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• Detect if any USB drive is detected or not using WinForm Application in Visual C#

  - by Pavan Kumar

  I want to do the following things in my application 1) I want to display whether any USB drive is inserted or not in my application to prompt the user to insert a USB drive. I just want to notify the user if any USB dirve is inserted else prompt him to insert one using a label or something (i want to avoid messagebox as it will keep appearing whenever a device is inserted or removed. It will be irritating for the end user) in my Visual C# WinForm Application. If any USB drive is present display "USB drive detected" in the label. The user may add one or more USB sticks but the status will remain same. When there is none then the status of the label will change to "No USB drives found.Please insert a USB drive". 2) When one or more USB drive is added the volume name with the drive letter for example "James(F:)" is added to the Combobox list. The combobox list also needs to remove the entry for the USB drive added in the list automatically when it is removed . So when there is no USB the list should be empty and the label will again prompt user to insert a USB stick or drive.

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• Map enum in JPA with fixed values ?

  - by Kartoch

  I'm looking for the different ways to map an enum using JPA. I especially want to set the integer value of each enum entry and to save only the integer value. @Entity @Table(name = "AUTHORITY_") public class Authority implements Serializable { public enum Right { READ(100), WRITE(200), EDITOR (300); private int value; Right(int value) { this.value = value; } public int getValue() { return value; } }; @Id @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.AUTO) @Column(name = "AUTHORITY_ID") private Long id; // the enum to map : private Right right; } A simple solution is to use the Enumerated annotation with EnumType.ORDINAL: @Column(name = "RIGHT") @Enumerated(EnumType.ORDINAL) private Right right; But in this case JPA maps the enum index (0,1,2) and not the value I want (100,200,300). Th two solutions I found do not seem simple... First Solution A solution, proposed here, uses @PrePersist and @PostLoad to convert the enum to an other field and mark the enum field as transient: @Basic private int intValueForAnEnum; @PrePersist void populateDBFields() { intValueForAnEnum = right.getValue(); } @PostLoad void populateTransientFields() { right = Right.valueOf(intValueForAnEnum); } Second Solution The second solution proposed here proposed a generic conversion object, but still seems heavy and hibernate-oriented (@Type doesn't seem to exist in JEE): @Type( type = "org.appfuse.tutorial.commons.hibernate.GenericEnumUserType", parameters = { @Parameter( name = "enumClass", value = "Authority$Right"), @Parameter( name = "identifierMethod", value = "toInt"), @Parameter( name = "valueOfMethod", value = "fromInt") } ) Is there any other solutions ? I've several ideas in mind but I don't know if they exist in JPA: use the setter and getter methods of right member of Authority Class when loading and saving the Authority object an equivalent idea would be to tell JPA what are the methods of Right enum to convert enum to int and int to enum Because I'm using Spring, is there any way to tell JPA to use a specific converter (RightEditor) ?

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• Can't write the SysWow64 value to registry with vbscript for Screensaver

  - by Valentein

  Scripts, registries, screen-savers, oh my! I'm trying to use a screen-saver on a Windows XP 64 bit machine which uses a .NET app which makes an interop call which relies on some x86 Shockwave Dlls (some Shockwave animation). Everything should be in the %systemroot%\WINNT\SysWOW64 directory. When the timeout for the screensaver occurs, the process should looks like this: Screensaver.scr - .NET app - shockwave animation. During installation I want a vbscript to my screen-saver file to copy the Screensaver.scr to the SysWow64 directory and then set the proper registry key to this file for Windows to launch the screen-saver. The code is something like this: Dim sScreenSaver, tScreenSaver sScreenSaver = "C:\SourceFiles\bin\ScreenSaver.scr" 'screensaver tScreenSaver = "C:\winnt\SysWOW64\" Set WshShell = WScript.CreateObject("WScript.Shell") 'script shell to run objects Set FSO = createobject("scripting.filesystemobject") 'file system object 'copy screensaver FSO.CopyFile sScreenSaver, tScreenSaver, True 'set screen saver Dim p1 p1 = "HKEY_CURRENT_USER\Control Panel\Desktop\" WshShell.RegWrite p1 & "SCRNSAVE.EXE", (tScreenSaver & "ScreenSaver.scr") After installation, I can verify the the Screensaver exists in the correct directory. (It actually seems to be in both the system32 and the sysWOW64 directories---whether that's the install script or something I did post-install I'm in the process of verifying.) However, the registry entry is not correct. In both the 32 and 64 bit regedit I see the HKCU\ControlPanel\Desktop\SCRNSAVE.EX is set to: C:\WINNT\system32\Screensaver.scr This isn't right. The screen-saver won't run from this directory. It only runs from SysWOW64. If I manually edit the registry with regedit to the correct SysWOW64 path everything works fine. Is this a problem with using the script or is this a Windows registry redirection, or filesystem redirection problem? You'd think this would be simple...

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• Magento install errors

  - by nXqd

  I try to install new magento version 1.4.xx . But after the config menu I meet after I copy and change local.example.xml to local.xml . Error in file: "E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Catalog\sql\catalog_setup\mysql4-install-1.4.0.0.0.php" - SQLSTATE[23000]: Integrity constraint violation: 1062 Duplicate entry '4-page_layout' for key 'entity_type_id' Trace: #0 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(374): Mage::exception('Mage_Core', 'Error in file: ...') #1 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(260): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->_modifyResourceDb('install', '', '1.4.0.0.21') #2 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(224): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->_installResourceDb('1.4.0.0.21') #3 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\Resource\Setup.php(153): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup->applyUpdates() #4 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\App.php(363): Mage_Core_Model_Resource_Setup::applyAllUpdates() #5 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\code\core\Mage\Core\Model\App.php(295): Mage_Core_Model_App->_initModules() #6 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\app\Mage.php(596): Mage_Core_Model_App->run(Array) #7 E:\Soft\Programming\xampp\htdocs\magento\index.php(78): Mage::run('', 'store') #8 {main} I really need your help , thanks so much :)

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• Post a form from asp to asp.Net

  - by Atomiton

  I have a classic asp application. I want to post a contest form from that page to an Asp.Net form. The reason is that I want to use a lot of logic i have built into an Asp.Net page for validation before entering into the database and I don't know asp very well. Not to mention asp.Net being more secure. What's the best way to accomplish this goal? My thoughts are as follows: My asp Page: <html> <body> <form action="/Contests/entry.aspx" method="post"> Name: <input type="text" name="fname" size="20" /> Last Name: <input type="text" name="lname" size="20" /> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> </form> </body> </html> aspx page is running in a Virtual Directory and would handle anything posted to it. Is this possible, or does aspx prevent this kind of thing? I ( preferably ) don't want to create the form in aspx as my colleague wants to have control of the page and build the html himself and I don't want the hassle of constantly changing it. Are there caveats I need to consider? What roadblocks will I run into? How do I access the Posted Form Values? Request.Form?

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• iPhone app: How to implement in-app purchased game levels

  - by Wonderflonium

  So, I understand that it's possible to set up in-app purchases for iPhone apps to purchase non-consumables like game levels. I understand the logic behind the purchase part, but what I don't understand is, how can I deliver the new game level. For example: I build an app that contains the first level and they purchase additional levels. Is it better to build all the other levels into the app and whenever they purchase the app, it unlocks it with a plist entry or something? That doesn't seem very update-able to me. Every time I come up with a new level, I'd have to update the app. So, what I don't understand then, is what is how do I package up a level and download it as a separate entity that can accessed by the game? Would the level just be some XML with images in a ZIP folder or something? How does the level get added to the game? What are best practices for this type of thing? I Googled and have found NOTHING about this. I'm a little bit confused by the concept and any help would be appreciated. I'm not looking for someone to write the game for me, I just need pointed in the right direction so I can develop it on my own.

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• How to unencode escaped XML with xQuery

  - by mbrevoort

  I have a variable in xQuery of type xs:string with the value of an encoded HTML snippet (the content of a twitter tweet). It looks like this: Headlines-Today &#8226; AP sources: &lt;b&gt;Obama&lt;/b&gt; pick for Justice post withdraws : News - Rest Of World - &lt;a href=&quot;http://shar.es/mqMAG&quot;&gt;http://shar.es/mqMAG&lt;/a&gt; When I try to write this out in an HTML block, I need the string to be unescaped so that the HTML snippet will be interpreted by the browser. Instead the string is getting written out as is and the browser is rendering it as just text (so you see <a href="blah.... ). Here's how I'm writing out this string: {$entry/atom:content/text()} How can I have the escaped characters unencoded so it writes < rather tha &lt; ? I've tried to do a replacelike this but it always replaces the &lt; with &lt; ! fn:replace($s, "&lt;", "<")

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• how to return multiple array items using json/jquery

  - by Scarface

  Hey guys, quick question, I have a query that will usually return multiple results from a database, while I know how to return one result, I am not sure how to return multiple in jquery. I just want to take each of the returned results and run them through my prepare function. I have been trying to use 'for' to handle the array of data but I don't think it can work since I am returning different array values. If anyone has any suggestions, I would really appreciate it. JQUERY RETRIEVAL for(i=0; i < json.rows; i++) { $('#users_online').append(online_users(json[i])); $('#online_list-' + count2).fadeIn(1500); } PHP PROCESSING $qryuserscount1="SELECT active_users.username,COUNT(scrusersonline.id) AS rows FROM scrusersonline LEFT JOIN active_users ON scrusersonline.id=active_users.id WHERE topic_id='$topic_id'"; $userscount1=mysql_query($qryuserscount1); while ($row = mysql_fetch_array($userscount1)) { $onlineuser= $row['username']; $rows=$row['rows']; if ($username==$onlineuser){ $str2= "<a href=\"statistics.php?user=$onlineuser\"><div class=\"me\">$onlineuser</div></a>"; } else { $str2= "<b><a href=\"statistics.php?user=$onlineuser\"><div class=\"others\">$onlineuser</div></a></b>"; } $data['rows']=$rows; $data['entry']=$str1.$str2; }

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• Subdomain on different host

  - by mattsmith321

  Hi everyone! I'm trying to host a subdomain for my site with a different hosting company and I'm running into issues on how to set it up. Here are the specifics: - Domain is registered with GoDaddy. - Nameservers are pointing to DiscountASP.net where ASP.NET app has been happily running for couple of years. - Would like blog.mydomain.com to point to my account with DreamHost.com to take advantage of their LAMP stack. I have added blog.mydomain.com to DreamHost (after adding mydomain.com) via their control panel. I thought I would be able to add a subdomain entry on GoDaddy to point to DreamHost, but all they allow is blog.mydomain.com = new url. In theory I could just take our .biz or .net domain and host it on DreamHost but was hoping I could do it all with a subdomain. So, to summarize I'd like to know if what I want to do is feasible and if so, how do I go about it (given the constraints of GoDaddy, DiscountASP, & DreamHost). Thanks, Matt

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• Sysdeo Tomcat DevLoader - Hot deploy of java class causes whole application to restart

  - by Gala101

  Hi, I am using sysdeo tomcat plugin 3.2.1 with eclipse 3.5.1 (Galileo) and tomcat 5.5.23 on windows XP. I can get tomcat plugin working in eclipse, and have extracted devloader.zip into [tomcat]\server\classes. I have also updated the context and now it has this entry: <Context path="/myapp1" reloadable="true" docBase="F:\Work\eclipse_workspace\myapp1" workDir="F:\Work\eclipse_workspace\myapp1\work" > <Logger className="org.apache.catalina.logger.SystemOutLogger" verbosity="4" timestamp="true"/> <Loader className="org.apache.catalina.loader.DevLoader" reloadable="true" debug="1" useSystemClassLoaderAsParent="false" /> </Context> I have activated devloader (in Project Properties Tomcat Devloader Classpath) and have 'checked' all my classes and jars, I haven't 'checked' commons-loggin.jar jsp-api.jar, servlet-api.jar. So on launching tomcat via the plugin, I can get it running with devloader as shown in eclipse console view [DevLoader] Starting DevLoader [DevLoader] projectdir=F:\Work\eclipse_workspace\myapp1 [DevLoader] added file:/F:/Work/eclipse_workspace/myapp1/WEB-INF/classes/ [DevLoader] added file:/F:/Work/eclipse_workspace/myapp1/WEB-INF/lib/activation.jar However, if I even add a single System.out.println into any java file and save it, the whole application gets reloaded (takes ~80 sec) which is as good as stopping/starting tomcat itself. I've tried adding -Xdebug in JAVA_OPTS in the catalina.bat but no luck :( Can you please guide where I may be doing it wrong.. Please note that I can 'redeploy' the whole application on tomcat but that's not what I need, I am looking to be able to make small changes in java classes 'on-the-fly' while coding/debugging without having to wait for complete app restart. Another annoyance is that restarting tomcat/application causes the session/debug progress to be lost.. Can you please guide me how to go about it. PS: I am not using any ant/maven scripts explicitly, just relying on eclipse to do the build for me (which it does).

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• ejb lookup failing with NamingException

  - by Drake

  I've added the following in my web.xml: <ejb-ref> <ejb-ref-name>ejb/userManagerBean</ejb-ref-name> <ejb-ref-type>Session</ejb-ref-type> <home>gha.ywk.name.entry.ejb.usermanager.UserManagerHome</home> <remote>what should go here??</remote> </ejb-ref> The following java code is giving me NamingException: public UserManager getUserManager () throws HUDException { String ROLE_JNDI_NAME = "ejb/userManagerBean"; try { Properties props = System.getProperties(); Context ctx = new InitialContext(props); UserManagerHome userHome = (UserManagerHome) ctx.lookup(ROLE_JNDI_NAME); UserManager userManager = userHome.create(); WASSSecurity user = userManager.getUserProfile("user101", null); return userManager; } catch (NamingException e) { log.error("Error Occured while getting EJB UserManager" + e); return null; } catch (RemoteException ex) { log.error("Error Occured while getting EJB UserManager" + ex); return null; } catch (CreateException ex) { log.error("Error Occured while getting EJB UserManager" + ex); return null; } } The code is used inside the container. By that I mean that the .WAR is deployed on the server (Sun Application Server). StackTrace (after jsight's suggestion): >Exception occurred in target VM: com.sun.enterprise.naming.java.javaURLContext.<init>(Ljava/util/Hashtable;Lcom/sun/enterprise/naming/NamingManagerImpl;)V java.lang.NoSuchMethodError: com.sun.enterprise.naming.java.javaURLContext.<init>(Ljava/util/Hashtable;Lcom/sun/enterprise/naming/NamingManagerImpl;)V at com.sun.enterprise.naming.java.javaURLContextFactory.getObjectInstance(javaURLContextFactory.java:32) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getURLObject(NamingManager.java:584) at javax.naming.spi.NamingManager.getURLContext(NamingManager.java:533) at javax.naming.InitialContext.getURLOrDefaultInitCtx(InitialContext.java:279) at javax.naming.InitialContext.lookup(InitialContext.java:351) at gov.hud.pih.eiv.web.EjbClient.EjbClient.getUserManager(EjbClient.java:34)

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• Call dll - pcshll32.dll using delphi

  - by Davis

  Hi, I need to call hllapi function of pcshll32.dll using delphi. It's works with personal communications of ibm. How can i change the code bellow to delphi ? Thanks !!! The EHLLAPI entry point (hllapi) is always called with the following four parameters: EHLLAPI Function Number (input) Data Buffer (input/output) Buffer Length (input/output) Presentation Space Position (input); Return Code (output) The prototype for IBM Standard EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPWORD, LPSTR, LPWORD, LPWORD); The prototype for IBM Enhanced EHLLAPI is: [long hllapi (LPINT, LPSTR, LPINT, LPINT); Each parameter is passed by reference not by value. Thus each parameter to the function call must be a pointer to the value, not the value itself. For example, the following is a correct example of calling the EHLLAPI Query Session Status function: #include "hapi_c.h" struct HLDQuerySessionStatus QueryData; int Func, Len, Rc; long Rc; memset(QueryData, 0, sizeof(QueryData)); // Init buffer QueryData.qsst_shortname = ©A©; // Session to query Func = HA_QUERY_SESSION_STATUS; // Function number Len = sizeof(QueryData); // Len of buffer Rc = 0; // Unused on input hllapi(&Func, (char *)&QueryData, &Len, &Rc); // Call EHLLAPI if (Rc != 0) { // Check return code // ...Error handling } All the parameters in the hllapi call are pointers and the return code of the EHLLAPI function is returned in the value of the 4th parameter, not as the value of the function.

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• Thumbnail Provider not working

  - by Dan

  I'm trying to write a Windows Explorer thumbnail handler for our custom file type. I've got this working fine for the preview pane, but am having trouble getting it to work for the thumbnails. Windows doesn't even seem to be trying to call the DllGetClassObject entry point. Before I continue, note that I'm using Windows 7 and unmanaged C++. I've registered the following values in the registry: HKCR\CLSID\<my guid> HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32 (default value being path to my DLL) HKCR\CLSID\<my guid>\InprocServer32\ThreadingModel (value = "Apartment") HKCR\.<my ext>\shellex\{E357FCCD-A995-4576-B01F-234630154E96} (value = my guid) I've also tried using the Win SDK sample, and that doesn't work. And also the sample project in this article (http://www.codemonkeycodes.com/2010/01/11/ithumbnailprovider-re-visited/), and that doesn't work. I'm new to shell programming, so not really sure the best way of debugging this. I've tried attaching the debugger to explorer.exe, but that doesn't seem to work (breakpoints get disabled, and none of my OutputDebugStrings get displayed in the output window). Note that I tried setting the "DesktopProcess" in the registry as described in the WinSDK docs for debugging the shell, but I'm still only seeing one explorer.exe in the task manager - so that "may" be why I can't debug it?? Any help with this would be greatly appreciated! Regards, Dan.

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• Write magic bytes to the stack to monitor its usage

  - by tkarls

  I have a problem on an embedded device that I think might be related to a stack overflow. In order to test this I was planning to fill the stack with magic bytes and then periodically check if the stack has overflowed by examining how much of my magic bytes that are left intact. But I can't get the routine for marking the stack to work. The application keeps crashing instantly. This is what I have done just at the entry point of the program. //fill most of stack with magic bytes int stackvar = 0; int stackAddr = int(&stackvar); int stackAddrEnd = stackAddr - 25000; BYTE* stackEnd = (BYTE*) stackAddrEnd; for(int i = 0; i < 25000; ++i) { *(stackEnd + i) = 0xFA; } Please note that the allocated stack is larger than 25k. So I'm counting on some stack space to already be used at this point. Also note that the stack grows from higher to lower addresses that's why I'm trying to fill from the bottom and up. But as I said, this will crash. I must be missing something here.

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• Trying to use a authlogic-connect as a plugin in place of gem - Server doesn't start

  - by Arkid

  I am trying to use Authlogic-connect as a plugin in Rails 3 in place of a gem. I have made an entry in the gemfile as gem "authlogic-connect", :require => "authlogic-connect", :path => "localgems" Now when I run the bundle install, it runs fine. When I try to start the server i get the error Could not find gem 'authlogic-connect (>= 0, runtime)' in source at localgems. Source does not contain any versions of 'authlogic-connect (>= 0, runtime)' Try running `bundle install`. I have placed the unzipped Gem renamed as authlogic-connect in the localgems folder. what is the problem? Here is what I get on using rails plugin install arkidmitra$ rails plugin install git://github.com/viatropos/authlogic-connect.git Usage: rails new APP_PATH [options] Options: [--skip-gemfile] # Don't create a Gemfile -d, [--database=DATABASE] # Preconfigure for selected database (options: mysql/oracle/postgresql/sqlite3/frontbase/ibm_db) # Default: sqlite3 -O, [--skip-active-record] # Skip Active Record files [--dev] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to your Rails checkout -J, [--skip-prototype] # Skip Prototype files -T, [--skip-test-unit] # Skip Test::Unit files -G, [--skip-git] # Skip Git ignores and keeps -r, [--ruby=PATH] # Path to the Ruby binary of your choice # Default: /System/Library/Frameworks/Ruby.framework/Versions/1.8/usr/bin/ruby -m, [--template=TEMPLATE] # Path to an application template (can be a filesystem path or URL) -b, [--builder=BUILDER] # Path to an application builder (can be a filesystem path or URL) [--edge] # Setup the application with Gemfile pointing to Rails repository Runtime options: -q, [--quiet] # Supress status output -s, [--skip] # Skip files that already exist -f, [--force] # Overwrite files that already exist -p, [--pretend] # Run but do not make any changes Rails options: -h, [--help] # Show this help message and quit -v, [--version] # Show Rails version number and quit Description: The 'rails new' command creates a new Rails application with a default directory structure and configuration at the path you specify. Example: rails new ~/Code/Ruby/weblog This generates a skeletal Rails installation in ~/Code/Ruby/weblog. See the README in the newly created application to get going.

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• Disable Flex CSS type selector warning?

  - by davr

  I'm building a somewhat large Flex project that includes several modules (a single Flex project that produces multiple SWFs) Right now, I have a single css file, being loaded in the main SWF tag: <s:Application ... > <fx:Style source="css/main.css" /> ... </s:Application> In the CSS file: /* CSS file */ @namespace s "library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark"; s|Panel { skinClass: ClassReference("com.skins.DefaultPanelSkin"); } s|Button { skinClass: ClassReference("com.skins.DefaultButtonSkin"); } The CSS file is not referenced anywhere else. I have currently 6 modules (plus the main SWF, a total of 7 SWFs). I've noticed that the number of warnings is correlated to the number of modules...every time I add a module, I get more warnings. Right now, I get 6 warnings for every entry in the CSS file, so: CSS type selectors are not supported in components: 'Panel' CSS type selectors are not supported in components: 'Panel' CSS type selectors are not supported in components: 'Panel' CSS type selectors are not supported in components: 'Panel' CSS type selectors are not supported in components: 'Panel' CSS type selectors are not supported in components: 'Panel' And repeat for Button, TextArea, etc etc. I have so many useless warnings, it is impossible to see if there are any valid ones. Is this warning caused by something I'm doing wrong? The styles are all being applied correctly and appears to work just the way I want at runtime. If I'm doing nothing wrong, can I tell the compiler to ignore this warning? NOTE: I've tried the -show-unused-type-selector-warnings=false compiler flag, and it does not work...that's for a similar but different warning.

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• Anyone got a nifty credit expiry algorithm?

  - by garethkeenan

  Our website uses a credit system to allow users to purchase inexpensive digital goods (eg. photos). We use credits, rather than asking the user to pay for items individually, because the items are cheap and we are trying to keep our credit-card/PayPal overhead low. Because we aren't a bank, we have to expire credits after a certain amount of time. We expire deposit credits after a year, but other types of credits (bonuses, prizes, refunds) may have a different shelf-life. When a buyer buys an item, we spend the credit that is going to expire first. Our current system keeps track of every deposit by storing the original value and the remainder to be spent. We keep a list of all purchases as well, of course. I am currently moving to a system which is much more like a traditional double-entry accounting system. A deposit will create a ledger item, increasing the user's 'spending' account balance. Every purchase will also create a ledger item, decreasing the user's 'spending' account balance. The new system has running balances, while the old system does not, which greatly improves our ability to find problems and do reconciliations. We do not want to use the old system of keeping a 'remainder' value attached to each deposit record because it is inefficient to replay a user's activities to calculate what the remainder of each deposit is over time (for the user's statement). So, after all of this verbose introduction, my question is "Does anyone else out there have a similar system of expiring credits?" If you could describe how you calculate expired credits it would be a great help. If all expired credits had the exact same shelf life, we would be able to calculate the expired amount using: Total Deposits - Total Spending - Deposits Not Due To Expire = Amount to Expire However, because deposits can have different shelf lives, this formula does not work because more than one deposit can be partially spent at any given time.

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• NAnt not running NUnit tests

  - by ctford

  I'm using NUnit 2.5 and NAnt 0.85 to compile a .NET 3.5 library. Because NAnt 0.85 doesn't support .NET 3.5 out of the box, I've added an entry for the 3.5 framework to NAnt.exe.config. 'MyLibrary' builds, but when I hit the "test" target to execute the NUnit tests, none of them seem to run. [nunit2] Tests run: 0, Failures: 0, Not run: 0, Time: 0.012 seconds Here are the entries in my NAnt.build file for the building and running the tests: <target name="build_tests" depends="build_core"> <mkdir dir="Target" /> <csc target="library" output="Target\Test.dll" debug="true"> <references> <include name="Target\MyLibrary.dll"/> <include name="Libraries\nunit.framework.dll"/> </references> <sources> <include name="Test\**\*.cs" /> </sources> </csc> </target> <target name="test" depends="build_tests"> <nunit2> <formatter type="Plain" /> <test assemblyname="Target\Test.dll" /> </nunit2> </target> Is there some versioning issue I need to be aware of? Test.dll runs fine in the NUnit GUI. The testing dll is definitely being found, because if I move it I get the following error: Failure executing test(s). If you assembly is not build using NUnit 2.2.8.0... Could not load file or assembly 'Test' or one of its dependencies... I would be grateful if anyone could point me in the right direction or describe a similary situation they have encountered. Edit I have since tried it with NAnt 0.86 beta 1, and the same problem occurs.

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• Asp.Net MVC 2: How exactly does a view model bind back to the model upon post back?

  - by Dr. Zim

  Sorry for the length, but a picture is worth 1000 words: In ASP.NET MVC 2, the input form field "name" attribute must contain exactly the syntax below that you would use to reference the object in C# in order to bind it back to the object upon post back. That said, if you have an object like the following where it contains multiple Orders having multiple OrderLines, the names would look and work well like this (case sensitive): This works: Order[0].id Order[0].orderDate Order[0].Customer.name Order[0].Customer.Address Order[0].OrderLine[0].itemID // first order line Order[0].OrderLine[0].description Order[0].OrderLine[0].qty Order[0].OrderLine[0].price Order[0].OrderLine[1].itemID // second order line, same names Order[0].OrderLine[1].description Order[0].OrderLine[1].qty Order[0].OrderLine[1].price However we want to add order lines and remove order lines at the client browser. Apparently, the indexes must start at zero and contain every consecutive index number to N. The black belt ninja Phil Haack's blog entry here explains how to remove the [0] index, have duplicate names, and let MVC auto-enumerate duplicate names with the [0] notation. However, I have failed to get this to bind back using a nested object: This fails: Order.id // Duplicate names should enumerate at 0 .. N Order.orderDate Order.Customer.name Order.Customer.Address Order.OrderLine.itemID // And likewise for nested properties? Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price Order.OrderLine.itemID Order.OrderLine.description Order.OrderLine.qty Order.OrderLine.price I haven't found any advice out there yet that describes how this works for binding back nested ViewModels on post. Any links to existing code examples or strict examples on the exact names necessary to do nested binding with ILists? Steve Sanderson has code that does this sort of thing here, but we cannot seem to get this to bind back to nested objects. Anything not having the [0]..[n] AND being consecutive in numbering simply drops off of the return object. Any ideas?

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• how to fix: ctags null expansion of name pattern "\1"

  - by bua

  Hi, As the title points I have problem with ctags when trying to parse user-defined language. Basically I've followed those instructions. The quickest and easiest way to do this is by defining a new language using the program options. In order to have Swine support available every time I start ctags, I will place the following lines into the file $HOME/.ctags, which is read in every time ctags starts: --langdef=swine --langmap=swine:.swn --regex-swine=/^def[ \t]*([a-zA-Z0-9_]+)/\1/d,definition/ The first line defines the new language, the second maps a file extension to it, and the third defines a regular expression to identify a language definition and generate a tag file entry for it. I've tried different flags: b,e for regex. My definition of tag is: --regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/\l/f,function/b When I replace \1 with anything else (ascii caracter set ), It works. the output is: (--regex-q=/^[ \t]*[^[:space:]]*[:space:]*:[:space:]*{/my function name/f,function/b) !_TAG_FILE_FORMAT 2 /extended format; --format=1 will not append ;" to lines/ !_TAG_FILE_SORTED 1 /0=unsorted, 1=sorted, 2=foldcase/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_AUTHOR Darren Hiebert /[email protected]/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_NAME Exuberant Ctags // !_TAG_PROGRAM_URL http://ctags.sourceforge.net /official site/ !_TAG_PROGRAM_VERSION 5.8 // my function name file.q /^.ras.getLocation:{[u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.getResource:{[u; pass]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.init:{$/;" f my function name file.q /^.a.kill:{[u; force]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.asdf.status:{[what; u]$/;" f my function name file.q /^.pc:{$/;" f Why \1 doesn't work? (I've tried all 1-9)

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• Creating a new workbook in Excel from Python breaks

  - by Marcelo Cantos

  I am trying to use the stock standard win32com approach to drive Excel 2007 from Python. However, when I try to create a new workbook, things go pear-shaped: Python 2.6.4 (r264:75706, Nov 3 2009, 13:23:17) [MSC v.1500 32 bit (Intel)] on win32 ... >>> import win32com.client >>> excel = win32com.client.Dispatch("Excel.Application") >>> wb = excel.Workbooks.Add() Traceback (most recent call last): File "<pyshell#3>", line 1, in <module> wb = excel.Workbooks.Add() File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\dynamic.py", line 467, in __getattr__ if self._olerepr_.mapFuncs.has_key(attr): return self._make_method_(attr) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\dynamic.py", line 295, in _make_method_ methodCodeList = self._olerepr_.MakeFuncMethod(self._olerepr_.mapFuncs[name], methodName,0) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\build.py", line 297, in MakeFuncMethod return self.MakeDispatchFuncMethod(entry, name, bMakeClass) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\build.py", line 318, in MakeDispatchFuncMethod s = linePrefix + 'def ' + name + '(self' + BuildCallList(fdesc, names, defNamedOptArg, defNamedNotOptArg, defUnnamedArg, defOutArg) + '):' File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\build.py", line 604, in BuildCallList argName = MakePublicAttributeName(argName) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\build.py", line 542, in MakePublicAttributeName return filter( lambda char: char in valid_identifier_chars, className) File "C:\Python26\lib\site-packages\win32com\client\build.py", line 542, in <lambda> return filter( lambda char: char in valid_identifier_chars, className) UnicodeDecodeError: 'ascii' codec can't decode byte 0x83 in position 52: ordinal not in range(128) >>> What is going wrong here? Have I done something silly, or is Python/win32com/Excel somehow broken?

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• From VB6 to .net via COM and Remoting...What a mess!

  - by Robert

  I have some legacy vb6 applications that need to talk to my .Net engine application. The engine provides an interface that can be connected to via .net Remoting. Now I have a stub class library that wraps all of the types that the interface exposes. The purpose of this stub is to translate my .net types into COM-friendly types. When I run this class library as a console application, it is able to connect to the engine, call various methods, and successfully return the wrapped types. The next step in the chain is to allow my VB6 application to call this COM enabled stub. This works fine for my main engine-entry type (IModelFetcher which is wrapped as COM_ModelFetcher). However, when I try and get any of the model fetcher's model types (IClientModel, wrapped as COM_IClientModel, IUserModel, wrapped as COM_IUserModel, e.t.c.), I get the following exception: [Exception - type: System.InvalidCastException 'Return argument has an invalid type.'] in mscorlib at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.ValidateReturnArg(Object arg, Type paramType) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PropagateOutParameters(IMessage msg, Object[] outArgs, Object returnValue) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.HandleReturnMessage(IMessage reqMsg, IMessage retMsg) at System.Runtime.Remoting.Proxies.RealProxy.PrivateInvoke(MessageData& msgData, Int32 type) at AWT.Common.AWTEngineInterface.IModelFetcher.get_ClientModel() at AWT.Common.AWTEngineCOMInterface.COM_ModelFetcher.GetClientModel() The first thing I did when I saw this was to handle the 'AppDomain.CurrentDomain.AssemblyResolve' event, and this allowed me to load the required assemblies. However, I'm still getting this exception now. My AssemblyResolve event handler is loading three assemblies correctly, and I can confirm that it does not get called prior to this exception. Can someone help me untie myself from this mess of interprocess communication?!

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• Problem with stack based implementation of function 0x42 of int 0x13

  - by IceCoder

  I'm trying a new approach to int 0x13 (just to learn more about the way the system works): using stack to create a DAP.. Assuming that DL contains the disk number, AX contains the address of the bootable entry in PT, DS is updated to the right segment and the stack is correctly set, this is the code: push DWORD 0x00000000 add ax, 0x0008 mov si, ax push DWORD [ds:(si)] push DWORD 0x00007c00 push WORD 0x0001 push WORD 0x0010 push ss pop ds mov si, sp mov sp, bp mov ah, 0x42 int 0x13 As you can see: I push the dap structure onto the stack, update DS:SI in order to point to it, DL is already set, then set AX to 0x42 and call int 0x13 the result is error 0x01 in AH and obviously CF set. No sectors are transferred. I checked the stack trace endlessly and it is ok, the partition table is ok too.. I cannot figure out what I'm missing... This is the stack trace portion of the disk address packet: 0x000079ea: 10 00 adc %al,(%bx,%si) 0x000079ec: 01 00 add %ax,(%bx,%si) 0x000079ee: 00 7c 00 add %bh,0x0(%si) 0x000079f1: 00 00 add %al,(%bx,%si) 0x000079f3: 08 00 or %al,(%bx,%si) 0x000079f5: 00 00 add %al,(%bx,%si) 0x000079f7: 00 00 add %al,(%bx,%si) 0x000079f9: 00 a0 07 be add %ah,-0x41f9(%bx,%si) I'm using qemu latest version and trying to read from hard drive (0x80), have also tried with a 4bytes alignment for the structure with the same result (CF 1 AH 0x01), the extensions are present.

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• Why does calling abort() on ajax request cause error in ASP.Net MVC (IE8)

  - by user169867

  I use jquery to post to an MVC controller action that returns a table of information. The user of the page triggers this by clicking on various links. In the event the user decides to click a bunch of these links in quick succession I wanted to cancel any previous ajax request that may not have finished. I've found that when I do this (although its fine from the client's POV) I will get errors on the web application saying that "The parameters dictionary contains a null entry for parameter srtCol of non-nullable type 'System.Int32'" Now the ajax post deffinately passes in all the parameters, and if I don't try and cancel the ajax request it works just fine. But if I do cancel the request by calling abort() on the XMLHttpRequest object that ajax() returns before it finishes I get the error from ASP.Net MVC. Example: //Cancel any pevious request if (req) { req.abort(); req = null; } //Make new request req= $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "/Myapp/GetTbl", data: {srtCol: srt, view: viewID}, success: OnSuccess, error: OnError, dataType: "html" }); I've noticed this only happen is IE8. In FF it seems to not cuase a problem. Does anyone know how to cancel an ajax request in IE8 without causing errors for MVC? Thanks for any help.

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• jquery newbie: combine validate with hidding submit button.

  - by Jeffb

  I'm new a jQuery. I have gotten validate to work with my form (MVC 1.0 / C#) with this: <script type="text/javascript"> if (document.forms.length > 0) { document.forms[0].id = "PageForm"; document.forms[0].name = "PageForm"; } $(document).ready(function() { $("#PageForm").validate({ rules: { SigP: { required: true } }, messages: { SigP: "<font color='red'><b>A Sig Value is required. </b></font>" } }); }); </script> I also want to hide the Submit button to prevent twitchy mouse syndrome from causing duplicate entry before the controller completes and redirects (I'm using an GPR pattern). The following works for this purpose: <script type="text/javascript"> // // prevent double-click on submit // jQuery('input[type=submit]').click(function() { if (jQuery.data(this, 'clicked')) { return false; } else { jQuery.data(this, 'clicked', true); return true; } }); </script> However, I can't get the two to work together. Specifically, if validate fails after the Submit button is clicked (which happens given how the form works), then I can't get the form submitted again unless I do a browser refresh that resets the 'clicked' property. How can I rewrite the second method above to not set the clicked property unless the form validates? Thx.

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