Search Results

Search found 6255 results on 251 pages for 'wcf behaviour'.

Page 223/251 | < Previous Page | 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230  | Next Page >

  • MSSQL in ASP.NET application getting unstable after a certain period

    - by Barslett
    Hello, I have an ASP.NET 2.0 application that I made to keep track of disruption reports about our public transport system. The architecture is pretty straight-forward; an MSSQL Express 2008 database, ADO.NET and a DataSet/DAL with a few methods to access the database. There is a set of .aspx pages for the UI in use by our dispatchers and on our public website, as well as a set of SOAP and REST webservices and an RSS feed. Everything worked just fine for more than a year, until two weeks ago. Now and then, it seems as the database enters an unstable mode, and the application starts responding something right, something wrong. The typical error is that apparently, an empty DataTable is returned to the public disruption overview or to the RSS generator. Thus, the user gets e.g. an empty GridView, but no exception is thrown AFAIK, and nothing is written to the Windows Application log. After a restart of the MSSQL Express service, the situation is back to normal. It has to be said that the situation first time appeared a few days after I made a new minor upgrade of the application. The RSS generator was slightly rewritten, and I added a WCF REST service. But the DAL and the database schema were untouched... Any hints of how we could keep the database stable? It is a bit annoying not to have a clue ;-)

    Read the article

  • NullPointerException with static variables

    - by tomekK
    I just hit very strange (to me) behaviour of java. I have following classes: public abstract class Unit { public static final Unit KM = KMUnit.INSTANCE; public static final Unit METERS = MeterUnit.INSTANCE; protected Unit() { } public abstract double getValueInUnit(double value, Unit unit); protected abstract double getValueInMeters(double value); } And: public class KMUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new KMUnit(); private KMUnit() { } //here are abstract methods overriden } public class MeterUnit extends Unit { public static final Unit INSTANCE = new MeterUnit(); private MeterUnit() { } ///abstract methods overriden } And my test case: public class TestMetricUnits extends TestCase { @Test public void testConversion() { System.out.println("Unit.METERS: " + Unit.METERS); System.out.println("Unit.KM: " + Unit.KM); double meters = Unit.KM.getValueInUnit(102.11, Unit.METERS); assertEquals(0.10211, meters, 0.00001); } } 1) MKUnit and MeterUnit are both singletons initialized statically, so during class loading. Constructors are private, so they can't be initialized anywhere else. 2) Unit class contains static final references to MKUnit.INSTANCE and MeterUnit.INSTANCE I would expect that: KMUnit class is loaded and instance is created. MeterUnit class is loaded and instance is created. Unit class is loaded and both KM and METERS variable are initialized, they are final so they cant be changed. But when I run my test case in console with maven my result is: T E S T S Running de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: null Tests run: 3, Failures: 0, Errors: 1, Skipped: 0, Time elapsed: 0.089 sec <<< FAILURE! - in de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits testConversion(de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits) Time elapsed: 0.011 sec <<< ERROR! java.lang.NullPointerException: null at de.audi.echargingstations.tests.TestMetricUnits.testConversion(TestMetricUnits.java:29) Results : Tests in error: TestMetricUnits.testConversion:29 NullPointer And the funny part is that, when I run this test from eclipse via JUnit runner everything is fine, I have no NullPointerException and in console I have: Unit.METERS: m Unit.KM: km So the question is: what can be the reason that KM variable in Unit is null (and in the same time METERS is not null)

    Read the article

  • Strange behavior with complex Q object filter queries in Django

    - by HWM-Rocker
    Hi I am trying to write a tagging system for Django, but today I encountered a strange behavior in filter or the Q object (django.db.models.Q). I wrote a function, that converts a search string into a Q object. The next step would be to filter the TaggedObject with these query. But unfortunately I get a strange behavior. when I search (id=20) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20)) and it returns 2 Taged Objects with the ID 1127 and 132 when I search (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 4)) and it returns also 2 Objects, but this time 1180 and 1127 until here is everything fine, but when i make a little bit more complex query like (id=4) or (id=20) = Q: (OR: ('tags__tag__id', 4), ('tags__tag__id', 20)) then it returns 4(!) Objects 1180, 1127, 1127, 132 But the object with the ID 1127 is returned twice, but thats not the behaviour I want. Do I have to live with it, and uniqify that list or can I do something different. The representation of the Q object looks fine for me. But the worst is now, when I search for (id=20) and (id=4) = Q: (AND: ('tags__tag__id', 20), ('tags__tag__id', 4)) then it returns no object at all. But why? The representation should be ok and the object with the id 1127 is tagged by both. What am I missing? Here are also the relevant parts of the classes, that are involved: class TaggedObject(models.Model): """ class that represent a tagged object """ tags = generic.GenericRelation('ObjectTagBridge', blank=True, null=True) class ObjectTagBridge(models.Model): """ Help to connect a generic object to a Tag. """ # pylint: disable-msg=W0232,R0903 content_type = models.ForeignKey(ContentType) object_id = models.PositiveIntegerField() content_object = generic.GenericForeignKey('content_type', 'object_id') tag = models.ForeignKey('Tag') class Tag(models.Model): ... Thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • Using ASP.NET session state with Silverlight (PRISM)

    - by Jon Andersen
    Hi, The scenario: I have a PRISM application developed in Silverlight (4), and I'm using a ASP.NET server side application to host several web-services (which, in turn, accesses WCF-services, but that's not really important here). The Silverlight application must be able to call the web services cross-domain (meaning that the web services isn't necessarily on the same server hosting the silverlight application). The Silverlight application consists of several modules, each accessing the ASP.NET web-services. I do not have much experience with Silverlight and PRISM, but as far as I can see, this is not a very unusual scenario... The problem: My challange is, that when 2 different modules access the web-services, I get 2 new sessions on the web-server. I would have thought that since both modules live on the same HTML-page (and then also in the same browser session), they would get the same session on the web-server...? I have tried to make the web-service Proxy-client globally available in the container (using Unity), by registering an instance (using Container.RegisterInstance), and then getting this instance whenever a module needs to make a web-service call (using Container.Resolve), but this doesn't seem to help. However, any calls made within the same module always gets the same session on the server. Can anyone see what I'm missing here...? Thanks! Jon

    Read the article

  • APplication performance issue : SqlServer & Oracle

    - by Mahesh
    Hi, We have a applicaiton in Silverlight,WCF, NHibernate. Currently it is supporting SQL Serve and Oracle database. As it's huge data, it is running ok on SQL Sevrer. But on Oracle it is running very slow. For one functionality it takes 5 Sec to execute on SQL Server and 30 Sec on Oracle. I am not able to figure out what will be issue. Two things that i want to share with you about our database. 1) Database: contains one base table contains column of type SQLServer: [Text] Oracle: [NCLOB] 2) Our database structure is too much normalized. May be in the oracle i have used NCLOB, that is the cause of the performance. I mean i don't know the details about it.... Can anyone please let me know what will be cause? Or Which actions do i need to follw to improve the performance as equal as SqlServer.? Thanks in advance. Mahesh.

    Read the article

  • Why compiling in Flash IDE I cannot access stage in a Sprite constructor before addChild while if I

    - by yuri
    I've created this simple class (omissing package directive and imports) public class Viewer extends Sprite { public function Viewer():void { trace(stage); } } then in Flash IDE I import in first frame this AS: import Viewer var viewer = new Viewer(); stage.addChild(viewer); trace(viewer.stage); and this works as I expected: the first trace called in constructor say stage is "null" because I haven't yet add viewer to a DisplayObjectContainer. The second one output the stage object. So I created a project using AXDT eclipse plugin, I've recreated and compiled only the first class (trashed the AS init script used in Flash IDE because is not needed) and on the first trace ... wow ... the stage is filled with the stage Object. I seems to me that the compiler used by AXDT (Flex4 SDK open source) add the class... before construct it (!?).. to a DisplayObjectContainer already attached to a Stage. I want to understand how can reproduce this behaviour using compiler in Flash IDE so I can directrly access Stage in construction.

    Read the article

  • Why does Microsoft advise against readonly fields with mutable values?

    - by Weeble
    In the Design Guidelines for Developing Class Libraries, Microsoft say: Do not assign instances of mutable types to read-only fields. The objects created using a mutable type can be modified after they are created. For example, arrays and most collections are mutable types while Int32, Uri, and String are immutable types. For fields that hold a mutable reference type, the read-only modifier prevents the field value from being overwritten but does not protect the mutable type from modification. This simply restates the behaviour of readonly without explaining why it's bad to use readonly. The implication appears to be that many people do not understand what "readonly" does and will wrongly expect readonly fields to be deeply immutable. In effect it advises using "readonly" as code documentation indicating deep immutability - despite the fact that the compiler has no way to enforce this - and disallows its use for its normal function: to ensure that the value of the field doesn't change after the object has been constructed. I feel uneasy with this recommendation to use "readonly" to indicate something other than its normal meaning understood by the compiler. I feel that it encourages people to misunderstand the meaning of "readonly", and furthermore to expect it to mean something that the author of the code might not intend. I feel that it precludes using it in places it could be useful - e.g. to show that some relationship between two mutable objects remains unchanged for the lifetime of one of those objects. The notion of assuming that readers do not understand the meaning of "readonly" also appears to be in contradiction to other advice from Microsoft, such as FxCop's "Do not initialize unnecessarily" rule, which assumes readers of your code to be experts in the language and should know that (for example) bool fields are automatically initialised to false, and stops you from providing the redundancy that shows "yes, this has been consciously set to false; I didn't just forget to initialize it". So, first and foremost, why do Microsoft advise against use of readonly for references to mutable types? I'd also be interested to know: Do you follow this Design Guideline in all your code? What do you expect when you see "readonly" in a piece of code you didn't write?

    Read the article

  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

    Read the article

  • What can cause my code to run slower when the server JIT is activated?

    - by durandai
    I am doing some optimizations on an MPEG decoder. To ensure my optimizations aren't breaking anything I have a test suite that benchmarks the entire codebase (both optimized and original) as well as verifying that they both produce identical results (basically just feeding a couple of different streams through the decoder and crc32 the outputs). When using the "-server" option with the Sun 1.6.0_18, the test suite runs about 12% slower on the optimized version after warmup (in comparison to the default "-client" setting), while the original codebase gains a good boost running about twice as fast as in client mode. While at first this seemed to be simply a warmup issue to me, I added a loop to repeat the entire test suite multiple times. Then execution times become constant for each pass starting at the 3rd iteration of the test, still the optimized version stays 12% slower than in the client mode. I am also pretty sure its not a garbage collection issue, since the code involves absolutely no object allocations after startup. The code consists mainly of some bit manipulation operations (stream decoding) and lots of basic floating math (generating PCM audio). The only JDK classes involved are ByteArrayInputStream (feeds the stream to the test and excluding disk IO from the tests) and CRC32 (to verify the result). I also observed the same behaviour with Sun JDK 1.7.0_b98 (only that ist 15% instead of 12% there). Oh, and the tests were all done on the same machine (single core) with no other applications running (WinXP). While there is some inevitable variation on the measured execution times (using System.nanoTime btw), the variation between different test runs with the same settings never exceeded 2%, usually less than 1% (after warmup), so I conclude the effect is real and not purely induced by the measuring mechanism/machine. Are there any known coding patterns that perform worse on the server JIT? Failing that, what options are available to "peek" under the hood and observe what the JIT is doing there?

    Read the article

  • Binding a Value from a View-Model to the View-Model of a child User Control in Silverlight?

    - by andrej351
    Hi there, So i have a UserControl for one of my Views and have another 'child' UserControl inside that. The outer 'parent' UserControl has a Collection on its View-Model and a Grid control on it to display a list of Items. I want to place another UserControl inside this UserControl to display a form representing the details of one Item. The outer / parent UserControl's View-Model already has a property on it to hold the currently selected Item and i would like to bind this to a DependancyProperty on the inner / child UserControl. I would then like to bind that DependancyProperty to a property on the child UserControl's View-Model. I can then set the DependancyProperty once in XAML with a binding expression and have the child UserControl do all its work in its View-Model like it should. The code i have looks like this.. Parent UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemsListView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel}"> <!-- Grid Control here... --> <ItemDetailsView Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemsListViewModel.SelectedItem}" /> </UserControl> Child UserControl: <UserControl x:Class="ItemDetailsView" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" DataContext="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel}" ItemDetailsView.Item="{Binding Source={StaticResource ServiceLocator}, Path=ItemDetailsViewModel.Item, Mode=TwoWay}"> <!-- Form controls here... --> </UserControl> The selected Item is bound to the DependancyProperty fine. However from the DependancyProperty to the child View-Model does not. I've used this sort of apporach in a WPF app without problems. It appears to be a situation where there are two concurrent bindings which need to work but with the same target for two sources. Why won't the second (in the child UserControl) binding work?? Is there a way to acheive the behaviour I'm after?? Cheers.

    Read the article

  • Text box loses focus when DIV is hovered

    - by Konoplianko
    Hello. I have a problem: When I enter a text into suggestion text box, popup panel appears. But when user places mouse over this popup panel with suggestions - text box loses focus. What should I do to prevent losing focus ? Example which have the same behaviour: http://demo.raibledesigns.com/gwt-autocomplete/ Thanks for any help. Update 1 SuggestionMenu which is being shown is extending MenuBar which sets focus for all menu items. void itemOver(MenuItem item, boolean focus) { if (item == null) { // Don't clear selection if the currently selected item's menu is showing. if ((selectedItem != null) && (shownChildMenu == selectedItem.getSubMenu())) { return; } } // Style the item selected when the mouse enters. selectItem(item); if (focus) { focus(); } // If child menus are being shown, or this menu is itself // a child menu, automatically show an item's child menu // when the mouse enters. if (item != null) { if ((shownChildMenu != null) || (parentMenu != null) || autoOpen) { doItemAction(item, false); } } } It's clear that i cant fix loosing focus. Now question is - how to make on pressing backspace or any key to focus on edit box? Thanks in advance

    Read the article

  • How to use keyword this in a mouse wrapper in right context in Javascript?

    - by MartyIX
    Hi, I'm trying to write a simple wrapper for mouse behaviour. This is my current code: function MouseWrapper() { this.mouseDown = 0; this.OnMouseDownEvent = null; this.OnMouseUpEvent = null; document.body.onmousedown = this.OnMouseDown; document.body.onmouseup = this.OnMouseUp; } MouseWrapper.prototype.Subscribe = function (eventName, fn) { // Subscribe a function to the event if (eventName == 'MouseDown') { this.OnMouseDownEvent = fn; } else if (eventName == 'MouseUp') { this.OnMouseUpEvent = fn; } else { alert('Subscribe: Unknown event.'); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown = function () { this.mouseDown = 1; // Fire event $.dump(this.OnMouseDownEvent); if (this.OnMouseDownEvent != null) { alert('test'); this.OnMouseDownEvent(); } } MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp = function () { this.mouseDown = 0; // Fire event if (this.OnMouseUpEvent != null) { this.OnMouseUpEvent(); } } From what I gathered it seems that in MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseUp and MouseWrapper.prototype.OnMouseDown the keyword "this" doesn't mean current instance of MouseWrapper but something else. And it makes sense that it doesn't point to my instance but how to solve the problem? I want to solve the problem properly I don't want to use something dirty. My thinking: * use a singleton pattern (mouse is only one after all) * pass somehow my instance to OnMouseDown/Up - how? Thank you for help!

    Read the article

  • Lucene wildcard queries

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have this question relating to Lucene. I have a form and I get a text from it and I want to perform a full text search in several fields. Suppose I get from the input the text "textToLook". I have a Lucene Analyzer with several filters. One of them is lowerCaseFilter, so when I create the index, words will be lowercased. Imagine I want to search into two fields field1 and field2 so the lucene query would be something like this (note that 'textToLook' now is 'texttolook'): field1: texttolook* field2:texttolook* In my class I have something like this to create the query. I works when there is no wildcard. String text = "textToLook"; String[] fields = {"field1", "field2"}; //analyser is the same as the one used for indexing Analyzer analyzer = fullTextEntityManager.getSearchFactory().getAnalyzer("customAnalyzer"); MultiFieldQueryParser parser = new MultiFieldQueryParser(fields, analyzer); org.apache.lucene.search.Query queryTextoLibre = parser.parse(text); With this code the query would be: field1: texttolook field2:texttolook but If I set text to "textToLook*" I get field1: textToLook* field2:textToLook* which won't find correctly as the indexes are in lowercase. I have read in lucene website this: " Wildcard, Prefix, and Fuzzy queries are not passed through the Analyzer, which is the component that performs operations such as stemming and lowercasing" My problem cannot be solved by setting the behaviour case insensitive cause my analyzer has other fields which for examples remove some suffixes of words. I think I can solve the problem by getting how the text would be after going through the filters of my analyzer, then I could add the "*" and then I could build the Query with MultiFieldQueryParser. So in this example I woud get "textToLower" and after being passed to to these filters I could get "texttolower". After this I could make "textotolower*". But, is there any way to get the value of my text variable after going through all my analyzer's filters? How can I get all the filters of my analyzer? Is this possible? Thanks

    Read the article

  • SQL - Multiple join conditions using OR?

    - by Brandi
    I have a query that is using multiple joins. The goal is to say "Out of table A, give me all the customer numbers in which you can match table A's EmailAddress with either email_to or email_from of table B. Ignore nulls, internal emails, etc.". It seems like it would be better to use an or condition in the join than multiple joins since it is the same table. When I try to use AND/OR it does not give the behaviour I expect... AND finishes in a reasonable time, but yields no results (I know that there are matches, so it must be some flaw in my logic) and OR never finishes (I have to kill it). Here is example code to illustrate the question: --my original query SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from RIGHT JOIN B f WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = f.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR f.email_to IS NOT NULL) Here is what I tried, (I am attempting logical equivalence): SELECT DISTINCT a.CustomerNo FROM A a WITH (NOLOCK) LEFT JOIN B e WITH (NOLOCK) ON a.EmailAddress = e.email_from OR a.EmailAddress = e.email_to WHERE a.EmailAddress NOT LIKE '%@mydomain.___' AND a.EmailAddress IS NOT NULL AND (e.email_from IS NOT NULL OR e.email_to IS NOT NULL) So my question is two-fold: Why does having AND in the above query work in a few seconds and OR goes for minutes and never completes? What am I missing to make a logically equivalent statement that has only one join?

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio crashes consistently on web-related projects

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, I have a brand new VS2010 installed on a Win2008R2 machine. I started getting this error when debugging a WCF service project: "Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt." When I started developing a web site a week later, this became consistent - I can't debug it. The stack dump reads: at Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Host.ProcessRequest(Connection conn) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.WebHost.Server.OnSocketAccept(Object acceptedSocket) at System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.WaitCallback_Context(Object state) at System.Threading.ExecutionContext.Run(ExecutionContext executionContext, ContextCallback callback, Object state, Boolean ignoreSyncCtx) at System.Threading.QueueUserWorkItemCallback.System.Threading.IThreadPoolWorkItem.ExecuteWorkItem() at System.Threading.ThreadPoolWorkQueue.Dispatch() at System.Threading._ThreadPoolWaitCallback.PerformWaitCallback() I tried searching online, and some recommend turning off the "Suppress JIT Optimizations" in the Debugging options - this dos not seem to make a difference. Clearly the problem is with the built in web server. But am I doing something wrong? Is there something I can do? Or is this a known bug? Thanks for your time, Guy Update 12/31: Today I tried using CassiniDev as a replacement to the original VS2010 WebServer - exact same result. My suspicion is that there's some internal conflict between VS2010, Windows Server 2008R2 and maybe the fact that it's a 64 bit OS. I switched to using IIS as my debug server - and that seems to work, with some annoying side effects. My conclusion: do not use a 64 bit server system as your dev machine. Develop on 32bit - deploy to 64bit. Side conclusion: there are some scenarios Microsoft's QA doesn't test.

    Read the article

  • Iterating Over <select> Using jQuery + Multi Select

    - by Kezzer
    This isn't quite as straight forward as one may think. I'm using a plugin called jQuery MultiSelect and multiple <select options using XSLT as follows: <xsl:for-each select="RootField"> <select id="{RootField}" multiple="multiple" size="3"> <option value=""></option> <xsl:for-each select="ChildField"> <option value="{ChildField}"><xsl:value-of select="ChildField"/></option> </xsl:for-each> </select> </xsl:for-each> The accompanying JavaScript is as follows: var selects = document.getElementsByTagName("select"); $.each(selects, function() { $(this).multiSelect(); }); This allows me to apply the multiSelect(); function to every single <select on the page. The behaviour is quite strange, every other <select is being changed into the dropdown list (all the even ones anyway). I can't see anything wrong in my JavaScript to cause this issue as it would iterate over every single one. To make it more clear, the only lists that have that JavaScript applied to it are ones in position 2, 4, 6 and 8 (out of the 9 which are on the page). Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Prevent default on a click within a JQuery tabs in Google Chrome.

    - by Sydney
    I would like to prevent the default behaviour of a click on a link. I tried the return false; also javascript:void(0); in the href attribute but it doesn’t seem to work. It works fine in Firefox, but not in Chrome and IE. I have a single tab that loads via AJAX the content which is a simple link. <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#tabs").tabs({ ajaxOptions: { error: function(xhr, status, index, anchor) { $(anchor.hash).html("Couldn't load this tab. We'll try to fix this as soon as possible. If this wouldn't be a demo."); }, success: function() { alert('hello'); $('#lk').click(function() { alert('Click Me'); return false; }); } }, load: function(event, ui) { $('a', ui.panel).click(function() { $(ui.panel).load(this.href); return false; }); } }); }); </script> <body> <div id="tabs"> <ul> <li><a href="linkChild.htm">Link</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> The content of linkChild.htm is <a href="javascript:void(0)" id="lk">Click Me</a> So basically when the tab content is loaded with success, a click event is attached to the link “lk”. When I click on the link, the alert is displayed but then link disappears. I check the HTML and the element is actually removed from the DOM.

    Read the article

  • Why is partial specialziation of a nested class template allowed, while complete isn't?

    - by drhirsch
    template<int x> struct A { template<int y> struct B {};. template<int y, int unused> struct C {}; }; template<int x> template<> struct A<x>::B<x> {}; // error: enclosing class templates are not explicitly specialized template<int x> template<int unused> struct A<x>::C<x, unused> {}; // ok So why is the explicit specialization of a inner, nested class (or function) not allowed, if the outer class isn't specialiced too? Strange enough, I can work around this behaviour if I only partially specialize the inner class with simply adding a dummy template parameter. Makes things uglier and more complex, but it works. Note: I need this feature for recursive templates of the inner class for a set of the outer class. To make things even more complicate, in reality I only need a template function instead of the inner class. But partial specialization of functions is generally disallowed somewhere else in the standard ^^

    Read the article

  • How should we setup up complex situations for tests?

    - by ShaneC
    I'm currently working on what I would call integration tests. I want to verify that if a WCF service is called it will do what I expect. Let's take a very simple scenario. Assume we have a contract object that we can put on hold or take off hold. Now writing the put on hold test is quite simple. You create a contract instance and execute the code that puts it on code. The question I have comes when we want to test the taking off hold service call. The problem is that putting a contract on hold can be actually quite complicated leading to various objects all be modified. So usually I would use the Builder pattern and do something like this.. var onHoldContract = new ContractBuilder().PutOnHold().Build(); The problem I have with this is now I have to pretty much replicate a large part of my put on hold service. Now when I change what putting something on hold means I have two places I have to modify. The other option that immediately jumps out at me is to just use the put on hold service as part of my test setup but now I'm coupling my test to the success of another piece of code which is something I don't like to do since it can lead to failures in one spot breaking unrelated tests elsewhere (if put on hold failed for example). Any other options I'm missing out here? or opinions on which method is preferable and why?

    Read the article

  • How can I get contentWindow for an Object element in IE7

    - by Scott Leis
    I have a HTML object element like this: <object title="Search results as XML" standby="Loading XML document..." type="text/xml" data="/__CA25761100195585.nsf/WebPrintListingXML?OpenAgent&date1=01/06/2009" width="100%" height="100%" border="0" name="resultIFrame" id="resultIFrame" Error: could not embed search results. </object I also have this javascript function (alert() calls added for debugging): function getFrameByName(fParent,fName) { var fArray=fParent.frames; if (!fName) return; if (fArray) { if (fArray.length) { for (var i=0; i<fArray.length; i++) { alert('loop '+i); if (fArray[i]) { if (fArray[i].name==fName) return fArray[i]; } } } } var tmp=document.getElementsByName(fName); if (tmp[0]) { alert('returning '+tmp[0]); if (!(tmp[0].contentWindow)) alert('contentWindow is null'); return tmp[0].contentWindow; } } And finally, this button is meant to print the content of the Object element: <input type="button" value="Print" name="printBtn" onclick="getFrameByName(window,'resultIFrame').print();" The button works perfectly in Firefox. Opera is good enough, though it prints the main document instead of just the object. IE7 gives the following error details: Line: 57 Char: 1 Error: 'undefined' is null or not an object Line 57 is where the button's "input" tag starts in the HTML source. Thanks to the alert('contentWindow is null') call in the JS function, I know that the object I'm getting in IE has no contentWindow property. I have tried changing the object tag to an iframe tag. This changes the JS behaviour, but causes other issues such as the height attribute being ignored and the content not displaying. Sticking with an object tag, how can I get this Object's window in IE7?

    Read the article

  • Scala and Java BigDecimal

    - by geejay
    I want to switch from Java to a scripting language for the Math based modules in my app. This is due to the readability, and functional limitations of mathy Java. For e.g, in Java I have this: BigDecimal x = new BigDecimal("1.1"); BigDecimal y = new BigDecimal("1.1"); BigDecimal z = x.multiply(y.exp(new BigDecimal("2")); As you can see, without BigDecimal operator overloading, simple formulas get complicated real quick. With doubles, this looks fine, but I need the precision. I was hoping in Scala I could do this: var x = 1.1; var y = 0.1; print(x + y); And by default I would get decimal-like behaviour, alas Scala doesn't use decimal calculation by default. Then I do this in Scala: var x = BigDecimal(1.1); var y = BigDecimal(0.1); println(x + y); And I still get an imprecise result. Is there something I am not doing right in Scala? Maybe I should use Groovy to maximise readability (it uses decimals by default)?

    Read the article

  • Make JFace Window blink in taskbar or get users attention?

    - by Sophomore
    Hi folks I wonder someone has any idea how to solve this: In my Java Eclipse plugin there are some processes which take some time. Therefore the user might minimize the window and let the process run in the background. Now, when the process is finished, I can force the window to come to the top again, but that is a no-no in usability. I'd rather want the process to blink in the taskbar instead. Is there any way to achieve this? I had a look at the org.eclipse.jface.window but could'nt find anything like that, same goes for the SWT documentation... Another thing which came to my mind - as people are using this app on mac os x and linux as well, is there a platform independant solution, which will inform the user that the process has finished but without bringing the window to the top? Any ideas are highly welcome! Edit: I found out that on windows the user can adjust whether he would like to enable a force to foreground or not. If that option is disabled, the task will just blink in the taskbar... Here's a good read on that... If anyone maybe knows about some platform independant way of achieving this kind of behaviour, please share your knowledge with me!

    Read the article

  • How to handle checkboxes in ASP.NET MVC forms?

    - by Will
    This seems a bit bizarre to me, but as far as I can tell, this is how you do it. I have a collection of objects, and I want users to select one or more of them. This says to me "form with checkboxes." My objects don't have any concept of "selected" (they're rudimentary POCO's formed by deserializing a wcf call). So, I do the following: public class SampleObject{ public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} } In the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%foreach (var o in ViewData.Model) {%> <%=Html.CheckBox(o.Id)%>&nbsp;<%= o.Name %> <%}%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%}%> And, in the controller, this is the only way I can see to figure out what objects the user checked: public ActionResult ThisLooksWeird(FormCollection result) { var winnars = from x in result.AllKeys where result[x] != "false" select x; // yadda } Its freaky in the first place, and secondly, for those items the user checked, the FormCollection lists its value as "true false" rather than just true. Obviously, I'm missing something. I think this is built with the idea in mind that the objects in the collection that are acted upon within the html form are updated using UpdateModel() or through a ModelBinder. But my objects aren't set up for this; does that mean that this is the only way? Is there another way to do it?

    Read the article

  • I'm trying to grasp the concept of creating a program that uses a SQL Server database, but I'm used

    - by Sergio Tapia
    How can I make a program use a SQL Server database, and have that program work on whatever computer it's installed on. If you've been following my string of questions today, you'd know that I'm making an open source and free Help Desk suite for small and medium businesses. The client application. The client application is a Windows Forms app. On installation and first launch on every client machine, it'll ask for the address of the main Help Desk server. The server. Here I plan to handle all incoming help requests, show them to the IT guys, and provide WCF services for the Client application to consume. My dilemma lies in that, I know how to make the program run on my local machine; but I'm really stumped on how to make this work for everyone who wants to download and install the server bit on their Windows Server. Would I have to make an SQL Script and have it run on the MS SQL server when a user wants to install the 'server' application? Many thanks to all for your valuable time and effort to teach me. It's really really appreciated. :) Edit: To clarify, each business will have their server completely separate from me. I will have no access whatsoever to them nor will they be in any way connected to me. (I don't know why I should clarify this :P ) So, assuming the have ABSOLUTELY NO DATABASE SERVER installed; what can I do?

    Read the article

  • Dynamic loading of shared objects using dlopen()

    - by Andy
    Hi, I'm working on a plain X11 app. By default, my app only requires libX11.so and the standard gcc C and math libs. My app has also support for extensions like Xfixes and Xrender and the ALSA sound system. But this feature shall be made optional, i.e. if Xfixes/Xrender/ALSA is installed on the host system, my app will offer extended functionality. If Xfixes or Xrender or ALSA is not there, my app will still run but some functionality will not be available. To achieve this behaviour, I'm not linking dynamically against -lXfixes, -lXrender and -lasound. Instead, I'm opening these libraries manually using dlopen(). By doing it this way, I can be sure that my app won't fail in case one of these optional components is not present. Now to my question: What library names should I use when calling dlopen()? I've seen that these differ from distro to distro. For example, on openSUSE 11, they're named the following: libXfixes.so libXrender.so libasound.so On Ubuntu, however, the names have a version number attached, like this: libXfixes.so.3 libXrender.so.1 libasound.so.2 So trying to open "libXfixes.so" would fail on Ubuntu, although the lib is obviously there. It just has a version number attached. So how should my app handle this? Should I let my app scan /usr/lib/ first manually to see which libs we have and then choose an appropriate one? Or does anyone have a better idea? Thanks guys, Andy

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 219 220 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230  | Next Page >