autosubmit="true" attribute to the div but no result. $(function() { $('[data-autosubmit="true"]').change(function() { parentForm = $(this).('#priceform'); clearTimeout(submitTimeout); submitTimeout = setTimeout(function() { parentForm.submit() }, 100); }); I've also tried adding a $.post() event to the slider but I'm not very good with jQuery so I'm probably doing it wrong. Any help will be appreciated.

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  • Firefox can not layout nested tables properly?

    - by ooplidi
    I want to implement a collapsible menu. I plan to use table component to simulate a menu, and nest a sub table into a table cell to simulate a sub menu. Below is my code, it works as expected in IE, Chrome and Safari, but it doesn't work well in Firefox: <html> <body> <div id="menu" style="position:absolute; left:150px; top:100px; z-index:1"> <table width="200px" height="90" border=1 cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td colspan=2>Money</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan=2>Tool</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Food <table style="position:absolute; left:200px; top:60px; z-index:1" width="200px" height="60px" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td>Cookie</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Fruit <table style="position:absolute; left:200px; top:30px; z-index:1" width="200px" height="60px" border="1" cellpadding="0" cellspacing="0"> <tr> <td>Apple</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Banana</td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> </table> </td> </tr> </table> </div> </body> </html> It seems that Firefox think the "left" and "top" attribute for the level 3 menu is relative to the level 1 menu, so it layout the level 3 menu incorrectly. Other browsers will calculate the offset base on the level 2 menu, that works as expected. Is it a bug in Firefox? If so how can I work around it? I want my code to have the same behavior in all major browsers.

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  • get attributes from xml tree using linq

    - by nelsonwebs
    I'm working with an xml file that looks like this: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <element1 xmlns="http://namespace1/"> <element2> <element3> <element4 attr1="2009-11-09"> <element5 attr2="NAME1"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="1" attr5="5.5" attr6="3.4"/> </element6> </element5> <element5 attr2="NAME2"> <element6 attr3="1"> <element7 attr4="3" attr5="4" attr6="4.5"/> </element6> </element5> </element4> </element3> </element2> </element1> Where I need to loop through element5 and retrieve the attributes in an Ienumberable like this: attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 using linq to xml and c#. I can loop through the element5 and get all the attribute2 info using but I can't figure out how to get the parent or child attributes I need. UPDATE: Thanks for the feeback thus far. For clarity, I need to do a loop through attribute5. So basically, what I have right now (which isn't much) is . . . XElement xel = XElement.Load(xml); IEnumberable<XElement> cList = from el in xel.Elements(env + "element2").Element (n2 + "element3").Elements(n2 + "element4").Elements(ns + "element5") select el; foreach (XElement e in cList) Console.WriteLine(e.Attribute("attr2").Value.ToString()); This will give me the value all the attr 2 in the loop but I could be going about this all wrong for what I'm trying to acheive. I also need to collect the other attributes mentioned above in a collection (the Console reference is just me playing with this right now but the end result I need is a collection). So the end results would be a collection like attr1, attr2, attr3, attr4, attr5, attr6 2009-11-09, name1, 1, 1, 5.5, 3.4 2009-11-09, name2, 1, 3, 4, 4.5 Make Sense?

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  • HTML Language question

    - by Mike
    Note my code below. I am trying to figure out why my data is not changing to Spanish. I understand it to be one line of code and that is all within the HTML attribute lang=”es”. Any help would be greatly appreciated. <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xlmns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" lang=”es” xml:lang="en"> <head> <title>JavaJam Coffee House</title> <link href="javajam.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> </head> <body bgcolor="brown"> <h1>JavaJam Coffee House</h1> <ul> <li>Specialty Coffee and Tea</li> <li>Bagels, Muffins, and Organic Snacks</li> <li>Music and Poetry Readings</li> <li>Usability Studies</li> <li>Open Mic Night</li> </ul> <br></br> <p>12312 Main Street<br> Mountain Home, CA 93923<br> 1-888-555-5555</br> </p> <p> <em> <small>Copyright &copy; 2008 JavaJam Coffee House</em></p> E-Mail <a href="mailto;[email protected]"> Michael J. Crawley</a> </body> </html>

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  • styling the data loaded from another page

    - by zurna
    Tabs plugin I use loads the data from another page. Data loaded is in xml format so I need to style that data loaded. How can I do it? ny suggestion highly appreciated. Data loaded needs to be used in the following: <img src="[ImageURL]" alt="" class="MultimediaImageURL" style="float:left; margin:0 10px 0 0;" /> <div class="MultimediaInfo" style="float:left; width:200px;"> <span class="MultimediaCategory" style="float:left; color:#CCC; font-size:10px; width:100%;">[CategoryName]</span> <span class="MultimediaTitle" style="float:left; color:#D90306; font-weight:bold; width:100%;">[Title]</span> tabs plugin $("div.row-title").tabs("div.panes", {effect: 'ajax'}, function(i) { // get the pane to be opened var pane = this.getPanes().eq(i); // load it with a page specified in the tab's href attribute pane.html('<img src="http://www.refinethetaste.com/FLPM/cp/images/loading.gif" alt="Loading..." />') .load(this.getTabs().eq(i).attr("href")); }); xml <rows> - <row id="1"> <MultimediaTitle>Hagi Goals</MultimediaTitle> <ImageURL>/FLPM/media/images/5Y2K4T5V_sm.jpg</ImageURL> - <Videos> - <VideoID id="1"> <VideoURL>/FLPM/media/videos/0H7T9C0F.flv</VideoURL> </VideoID> - <VideoID id="2"> <VideoURL>/FLPM/media/videos/9L6X9G9J.flv</VideoURL> </VideoID> </Videos> </row> </rows>

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  • Make a table start on the same line as header

    - by ripper234
    I am trying to get a table of icons appear on the same line as the header. In the HTML below, the icons appear on a separate line. I tried using 'top' attribute to move the table, but this is not a good solution because then there's an ugly space between the icons table and the rest of the document. How can I fix this? <html> <head> <style type="text/css"> #action-icons { float:right; position:relative; border:0; } </style> </head> <body> <h1 class="edit">Bla bla</h1> <table id="action-icons"> <tbody> <tr> <td><img width="64" height="64"/></td> <td><img width="60" height="60"/></td> </tr> <tr> <td><img width="36" height="36"/></td> <td><img width="36" height="36"/></td> </tr> </tbody> </table> <table width="100%" class="tasksgrid"> <tbody> <tr> <th class='taskcell'>One</th> <th class='taskcell'>Two</th> </tr> </tbody> </table> </body> </html>

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  • Why is my Type.GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance|BindingFlags.Public) not working?

    - by granadaCoder
    My code can see the non-public members, but not the public ones. Why? FieldInfo[] publicFieldInfos = t.GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public); is returning nothing. Note: I'm trying to get at the properties on the abstract class as well as the concrete class. (And read the attributes as well). The MSDN example works with the 2 flags (BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public) but my mini inheritance example below does not. private void RunTest1() { try { textBox1.Text = string.Empty; Type t = typeof(MyInheritedClass); //Look at the BindingFlags *** NonPublic *** int fieldCount = 0; while (null != t) { fieldCount += t.GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic).Length; FieldInfo[] nonPublicFieldInfos = t.GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.NonPublic); foreach (FieldInfo field in nonPublicFieldInfos) { if (null != field) { Console.WriteLine(field.Name); } } t = t.BaseType; } Console.WriteLine("\n\r------------------\n\r"); //Look at the BindingFlags *** Public *** t = typeof(MyInheritedClass); FieldInfo[] publicFieldInfos = t.GetFields(BindingFlags.Instance | BindingFlags.Public); foreach (FieldInfo field in publicFieldInfos) { if (null != field) { Console.WriteLine(field.Name); object[] attributes = field.GetCustomAttributes(t, true); if (attributes != null && attributes.Length > 0) { foreach (Attribute att in attributes) { Console.WriteLine(att.GetType().Name); } } } } } catch (Exception ex) { ReportException(ex); } } private void ReportException(Exception ex) { Exception innerException = ex; while (innerException != null) { Console.WriteLine(innerException.Message + System.Environment.NewLine + innerException.StackTrace + System.Environment.NewLine + System.Environment.NewLine); innerException = innerException.InnerException; } } public abstract class MySuperType { public MySuperType(string st) { this.STString = st; } public string STString { get; set; } public abstract string MyAbstractString { get; set; } } public class MyInheritedClass : MySuperType { public MyInheritedClass(string ic) : base(ic) { this.ICString = ic; } [Description("This is an important property"), Category("HowImportant")] public string ICString { get; set; } private string _oldSchoolPropertyString = string.Empty; public string OldSchoolPropertyString { get { return _oldSchoolPropertyString; } set { _oldSchoolPropertyString = value; } } [Description("This is a not so importarnt property"), Category("HowImportant")] public override string MyAbstractString { get; set; } }

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  • Calling compiled C from R with .C()

    - by Sarah
    I'm trying to call a program (function getNBDensities in the C executable measurementDensities_out) from R. The function is passed several arrays and the variable double runsum. Right now, the getNBDensities function basically does nothing: it prints to screen the values of passed parameters. My problem is the syntax of calling the function: array(.C("getNBDensities", hr = as.double(hosp.rate), # a vector (s x 1) sp = as.double(samplingProbabilities), # another vector (s x 1) odh = as.double(odh), # another vector (s x 1) simCases = as.integer(x[c("xC1","xC2","xC3")]), # another vector (s x 1) obsCases = as.integer(y[c("yC1","yC2","yC3")]), # another vector (s x 1) runsum = as.double(runsum), # double DUP = TRUE, NAOK = TRUE, PACKAGE = "measurementDensities_out")$f, dim = length(y[c("yC1","yC2","yC3")]), dimnames = c("yC1","yC2","yC3")) The error I get, after proper execution of the function (i.e., the right output is printed to screen), is Error in dim(data) <- dim : attempt to set an attribute on NULL I'm unclear what the dimensions are that I should be passing the function: should it be s x 5 + 1 (five vectors of length s and one double)? I've tried all sorts of combinations (including sx5+1) and have found only seemingly conflicting descriptions/examples online of what's supposed to happen here. For those who are interested, the C code is below: #include <R.h> #include <Rmath.h> #include <math.h> #include <Rdefines.h> #include <R_ext/PrtUtil.h> #define NUM_STRAINS 3 #define DEBUG void getNBDensities( double *hr, double *sp, double *odh, int *simCases, int *obsCases, double *runsum ); void getNBDensities( double *hr, double *sp, double *odh, int *simCases, int *obsCases, double *runsum ) { #ifdef DEBUG for ( int s = 0; s < NUM_STRAINS; s++ ) { Rprintf("\nFor strain %d",s); Rprintf("\n\tHospitalization rate = %lg", hr[s]); Rprintf("\n\tSimulation probability = %lg",sp[s]); Rprintf("\n\tSimulated cases = %d",simCases[s]); Rprintf("\n\tObserved cases = %d",obsCases[s]); Rprintf("\n\tOverdispersion parameter = %lg",odh[s]); } Rprintf("\nRunning sum = %lg",runsum[0]); #endif } naive solution While better (i.e., potentially faster or syntactically clearer) solutions may exist (see Dirk's answer below), the following simplification of the code works: out<-.C("getNBDensities", hr = as.double(hosp.rate), sp = as.double(samplingProbabilities), odh = as.double(odh), simCases = as.integer(x[c("xC1","xC2","xC3")]), obsCases = as.integer(y[c("yC1","yC2","yC3")]), runsum = as.double(runsum)) The variables can be accessed in >out.

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  • Rails controller not rendering correct view when form is force-submitted by Javascript

    - by whazzmaster
    I'm using Rails with jQuery, and I'm working on a page for a simple site that prints each record to a table. The only editable field for each record is a checkbox. My goal is that every time a checkbox is changed, an ajax request updates that boolean attribute for the record (i.e., no submit button). My view code: <td> <% form_remote_tag :url => admin_update_path, :html => { :id => "form#{lead.id}" } do %> <%= hidden_field :lead, :id, :value => lead.id %> <%= check_box :lead, :contacted, :id => "checkbox"+lead.id.to_s, :checked => lead.contacted, :onchange => "$('#form#{lead.id}').submit();" %> <% end %> </td> In my routes.rb, admin_update_path is defined by map.admin_update 'update', :controller => "admin", :action => "update", :method => :post I also have an RJS template to render back an update. The contents of this file is currently just for testing (I just wanted to see if it worked, this will not be the ultimate functionality on a successful save)... page << "$('#checkbox#{@lead.id}').hide();" When clicked, the ajax request is successfully sent, with the correct params, and the action on the controller can retrieve the record and update it just fine. The problem is that it doesn't send back the JS; it changes the page in the browser and renders the generated Javascript as plain text rather than executing it in-place. Rails does some behind-the-scenes stuff to figure out if the incoming request is an ajax call, and I can't figure out why it's interpreting the incoming request as a regular web request as opposed to an ajax request. I may be missing something extremely simple here, but I've kind-of burned myself out looking so I thought I'd ask for another pair of eyes. Thanks in advance for any info!

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  • Correct use of a "for...in" loop in javascript?

    - by jnkrois
    Hello everybody, before I ask my question I wanted to let everybody know that I appreciate the fact that there's always somebody out there willing to help, and on my end I'll try to give back to the community as much as I can. Thanks Now, I would like to get some pointers as to how to properly take advantage of the "for...in" loop in JavaScript, I already did some research and tried a couple things but it is still not clear to me how to properly use it. Let's say I have a random number of "select" tags in an HTML form, and I don't require the user to select an option for all of them, they can leave some untouched if they want. However I need to know if they selected none or at least one. The way I'm trying to find out if the user selected any of them is by using the "for...in" loop. For example: var allSelected = $("select option:selected"); var totalSelected = $("select option:selected").length; The first variable produces an array of all the selected options. The second variable tells me how many selected options I have in the form (select tags could be more than one and it changes every time). Now, in order to see if any has been selected I loop through each element (selected option), and retrieve the "value" attribute. The default "option" tag has a value="0", so if any selected option returns a value greater than 0, I know at least one option has been selected, however it does not have to be in order, this is my loop so far: for(var i = 0; i < totalSelected; i++){ var eachOption = $(allSelected[i]).val(); var defaultValue = 0; if(eachOption == defaultValue){ ...redirect to another page }else if(eachOption > defaultValue){ ... I display an alert } } My problem here is that as soon as the "if" matches a 0 value, it sends the user to the next page without testing the rest of the elements in the array, and the user could have selected the second or third options. What I really want to do is check all the elements in the array and then take the next action, in my mind this is how I could do it, but I'm not getting it right: var randomValue = 25; for(randomValue in allSelected){ var found = true; var notFound = false if(found){ display an alert }else{ redirect to next page } } This loop or the logic I'm using are flawed (I'm pretty sure), what I want to do is test all the elements in the array against a single variable and take the next action accordingly. I hope this makes some sense to you guys, any help would be appreciated. Thanks, JC

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