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  • Why I cannot add a JPanel to JFrame?

    - by Roman
    Here is the code: import javax.swing.SwingUtilities; import javax.swing.JFrame; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.JLabel; import java.awt.event.*; import java.awt.*; public class GameWindow { private String[] players; private JFrame frame; // Constructor. public GameWindow(String[] players) { this.players = players; } // Start the window in the EDT. public void start() { SwingUtilities.invokeLater(new Runnable() { public void run() { showWindow(); controller.start(); } }); } // Defines the general properties of and starts the window. public void showWindow() { frame = new JFrame("Game"); frame.setDefaultCloseOperation(JFrame.EXIT_ON_CLOSE); frame.setSize(600,400); frame.setVisible(true); } // The thread controlling changes of panels in the main window. private Thread controller = new Thread() { public void run() { frame.add(generatePartnerSelectionPanel()); frame.invalidate(); frame.validate(); } }; // Generate the panel for the selection of a partner. private JPanel generatePartnerSelectionPanel() { JPanel panel = new JPanel(); panel.add(new JLabel("Pleas select a partner:")); return panel; } } I should see "Pleas select the partner" and I don't. Why? I suppose that it's because I do not see frame from the run method of the Thread.

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  • In Seam what's the difference between injected EntityManager and getEntityManager from EntityHome

    - by Navi
    I am testing a Seam application using the needle test API. In my code I am using the getEntityManager() method from EntityHome. When I run the unit tests against an in memory database I get the following exception: java.lang.IllegalStateException: No application context active at org.jboss.seam.Component.forName(Component.java:1945) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:2005) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1983) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1977) at org.jboss.seam.Component.getInstance(Component.java:1972) at org.jboss.seam.framework.Controller.getComponentInstance(Controller.java:272) at org.jboss.seam.framework.PersistenceController.getPersistenceContext(PersistenceController.java:20) at org.jboss.seam.framework.EntityHome.getEntityManager(EntityHome.java:177) etc .. I can resolve some of these errors by injecting the EntityManager with @In EntityManager entityManager; Unfortunately the persist method of EntityHome also calls the getEntityManager. This means a lot of mocks or rewriting the code somehow. Is there any workaround and why is this exception thrown anyway? I am using Seam 2.2.0 GA by the way. There is nothing special about the components. They are generated by seam-gen. The test is performed with in memory database - I followed the examples in http://jbosscc-needle.sourceforge.net/jbosscc-needle/1.0/db-util.html.

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  • Strage character encoding problem with Eclipse / Spring / Tomcat 6

    - by Czar
    Hi, I have been trying things all da but can't get a proper solution. My problem is: I am developing a Spring MVC based app in my local Tomcat. My MYSQl database has UTF-8 encoding set, all content in there displays properly when using phpMyAdmin. Also the output in LOG files using log4j in catalina.out works fine. My JSP pages are configured by <!-- encoding --> <%@ page contentType="text/html; charset=UTF-8" %> <%@ page pageEncoding="UTF-8" %> Also showing data on my JSP works fine. I can also send data from my Controller without any DB intereference using special chars, e.g. String str = "UTF-8 Test: Ä Ö Ü ß è é â"; logger.debug(str); mav.addObject("utftest", str); That displays correctly in log and on jsp page in browser. BUT: When having special chars directly in my JSP file, e.g. for text in headers, this does not work. FF and Google Chrome display strange chars but report the page to be UTF-8. When switching to Latin, the chars just get more and more strange. Same problem when showing text tokens from my messages.properties file, although Eclipse says when right-clicking that UTF-8 will be used. I am a little it lost and don't know where to check now. Summary: DB storage is fine DB output on JSP is fine Output on JSP directly form controller is fine even reading in form forms is fine .properties files and JSP text is not fine !!! Any ideas? I really appreciate and tips.

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  • Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem

    - by SonOfOmer
    I am building custom implementation of php MVC routing engine, and I have custom routes like one in $routes array below. Each time when I send asynchronous GET request like xmlhttp.open("GET","someurl"); I get following message Warning: preg_match() [function.preg-match]: Unknown modifier '/' problem but with synchronous (normal) request it all works fine <?php $routes = array( array('url' => '/^someurl$/', 'controller' => 'somecontroller', 'view' => 'someview') ); $url = $_SERVER['REQUEST_URI']; $url = substr( $url, 1 ); $params = array(); $route_match = false; foreach($routes as $urls => $route) { if(preg_match($route['url'], $url, $matches)) { $params = array_merge($params, $matches); $route_match = true; break; } } require_once(CONTROLLER_PATH.$route['controller'].'.php'); ?> string(11) "/^someurl$/" is the result of var_dump($route['url']); Thanks.

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  • Should this even be a has_many :through association?

    - by GoodGets
    A Post belongs_to a User, and a User has_many Posts. A Post also belongs_to a Topic, and a Topic has_many Posts. class User < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Topic < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :posts end class Post < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :topic end Well, that's pretty simple and very easy to set up, but when I display a Topic, I not only want all of the Posts for that Topic, but also the user_name and the user_photo of the User that made that Post. However, those attributes are stored in the User model and not tied to the Topic. So how would I go about setting that up? Maybe it can already be called since the Post model has two foreign keys, one for the User and one for the Topic? Or, maybe this is some sort of "one-way" has_many through assiociation. Like the Post would be the join model, and a Topic would has_many :users, :through = :posts. But the reverse of this is not true. Like a User does NOT has_many :topics. So would this even need to be has_many :though association? I guess I'm just a little confused on what the controller would look like to call both the Post and the User of that Post for a give Topic. Edit: Seriously, thank you to all that weighed in. I chose tal's answer because I used his code for my controller; however, I could have just as easily chosen either j.'s or tim's instead. Thank you both as well. This was so damn simple to implement, and I think today marks the day that I'm beginning to fall in love with rails.

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  • iPad start in Landscape receive only touch within 768x768

    - by user1307179
    It works perfect fine when starting in portrait and also works when you rotate from portrait to landscape and back. It does not work when starting in landscape. But then it works when you rotate from landscape to portrait and back. In landscape starting mode, the screen does not respond with any touch where screen coordinateX greater than 768. What happens in code is, I use status bar orientation to determine original orientation and rotate each view manually. The views display correctly but does not receive touch properly. Then my root view controller will get called when ipad start rotating with: - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration which will rotate every subviews. Root controller: - (void)loadView { self.view = [[UIView alloc]init ]; //initialize child views [self willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:0 duration:0]; } - (void)willRotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)toInterfaceOrientation duration:(NSTimeInterval)duration { if ([model isLandscape]) { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 1024, 768-80); } else { self.view.frame = CGRectMake(0, 0, 768, 1024-80); } //rotate child views } My code [model isLandscape] works so I don't need to provide details as to how it works but here are the code anyway: - (bool)isLandscape { if (orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeLeft || orientation == UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight) return true; else return false; } -(id) init { [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(orientationChanged:) name:UIDeviceOrientationDidChangeNotification object:nil]; } - (void)orientationChanged:(NSNotification *)notification { UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortrait || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft || curOrientation == UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = curOrientation; ((AppDelegate*)([UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate)).savedOrientationForRestart = orientation; NSLog(@"changed"); } } -(void)validateOrientation { //first time when initializing orientation UIInterfaceOrientation curOrientation = [[UIDevice currentDevice] orientation]; if (curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortrait && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationPortraitUpsideDown && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeLeft && curOrientation != UIDeviceOrientationLandscapeRight) { orientation = [[UIApplication sharedApplication] statusBarOrientation]; } }

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  • MVC: capture route url's and pass them to javascript function

    - by Tim Geerts
    Short:Is there a way to have a route-definition that will pass the "CONTROLLER/ACTION" string value to a javascript function in stead of actually going straight for the controller action? More:I have a masterpage which contains the navigation of the site. Now, all the pages need this navigation wrapped around it at all times, but because I didn't want the navigation to constantly load with each pagecall, I changed all my pages to partialviews. These partial views are loaded via the JQuery.Load() method whenever a menu item is clicked in the navigation. This all worked very good, up till now because I noticed it's also a requirement of the website to be able to link directly to page X, rather then default.aspx. So, as an example:The main page is my "default.aspx" page, this utilizes my master page with the nagivation around it. And each call to a new page uses a javascript function that loads that particular partial view inside a div that is known in my masterpage. So, the url never changes away from "default.aspx", but my content changes seemlesly. The problem is, those url's also need to be available when typed directly into the address bar. But, they're partial views, so loading them directly from the address bar makes them display without any masterpages around them. Therefore my question if it might be possible to capture the route typed into the address bar and pass that on to my javascript function that will load that route in the content div. (I hope I explained it ok enough, if not, feel free to ask more information)

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  • Rails: Custom template for email "deliver_" method?

    - by neezer
    I'm building an email system that stores my different emails in the database and calls the appropriate "deliver_" method via method_missing (since I can't explicitly declare methods since they're user-generated). My problem is that my rails app still tries to render the template for whatever the generated email is, though those templates don't exist. I want to force all emails to use the same template (views/test_email.html.haml), which will be setup to draw their formatting from my database records. How can I accomplish this? I tried adding render :template => 'test_email' in the test_email method in emailer_controller with no luck. models/emailer.rb: class Emailer < ActionMailer::Base def method_missing(method, *args) # not been implemented yet logger.info "method missing was called!!" end end controller/emailer_controller.rb: class EmailerController < ApplicationController def test_email @email = Email.find(params[:id]) Emailer.send("deliver_#{@email.name}") end end views/emails/index.html.haml: %h1 Listing emails %table{ :cellspacing => 0 } %tr %th Name %th Subject - @emails.each do |email| %tr %td=h email.name %td=h email.subject %td= link_to 'Show', email %td= link_to 'Edit', edit_email_path(email) %td= link_to 'Send Test Message', :controller => 'emailer', :action => 'test_email', :params => { :id => email.id } %td= link_to 'Destroy', email, :confirm => 'Are you sure?', :method => :delete %p= link_to 'New email', new_email_path Error I'm getting with the above: Template is missing Missing template emailer/name_of_email_in_database.erb in view path app/views

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  • ASP.NET MVC View Engine Resolution Sequence

    - by intangible02
    I created a simple ASP.NET MVC version 1.0 application. I have a ProductController which has one action Index. In the view, I created a corresponding Index.aspx under Product subfolder. Then I referenced the Spark dll and created Index.spark under the same Product view folder. The Application_Start looks like protected void Application_Start() { RegisterRoutes(RouteTable.Routes); ViewEngines.Engines.Clear(); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new Spark.Web.Mvc.SparkViewFactory()); ViewEngines.Engines.Add(new WebFormViewEngine()); } My expectation is that since the Spark engine registers before default WebFormViewEngine, when browse the Index action in Product controller, the Spark engine should be used, and WebFormViewEngine should be used for all other urls. However, the test shows that the Index action for Product controller also uses the WebFormViewEngine. If I comment out the registration of WebFormViewEnginer (the last line in the code), I can see that the Index action is rendered by Spark engine and the rest urls generates an error (since the defualt engine is gone), it proves that all my Spark code is correct. Now my question is how the view engine is resolved? Why the registration sequence does not take effect?

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  • Seam:token tag not being respected

    - by JBristow
    When I click a command button, and then hit the browser back button to the form and click it again, it submits a second time without throwing the proper exception... Even stranger, the form id itself is DIFFERENT when I come back, which implies it has regenerated a "valid" form id at some point. Here's the relevant code: Any ideas? <h:form id="accountActivationForm"> <s:token/> <a4j:commandButton id="cancelActivateAccountButton" action="#{controller[cancelAction]}" image="/images/button-Cancel-gray.gif" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onCancelComplete}" /> &#160; <a4j:commandButton id="activateAccountButton" action="#{controller[agreeAction]}" image="/images/button-i-agree-continue.gif" styleClass="activate-account-button" reRender="#{reRenderList}" oncomplete="#{onActivationComplete}"/> </h:form> Clarifications: I inherited this, so I'm trying to change it as little as possible. (It's used in a couple places.) Each action returns a view, not null. I have confirmed this by stepping through line-by-line. The reRenderList is empty in my current test-case. onActivationComplete is also empty. I'm going to be going template-by-template to see if someone made it with nested forms, because my coworkers have had unrelated problems due to that, so it couldn't hurt to eliminate that as a possible problem.

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  • Rails: Create method available in all views and all models

    - by smotchkkiss
    I'd like to define a method that is available in both my views and my models Say I have a view helper: def foo(s) "hello #{s}" end A view might use the helper like this: <div class="data"><%= foo(@user.name) %></div> However, this <div> will be updated with a repeating ajax call. I'm using a to_json call in a controller returns data like so: render :text => @item.to_json(:only => [...], :methods => [:foo]) This means, that I have to have foo defined in my Item model as well: class Item def foo "hello #{name}" end end It'd be nice if I could have a DRY method that could be shared in both my views and my models. Usage might look like this: Helper def say_hello(s) "hello #{s}" end User.rb model def foo say_hello(name) end Item.rb model def foo say_hello(label) end View <div class="data"><%= item.foo %></div> Controller def observe @items = item.find(...) render :text => @items.to_json(:only=>[...], :methods=>[:foo]) end IF I'M DUMB, please let me know. I don't know the best way to handle this, but I don't want to completely go against best-practices here. If you can think of a better way, I'm eager to learn!

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  • Dismissing UIImagePickerController from UITabBarController

    - by Dave
    I have a tab bar application whereby one tab uses a navigation controller to move through a series of views. On the final view, there is a button to add a photo, which presents a UIImagePickerController. So far, so good - however when I finish picking the image, or cancel the operation, the previous view is loaded, but without the tab bar. I'm sure I'm missing something elementary, but any suggestions on how to properly release the UIImagePickerController would be much appreciated. The code is as follows: ImagePickerViewController *aController = [[ImagePickerViewController alloc]; initWithNibName:@"ImagePickerViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release]; //viewDidLoad self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease]; imagePickerController = [[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; imagePickerController.delegate = self; if([UIImagePickerController isSourceTypeAvailable: UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera]){ imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; } else { imagePickerController.sourceType = UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; } [window addSubview:imagePickerController.view]; //ImagePickerViewController imagePickerControllerDidCancel - FinalViewController is the last view in the stack controlled by a navigation controller which contains the button to present the UIImagePickerController [picker dismissModalViewControllerAnimated:YES]; FinalViewController *aController = [[FinalViewController alloc initWithNibName:@"FinalViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [picker presentModalViewController:aController animated:YES]; [aController release];

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  • Attempted to read or write protected memory

    - by Interfector
    I have a sample ASP.NET MVC 3 web application that is following Jonathan McCracken's Test-Drive Asp.NET MVC (great book , by the way) and I have stumbled upon a problem. Note that I'm using MVCContrib, Rhino and NUnit. [Test] public void ShouldSetLoggedInUserToViewBag() { var todoController = new TodoController(); var builder = new TestControllerBuilder(); builder.InitializeController(todoController); builder.HttpContext.User = new GenericPrincipal(new GenericIdentity("John Doe"), null); Assert.That(todoController.Index().AssertViewRendered().ViewData["UserName"], Is.EqualTo("John Doe")); } The code above always throws this error: System.AccessViolationException : Attempted to read or write protected memory. This is often an indication that other memory is corrupt. The controller action code is the following: [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index() { ViewData.Model = Todo.ThingsToBeDone; ViewBag.UserName = HttpContext.User.Identity.Name; return View(); } From what I have figured out, the app seems to crash because of the two assignements in the controller action. However, I cannot see how there are wrong!? Can anyone help me pinpoint the solution to this problem. Thank you.

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  • @Autowire strange problem

    - by Javi
    Hello, I have a strange behaviour when autowiring I have a similar code like this one, and it works @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2{ ... } The problem is that I need that the Class2 implements an interface so I've only changed the Class2 so it's now like: @Controller public class Class1 { @Autowired private Class2 object2; ... } @Service @Transactional public class Class2 implements IServiceReference<Class3, Long>{ ... } public interface IServiceReference<T, PK extends Serializable> { public T reference(PK id); } with this code I get a org.springframework.beans.factory.NoSuchBeanDefinitionException: No matching bean of type for Class2. It seems that @ Transitional annotation is not compatible with the interface because if I remove the @Transitional annotation or the "implements IServiceReference" the problem disapears and the bean is injected (though I need to have both in this class). It also happens if I put the annotation @Transitional in the methods instead of in the Class. I use Spring 3.0.2 if this helps. Is not compatible the interface with the transactional method? May it be a Spring bug? Thanks

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  • Use the repository pattern when using PLINQO generated data?

    - by Chad
    I'm "upgrading" an MVC app. Previously, the DAL was a part of the Model, as a series of repositories (based on the entity name) using standard LINQ to SQL queries. Now, it's a separate project and is generated using PLINQO. Since PLINQO generates query extensions based on the properties of the entity, I started using them directly in my controller... and eliminated the repositories all together. It's working fine, this is more a question to draw upon your experience, should I continue down this path or should I rebuild the repositories (using PLINQO as the DAL within the repository files)? One benefit of just using the PLINQO generated data context is that when I need DB access, I just make one reference to the the data context. Under the repository pattern, I had to reference each repository when I needed data access, sometimes needing to reference multiple repositories on a single controller. The big benefit I saw on the repositories, were aptly named query methods (i.e. FindAllProductsByCategoryId(int id), etc...). With the PLINQO code, it's _db.Product.ByCatId(int id) - which isn't too bad either. I like both, but where it gets "harrier" is when the query uses predicates. I can roll that up into the repository query method. But on the PLINQO code, it would be something like _db.Product.Where(x = x.CatId == 1 && x.OrderId == 1); I'm not so sure I like having code like that in my controllers. Whats your take on this?

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  • How can I capture Rake output when invoked from with a Ruby script?

    - by Adrian O'Connor
    I am writing a web-based dev-console for Rails development. In one of my controller actions, I am calling Rake, but I am unable to capture any of the output that Rake generates. For example, here is some sample code, from the controller: require 'rake' require 'rake/rdoctask' require 'rake/testtask' require 'tasks/rails' require 'stringio' ... def show_routes @results = capture_stdout { Rake.tasks['routes'].invoke } # @results is nil -- the capture_stdout doesn't catpure anything that Rake generates end def capture_stdout s = StringIO.new $stdout = s yield s.string ensure $stdout = STDOUT end Does anybody know why I can't capture the Rake output? I've tried going through the Rake source, and I can't see where it fires a new process or anything, so I think I ought to be able to do this. Many thanks! Adrian I have since discovered the correct way to call Rake from inside Ruby that works much better: Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].reenable Rake.application['db:migrate:redo'].invoke Strangely, some rake tasks work perfectly now (routes), some capture the output the first time the run and after that are always blank (db:migrate:redo) and some don't seem to ever capture output (test). Odd.

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  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue?

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  • Redirection fails in IE but is fine with Firefox

    - by Bob
    I use an <Authorize> attribute in ASP.NET MVC to secure a controller. My page loads portions of its content via AJAX. Here's a problem I have with IE8, but not Firefox 3.6: Sign in as user JohnDoe and navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage. Everything works fine. AjaxPage is protected with the <Authorize> attribute. Sign out, which redirects me to http://www.example.com. That page doesn't use <Authorize>. Navigate to http://www.example.com/AjaxPage without signing in again. I should be redirected to the Sign In page since that controller has the <Authorize> attribute. Step 3 works with Firefox, but IE8 displays the non-Ajax portion of http://www.example.com/AjaxPage and then never loads the Ajax content. I'm surprised any content is displayed at all since I should be redirected to the Sign In page. My code redirects to the login page with: Return Redirect("https://login.live.com/wlogin.srf?appid=MY-APP-ID&alg=wsignin1.0") Why does Firefox handle this redirection, but IE doesn't? Since it works the first time (Step 1 above), is there a cache issue? EDIT: I used Fiddler to see if AjaxPage was being cached, but it appears not to be. I assume if it were cached, I'd get an HTTP Status Code 200 back. I may simply misunderstand this though.

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  • MVC UI with Mock Controllers?

    - by Jaimal Chohan
    I'm working with Aspnet MVC 2 (R2) and at the same time playing about with the whole alt.net stack. One of this things I would like to be able todo is basically write my Views, and be able to interact with them without having to write the controller logic. E.g. I have a view that displays a list of orders and I can click on an order which redirects to another view where I can edit it, but I don't want to get into the nitty gritty of writing the code to actually get a list of orders, or update an existing ordes. I want to do so I can write UI tests in WaitN/AOT/Selenium without having to worry about whats happening underneath, and also It would help drive my controller logic on a need basis as opposed to guess work based of of the supplied screenshots How do you guys accomplish this atm? Can you provide links ot useful blog posts/tools/framework/articles with information on how to accomplish this p.s. I primarly use Rhino Mocks & NUnit but can happliy change to other tools if they support the above better.

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  • Autorotation and multiple view controllers

    - by alku83
    I'm creating an iPad application which should only work in portrait and portait upsidedown modes. For performance reasons in my applicationDidFinishLaunching method I'm creating several viewControllers, and adding them to my main window as subviews. I then hide the ones I don't want to see straight away. There is no tab bar or navigation controller. My problem is that only the first viewController seems to be receiving the rotate calls. I have verified this by swapping around the order in which I add the subviews to the main window and NSLog's. Is there some way I can force all the controllers to receive the calls? Some of my views are designed to lay over the top of another view, but this behind view will not always be the same one - so it seems to make sense to have the overlay view in a separate view controller. Am I doing something fundamentally wrong, and that's why it's not behaving as I would expect? EDIT: The accepted answer for this question seems to indicate the exact problem I'm facing: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/548142/uiviewcontroller-rotate-methods

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  • jQuery ajax success not work in codeigniter

    - by softboxkid
    I had a problem with ajax. The trick is, when user click on the top hyperlink, it will send the link id through onclick=getChildMenuLink(str). Then from getChildMenuLink(str) function, it will send the str to the controller (to set the session) thru ajax. here is the code. html code <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig" onclick="getChildMenuLink(1)">Administrator</a> <a href="http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/welcome" onclick="getChildMenuLink(22)">Home</a> jquery ajax function getChildMenuLink(str) { 'use strict'; $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: "http://localhost/ejournal/index.php/sysconfig/getLink/" + str, success: function () {} // End of success function of ajax form }); // End of ajax call //alert(document.URL); } codeigniter controller function getLink($id='') { $this->session->unset_userdata('parentLink'); $this->session->set_userdata('parentLink',$id); } if i uncomment the alert() function on that script, it work. the PHP session is properly set. please help me

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  • Where to put data management rules for complex data validation in ASP.NET MVC?

    - by TheRHCP
    Hello, I am currently working on an ASP.NET MVC2 project. This is the first time I am working on a real MVC web application. The ASP.NET MVC website really helped me to get started really fast, but I still have some obscure knowledge concerning datamodel validation. My problem is that I do not really know where to manage my filled datamodel when it comes to complex validation rules. For example, validating a string field with a Regex is quite easy and I know that I just have to decorate my field with a specific attribute, so data management rules are implemented in the model. But if I have multiple fields that I need to validate which each other, for example multiple datetime that need to be correctly set following a specific time rule, where do I need to validate them? I know that I could create my own validation attributes, but sometimes validation ask a specific validation path which is to complex to be validated using attributes. This first question also leads me to a related question which is, is it right to validate a model in the controller? Because for the moment that is the only way I found for complex validation. But I find this a bit dirty and I feel it does not really fit a the controller role and much harder to test (multiple code path). Thanks.

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  • click event launched only once problem

    - by user281180
    I have a form in which I have many checkboxes. I need to post the data to the controller upon any checkbox checked or unchecked, i.e a click on a checbox must post to the controller, and there is no submit button. What will be the bet method in this case? I have though of Ajax.BeginForm and have the codes below. The problem im having is that the checkbox click event is being detected only once and after that the click event isnt being launched. Why is that so? How can I correct that? <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("Edit", new AjaxOptions { UpdateTargetId = "tests"})) {%> <div id="tests"> <%Html.RenderPartial("Details", Model); %> </div> <input type="submit" value="Save" style="Viibility:hidden" id="myForm"/> <%} %> $(function() { $('input:checkbox').click(function() { $('#myForm').click(); }); });

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  • NSPopupButton bound to NSArrayController not updating

    - by BuzzB
    I've got an NSPopupButton bound to an NSArrayController. (Man, that was harder than I thought it would be!) I have an NSArrayController bound to an NSMutableArray via the NSArrayController's "Controller Content" binding. The "Content" and "Content Values" bindings of the NSPopupButton are bound to my NSArrayController, and "Selected Object" is bound to a member in my app delegate. It is working as I expect. Except, when I add items to the NSMutableArray that my NSArrayController is bound to they don't appear in the popup. I kind of expected this to work automagically... with the NSArrayController observing the NSMutableArray and updating the NSPopupButton as necessary. Clearly I am missing something. [Update] Ok, clearly I am adding items to my array in a way that the array controller can't see. I finally found this... https://developer.apple.com/library/mac/documentation/cocoa/conceptual/CocoaBindings/Concepts/Troubleshooting.html But I really don't understand what it means. Does anyone know of a simple example of the proper way to dynamically added items to a bound NSMutableArray when the "adder" has no idea that there is a UI element bound to the array? Any help would be greatly appreciated.

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  • Architecture with NHibernate and Repositories

    - by Matthew
    I've been reading up on MVC 2 and the recommended patterns, so far I've come to the conclusion (amongst much hair pulling and total confusion) that: Model - Is just a basic data container Repository - Provides data access Service - Provides business logic and acts as an API to the Controller The Controller talks to the Service, the Service talks to the Repository and Model. So for example, if I wanted to display a blog post page with its comments, I might do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = PostService.GetComments(post); Or, would I do: post = PostService.Get(id); comments = post.Comments; If so, where is this being set, from the repository? the problem there being its not lazy loaded.. that's not a huge problem but then say I wanted to list 10 posts with the first 2 comments for each, id have to load the posts then loop and load the comments which becomes messy. All of the example's use "InMemory" repository's for testing and say that including db stuff would be out of scope. But this leaves me with many blanks, so for a start can anyone comment on the above?

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