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  • Solr Facet Search spring-data-solr

    - by sv1
    I am new to Solr and we are using Spring-data for Solr I have a question may be its too simple but I am unable to comprehend. Basically I need to search on any field but I have a "zip" field as one of the facet fields. I have a Solr repository . (Am not sure if the annotations on the Repository are correct.) public interface MyRepository extends SolrCrudRepository<MyPOJO, String> { @Query(value = "*:*") @Facet(fields={"zip"}) public FacetPage<MyPOJO> findByQueryandAnno(String searchTerm,Pageable page); } In my Service class I am trying to call this methods by Injecting MyRepository like below public class MyService { @Inject MyRepository solrRepo; @Inject SolrTemplate solrTemplate; public FacetPage<MyPOJO> tryFacets(String searchString){ //Here is where I am struggling SimpleFacetQuery query = new SimpleQuery(new SimpleStringCriteria(searchString)); query.setFacetOptions(new FacetOptions("zip")); //Not sure how to get the Pageable object. //But the repository doesnt accept without it. return solrTemplate.queryForPage(query,{Pageable Instance to be passed here}) } From my jUnit I am loading context files needed for Solr and Spring //In jUnit the test method looks like this service.tryFacets("some value"); and it fails with - method not found in the service class at the call to the repository method. *********EDIT**************** As per ChristophStrobl's advice created a copyfield called multivaluedCopyField and the searchString argument works good. But the facet still isnt working...Now my code looks like this. I get the MyPOJO object as response but the facetcount and the faceted values are missing. public interface MyRepository extends SolrCrudRepository<MyPOJO, String> { @Query(value = "*:*") @Facet(fields={"zip"}) public FacetPage<MyPOJO> findByQueryandAnno(String searchTerm,Pageable page); } My service class looks like public class MyService { @Inject MyRepository solrRepo; public FacetPage<MyPOJO> tryFacets(String searchString){ //Here is where I am struggling SimpleFacetQuery query = new SimpleQuery(new SimpleStringCriteria(searchString)).setPageRequest new PageRequest(0,5)); query.setFacetOptions(new FacetOptions("zip")); FacetPage<MyPOJO> facetedPOJO= solrRepo.findByQueryandAnno(searchString,query.getPageRequest()); return facetedPOJO; } My jUnit method call is like service.tryFacets("some value");

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  • Is eclipse's Garbage Collector different than the default?

    - by Savvas Dalkitsis
    From questions posted here and an old one of mine I have created the impression that you cannot explicitly run the Java Garbage Collector whenever you please. If you call it, you simply instruct the system to call it whenever it can or thinks is appropriate. But in eclipse, if you press the "Run Garbage Collector" button you see an immediate reduction in memory usage. How is that possible? Is eclipse using a different Garbage Collector, does it have access to some secret API that we don't or is my conception of how the GC works wrong?

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  • Jquery $.post and PHP - Prevent the ability to use script outside of main website.

    - by Tim
    I have a PHP script setup using Jquery $.post which would return a response or do an action within the targeted .php file within $.post. Eg. My page has a form where you type in your Name. Once you hit the submit form button, $.post is called and sends the entered Name field value into "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" If a user was to visit "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" directly and somehow POST the data to the script, the script would return a response / do an action, based on the submitted POST data. The problem is, I don't want others to be able to periodically "call" an action or request a response from my website without using the website directly. Theoretically, right now you could determine what Name values my website allows without even visiting it, or you could call an action without going through the website, by simply visiting "mywebsite.xyz/folder/ajaxscript.php" So, what measures can I take to prevent this from happening? So far my idea is to ensure that it is a $_POST and not a $_GET - so they cannot manually enter it into the browser, but they could still post data to the script... Another measure is to apply a session key that expires, and is only valid for X amount of visits until they revisit the website. ~ Or, just have a daily "code" that changes and they'd need to grab this code from the website each day to keep their direct access to the script working (eg. I pass the daily "code" into each post request. I then check that code matches in the ajax php script.) However, even with these meaures, they will STILL have access to the scripts so long as they know how to POST the data, and also get the new code each day. Also, having a daily code requirement will cause issues when visiting the site at midnight (12:00am) as the code will change and the script will break for someone who is on the website trying to call the script, with the invalid code being passed still. I have attempted using .htaccess however using: order allow,deny deny from all Prevents legitimate access, and I'd have to add an exception so the website's IP is allowed to access it.. which is a hassle to update I think. Although, if it's the only legitimate solution I guess I'll have to. If I need to be more clear please let me know.

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  • calling a method on the parent page from a user control

    - by Kyle
    I am using a user control that I created (just a .cs file not an .ascx file), that does some magic and depending on a value generated by the control, I need it to do something on the parent page that is 'hosting' the control. It needs to call a method under certain circumstances (method is on the parent control). the control is placed on the parent page like so: <customtag:MyControl ID="something" runat="server" /> I'm dynamically creating buttons etc on the control itself but when a button is clicked, let's say for example that there's a text box on the control and if the value of the textbox is "bob" it needs to call a method on the page that's housing the control...how can I accomplish this?

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  • How a servlet can get the absolute path to a file outside of the servlet?

    - by WolfmanDragon
    We have been using System.getProperties("user.dir") to get the location of a properties file. Now that it has been deployed on Tomcat(via servlet), the System call is giving the location as tomcat and not at the location at where the properties file exist. How can we call the the properties file dynamically? Given: Tomcat is not the only way the app will be deployed We have no control on where the app may be placed. Relative paths will not work as that Vista is being used and Vista breaks relative paths. This must work on all OS, including(but not limited to) Linux, XP and Vista. EDIT I implied this, but in case I was not clear enough, I have no way of knowing the path String.

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  • Mixing Transaction Script pattern with DDD/CQRS

    - by Herman
    Hi all, Here is the situation, in order to support our legacy system, we need to insert to a table whenever a user logs in. This is basically an CRUD operation, so it doesn't really make sense to create repository/entity/command/event for this since this doesn't tie to any business rules at all. The only benefit to create a CQRS command is that this database write can happen asynchronously under that model. Which is a better route to take? Use CQRS, and then call a stored proc. when handling that command? Just call database directly in the controller (I am using asp.net mvc)

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  • Clojure vars and Java static methods

    - by j-g-faustus
    I'm a few days into learning Clojure and are having some teething problems, so I'm asking for advice. I'm trying to store a Java class in a Clojure var and call its static methods, but it doesn't work. Example: user=> (. java.lang.reflect.Modifier isPrivate 1) false user=> (def jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) #'user/jmod user=> (. jmod isPrivate 1) java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: No matching method found: isPrivate for class java.lang.Class (NO_SOURCE_FILE:0) at clojure.lang.Compiler.eval(Compiler.java:4543) From the exception it looks like the runtime expects a var to hold an object, so it calls .getClass() to get the class and looks up the method using reflection. In this case the var already holds a class, so .getClass() returns java.lang.Class and the method lookup obviously fails. Is there some way around this, other than writing my own macro? In the general case I'd like to have either an object or a class in a varible and call the appropriate methods on it - duck typing for static methods as well as for instance methods. In this specific case I'd just like a shorter name for java.lang.reflect.Modifier, an alias if you wish. I know about import, but looking for something more general, like the Clojure namespace alias but for Java classes. Are there other mechanisms for doing this? Edit: Maybe I'm just confused about the calling conventions here. I thought the Lisp (and by extension Clojure) model was to evaluate all arguments and call the first element in the list as a function. In this case (= jmod java.lang.reflect.Modifier) returns true, and (.getName jmod) and (.getName java.lang.reflect.Modifier) both return the same string. So the variable and the class name clearly evaluate to the same thing, but they still cannot be called in the same fashion. What's going on here? Edit 2 Answering my second question (what is happening here), the Clojure doc says that If the first operand is a symbol that resolves to a class name, the access is considered to be to a static member of the named class... Otherwise it is presumed to be an instance member http://clojure.org/java_interop under "The Dot special form" "Resolving to a class name" is apparently not the same as "evaluating to something that resolves to a class name", so what I am trying to do here is something the dot special form does not support.

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  • Jquery Delay Function Calls

    - by fizgig07
    I'm trying to find a way to delay all code that takes place after I make a service call. The reason for this delay is that my service returns code necesarry for the following functions and the result I pass is to these following functions is undefined. I have tried attaching the setTimeout() to the function that is called directly after the service call, but then it just skips the function I set the timeout on and jumps to the next function...My web method that I am calling is not that big and is not doing anything that is too intensive public bool GetSpreadsheetStatusForAdmin(string cacId) { SpreadSheetStatus result = new SpreadSheetStatus(); List<Data.Spreadsheet> spreadsheets = SpreadsheetManager.GetUserSpreadsheets(GetCurrent.Identity); if (spreadsheets.Count != 0) { foreach (Data.Spreadsheet spreadsheet in spreadsheets) { if (spreadsheet.Status == SpreadsheetStatus.Pending) { return true; } } } return false; } I had found the delay() and thought that might work, but I don't have jquery 1.4 and can't use it as of yet. is there anything that can help..?

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  • jQuery if checkbox is checked to toggle classes

    - by Lynx
    I am needed to change my jQuery code up. Instead of the label toggling the class and showing the icon I need it to where if the checkbox is checked to show to toggle those classes. I have tried prop and is but I couldn't get them to work properly. The reason for the change is I want to preload data into the form and if it's going to be checked those toggles need to reflect that change. http://jsfiddle.net/70fbLooL/2/ EDIT Seems to be confusion as to exactly what I am trying to do. The fiddle I provided works perfectly fine. The problem is if I want to call the form from server-side and pre-populate the form the checkbox toggles will not show that they are checked because it's based on the clicked function. I need it to be based on if the checkbox equal true or checked. That way if the value equals true from the server-side call it will toggle those classes and look like it's checked.

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  • jquery and codeigniter

    - by rabidmachine9
    Hello people, and sorry if that question is stupid I'm trying to use javascript with codeigniter and I can't get it right what I'm actually doing is placing jQuery inside the views folder and call it from one of my view files like that: <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> I get no response no errors it just doesn't work, I could also display more code but my first assumption is that there something wrong with the way I call it... maybe something with the paths? any workarounds? thanks in advance

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  • Should I use custom exceptions to control the flow of application?

    - by bonefisher
    Is it a good practise to use custom business exceptions (e.g. BusinessRuleViolationException) to control the flow of user-errors/user-incorrect-inputs??? The classic approach: I have a web service, where I have 2 methods, one is the 'checker' (UsernameAlreadyExists()) and the other one is 'creator' (CreateUsername())... So if I want to create a username, I have to do 2 roundtrips to webservice, 1.check, 2.if check is OK, create. What about using UsernameAlreadyExistsException? So I call only the 2. web service method (CrateUsername()), which contains the check and if not successfull, it throws the UsernameAlreadyExistsException. So the end goal is to have only one round trip to web service and the checking can be contained also in other web service methods (so I avoid calling the UsernameAlreadyExists() all the times..). Furthermore I can use this kind of business error handling with other web service calls completely avoiding the checking prior the call.

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  • Contextual bindings with Ninject 2.0

    - by Przemaas
    In Ninject 1.0 I had following binding definitions: Bind<ITarget>().To<Target1>().Only(When.Context.Variable("variable").EqualTo(true)); Bind<ITarget>().To<Target2>(); Given such bindings I had calls: ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", true)); ITarget target = kernel.Get<ITarget>(With.Parameters.ContextVariable("variable", false)); First call was resolved to instance of Target1, second call was resolved to instance of Target2. How to translate this into Ninject 2.0?

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  • ASP.NET (VB) - Close an opened SQL connection inside Function

    - by B1GB0Y
    Can anyone tell me how I close an opened SQL connection inside a Function? I call a Select Function like this: Function Selec(ByVal SQLStr As String) As SqlDataReader Dim SQLConn As New SqlConnection() Dim SQLCmd As New SqlCommand() SQLConn.ConnectionString = Session("bd") SQLConn.Open() SQLCmd.Connection = SQLConn SQLCmd.CommandText = SQLStr Selec = SQLCmd.ExecuteReader End Function And in another page I do a While method to retrieve me the data like this: (Note: BDcon.BD is the name of the Class that have Functions) Dim write as New BDcon.BD Dim menu As SqlDataReader = writeBD.Selec("SELECT something from Table") While menu.Read 'Do something End While menu.Close 'This close just the DataReader and not the SqlConnection Finally I want to Close my SQL Connection by Function like this: Function Close() As SqlConnection Dim SQLConn As New SqlConnection() SQLConn.ConnectionString = Session("bd") SQLConn.Close() End Function I think that the problem is on the Close() Function, I want to close the connection but I don't know how to call my Opened Conneciton. Please anyone can help me? Thanks in advance :)

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  • When does a MySQL Query actually execute in PHP?

    - by MJB
    This sounds like a really simple question, but I am new to PHP. If I have a statement like this: $r =& $db->query("insert into table (col1, col2) values (10, 20)"); Do I have to still execute it, or does it get executed when I reference it? I have another case where I have a select query, which seems logically to run only when I call fetchrow, but the code I am presented with (to fix) does not call execute or fetch.I would have expected it to, so I cannot tell if it is just that I don't get it, or that the missing execute statement is the problem. It also does not insert the record, but it does not throw an error I can find. Also, I am a little confused by the =& notation. I looked it up on google, and found a few mentions of it, but I am still not clear on it. Thanks.

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  • Websphere Java application startup

    - by Tom Barnett
    I have two Java applications running on a Websphere application server. The first application is COTS software (Plateau) I will call App1 and includes an API which can be used in custom applications to interact with App1. This app takes a couple minutes to start in Websphere. The second application is custom software I will call App2 and is deployed as a web service which utilizes the App1 API to interact with App1; so it is dependent on App1. This app takes just seconds to start in Websphere. I run into a problem in certain App1 functionality when we bounce Websphere and the App2 web service is called by a client before the App1 application has fully started. Is there a way I can delay App2 from starting until App1 is fully started in Websphere? Is there a way to design App2 to programmatically check that App1 is available before it attempts to use the API?

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  • Assign an existing click event function to another click event using jquery

    - by Peter Delahunty
    Ok so i have some html like this: <div id="navigation"> <ul> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li> <a>tab name</a> <span class="delete-tab">X</span> </li> <li class="selected"> <a>tab name</a> <span class="tab-del-btn">X</span> </li> </ul> </div> I then have javascript that is excuted on the page that i do not control (this is in liferay portal). I want to then manipulate things afterwards with my own custom javascript. SO... For each of the span.delete-tab elements an on-click event function has been assign earlier. It is the same function call for each span. I want to take that function (any) and call it from the click event of the span.tab-del-btn ? This is what i tried to do: var navigation = jQuery('#navigation'); var navTabs = navigation.find('.delete-tab'); var existingDeleteFunction = null; navTabs.each(function (i){ var tab = jQuery(this); existingDeleteFunction = tab.click; }); var selectedTab = jQuery('#navigation li.selected'); var deleteBtn = selectedTab.find('.tab-del-btn'); deleteBtn.click(function(event){ existingDeleteFunction.call(this); }); It does not work though. existingDeleteFunction is not the original function it is some jquery default function. Any ideas?

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  • How to use soap in javascript

    - by fresher
    Hi guys, I am trying to use SOAP in javascript but i am not getting how to start it. Here is the code sample i write in PHP and it works fine. I want to write this code in Javascript. In following code i call one api from a www.example.com and for calling certain api we require to pass some parameters. $soapClient = new SoapClient("https://www.example.com/abc.aspx?WSDL"); // Prepare SoapHeader parameters $param_sh = array( ); $header = new SoapHeader('http://somesite.com/action/', 'user_credential', $param_sh); // Prepare Soap Client $soapClient->__setSoapHeaders(array($header)); // Setup the RemoteFunction parameters $param = array( "pwd" => "password", "id" => "name" ); // Call RemoteFunction () $contents = $soapClient->__call("name_of_api",array($param)); print_r($contents); Thanx in advance!!!

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  • Using a NullTempDataProvider crashes at PossiblyLoadTempData()

    - by Jova
    I'm trying to use a dummy TempDataProvider for some of my controllers. The provider looks like this. public class NullTempDataProvider : ITempDataProvider { public IDictionary<string, object> LoadTempData(ControllerContext controllerContext) { return new TempDataDictionary(); } public void SaveTempData(ControllerContext controllerContext, IDictionary<string, object> values) { } } But I'm getting an error that says System.NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object. at System.Web.Mvc.Controller.PossiblyLoadTempData() Any help for figuring out the reason for it is much appreciated.

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  • Can someone describe some DI terms to me?

    - by SoBeNoFear
    I'm in the process of writing a DI framework for PHP 5, and I've been trying to find the 'official' definitions of some words in relation to dependency injection. Some of these words are 'context' and 'lifecycle'. And also, what would I call the object that gets created/injected? Finally, what is the difference between components and services, and which term (if either) should I call the objects that can be injected? I've read Martin Fowler's article and looked through other DI frameworks (Phemto, Spring, Google Guice, Xyster, etc.), but I want to know what you think. Thanks!

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  • Question about Architecture for Viewing Images in ASP.NET MVC App

    - by Charlie Flowers
    I have an approach in mind for an image viewer in a web app, and want to get a sanity check and any thoughts you stackoverflowers might have. Here's the whirlwind nutshell summary: I'm working on an ASP.NET MVC application that will run in my company's retail stores. Even though it is a web application, we own the store machines and have control over them. We have a "windows agent" running on the store machine which we can talk to from the browser via javascript (it is a WCF service, and our web app has permission to talk to it from the browser). One of the web pages needs to be an "image viewer" page with some common things like Rotate & Zoom. Now, there are some WebForms controls that offer Rotate and Zoom. However, they take up server resources and generate a good bit of traffic between the server and the browser. For example, the Rotate function would cause an ajax call to the server, which would then generate a new image written to a .NET Canvas object, which would then be written to a file on the server, which would then be returned from the ajax call and refreshed inside the browser. Normally, that's a pretty good way of doing things. But in our case, we have code running on the store machine that we can communicate with. This leads me to consider the following approach: When the user asks to view an image, we tell our "windows agent" to download it from our image server to the store machine. We then redirect our browser to our image viewer page, which will pull the image from the local file we just wrote to the store machine. When the user clicks "Rotate", we cause JavaScript code in the browser to call our "windows agent" software, asking it to perform the "Rotate" function. The "windows agent" does the rotation using the same kind of imaging control that would formerly have been used on the server, but it does so now on the store machine. Javascript in the browser then refreshes the image on the page to show the newly rotated image. Zoom and similar features would be implemented the same way. This seems to be much more efficient, scalable, and responsive for the end-users. However, I've never heard of anything like it being done, mostly because it's rare to have this combination of a web app plus a "windows agent" on the client machine. What do you think? Feasible? Reasonable? Any pitfalls I overlooked or improvements / suggestions you can see? Has anyone done anything like this who would like to offer the wisdom of experience? Thanks!

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  • How to limit the number of the same Activity on the stack for an Android application

    - by johnrock
    Is this possible in an Android app? I want to make it so that no matter how many times a user starts activityA, when they hit the back button they will never get more than one occurence of activityA. What I am finding in my current code is that I have only two options: 1. I can call finish() in activityA which will prevent it from being accessible via the back button completely, or 2. I do not call finish(), and then if the user starts activityA (n) times during their usage, there will be (n) instances when hitting the back button. Again, I want to have activityA accessible by hitting the back button, but there is no reason to keep multiple instances of the same activity on the stack. Is there a way to limit the number of instances of an activity in the queue to only 1?

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  • A controller method that calls a different method on the same controller

    - by justSteve
    I have a controller method: public ActionResult Details(int id) { Order order = OrderFacade.Instance.Load(id); return View(order); } that is used for 95% of possible invocations. For the other 5% i need to manipulate the value of id before passing to the facade. I'd like to create a separate method within this same controller that executes that manipulation and then calls this (Details) method. What would the signature of that method look like? What is the syntax to call the main Details method? public ??? ManipulatorMethod(int id) { [stuff that manipulates id] [syntax to call Details(manipulatedID)] } mny thx

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  • Nhibernate ValueType Collection as delimited string in DB

    - by JWendel
    Hi I have a legacy db that I am mapping with Nhibernate. And in several locations a list och strigs or domain objects are mapped as a delimited string in the database. Either 'string|string|string' in the value type cases and like 'domainID|domainID|domainID' in the references type cases. I know I can create a dummy property on the class and map to that fields but I would like to do it in a more clean way, like when mapping Enums as their string representation with the EnumStringType class. Is a IUserType the way to go here? Thanks in advance /Johan

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  • GCC/XCode equivalent of _CrtCheckMemory?

    - by Chris Becke
    When dealing with random memory overwrites, in MSVC it is possible to validate the state of the heap at various points with a call to _CrtCheckMemory, and know with at least a small level of confidence that the code up until the check was not responsible for any errors that might cause new or malloc to fail later. In XCode, whats the equivalent way to try and box in a memory overwrite? All I have at the moment is a random failure of a call to new, somewhere deep in the bowels of some code with no real idea of how long the code has been running with a corrupt heap up until that point.

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  • Implicit parameter in Scalaz

    - by Thomas Jung
    I try to find out why the call Ø in scalaz.ListW.<^> works def <^>[B: Zero](f: NonEmptyList[A] => B): B = value match { case Nil => Ø case h :: t => f(Scalaz.nel(h, t)) } My minimal theory is: trait X[T]{ def y : T } object X{ implicit object IntX extends X[Int]{ def y = 42 } implicit object StringX extends X[String]{ def y = "y" } } trait Xs{ def ys[T](implicit x : X[T]) = x.y } class A extends Xs{ def z[B](implicit x : X[B]) : B = ys //the call Ø } Which produces: import X._ scala> new A().z[Int] res0: Int = 42 scala> new A().z[String] res1: String = y Is this valid? Can I achieve the same result with fewer steps?

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